Sanger sequencing is also called ___ sequencing
enzymatic
How are the dideoxynucleotides in Sanger sequencing also called?
terminators
Which part of the genome wasn’t sequenced when sequencing D. melanogaster?
Heterochromatin
If you have a 2x coverage, what is the percentage of the genome that is not sequenced?
15%
How many genes does H. influenzae have?
1,743
How many genes does D. melanogaster have?
14000 (13,986)
Which company produces and sells microarrays?
Affymetrix
Which method was used to study enhancer and suppressor mutations?
Modifier screens
What does the Bar mutation in D. melanogaster influence?
Eye shape, narrowness of the eyes
What do synthetic lethal studies allow to study?
genetic interactions
In which organism were synthetic lethals mainly studied?
yeast
How many percent of the predicted genes in yeast are non-essential when knocked out individually?
80%
Which method uses bait and prey to detect protein-protein interactions?
Yeast-2-hybrid
Which method is used in proteomics?
2D-PAGE
How are the reads called that are produced by computationally breaking a large DNA sequence (“bactig”) into smaller sequencing?
“faux” reads
What is the N50 contig length?
The length L such that 50% of the sequence lies in contigs of at least L.
Which method can be used to create knock-out mice?
Homologous recombination
RNA interference?
What is the advantage of PacBio compared to Illumina sequencing?
longer read lengths
Which method uses sequencing by ligation?
SOLiD
Which sequencing method doesn’t use fluorescence?
Ion Torrent
Which vectors are mainly used in shotgun sequencing?
plasmids
Which database stores information about protein and genetic interactions?
BioGrid
What can be used to cause point mutations?
EMS (ethylmethanesulfonate) (only the abbreviation EMS was given as answer)
causes point mutations, which are changes at a single nucleotide position. Mutations may be nonsense (introduce a premature stop codon) or mis-sense (cause an amino acid replacement). They may also be in non-coding sequence, affecting splicing signals or regulatory elements that control gene expression. This approach allows for many different mutations within gene regions, but these are difficult to map.
In Clone-by-clone sequencing, what does BAC stand for?
bacterial artificial chromosome
In WGS what is used for cloning?
HSP90 for what stands the number?
molecular weight (kilo dalton)
For what does SAGE stand for
Serial Analysis of Gene Expression
Whats the genome size of a typical bacteria like H. influenza?
1.8 Mb
What is used for knock down
RNA interference
Whats the fraction of heterochromatin in Drosophila?
Which sequence platform uses single molecule sequencing
PacBio
Which sequence platform don’t sequence by synthesis
SOLiD but by ligation
What method is viable for PPI Screening?
What method is viable for synthetic lethal screening?
Synthetic lethal screening aims to identify gene pairs where the loss of either gene alone is viable, but the loss of both leads to cell death.
Who invented sequencing with terminators?
Frederick Sanger and colleagues in 1977
Which method does NOT use fluorescence?
original Sanger sequencing method (1977)
Ion Torrent Sequencing
Nanopore Sequencing (Oxford)
What stages has the pathway that determines the final phenotype of an organism
DNA -> mRNA -> protein -> interactions with internal/external environment -> phenotype
whats EST sequencing
(Expressed Sequence Tags) EST Sequenzing was the first gnome-wide method. mRNA is reverse-transcribed into cDNA, then a large number of cDNAs are sequenced.
Pro: gives an estimate of absolute mRNA abundance (if cDNA library is random); very useful for gene discovery (annotating expressed regions of genomes and intron/exon boundaries). Con: expensive, time-consuming, requires large-scale sequencing; much of the sequencing is redundant (ESTs from highly-expressed genes are sequenced many times); must sequence 100,000's of ESTs to get a good representation of genes expressed at low levels; the ESTs only reveal gene expression levels in the particular tissue or sample that was used for mRNA preparation; genes expressed in specific tissues, cells, developmental stages, etc. may be missed.
Which of the following transcriptomic methods does NOT use fluorescence?
A) Microarrays
B) Affymetrix GeneChips™
C) SAGE
D) EST-based microarrays
SAGE stands for Serial Analysis of Gene Expression. It is a genome-wide method for measuring gene expression levels. Unlike microarrays, which rely on pre-designed probes, SAGE does not require prior knowledge of the genes—it is unbiased and sequence-based.
Extract mRNA → reverse transcribe to cDNA.
Use restriction enzymes to cut cDNA at specific sites (e.g., NlaIII at “CATG”).
Isolate tags near the 3’ end of transcripts.
Add adapters, then link tags together (ditags).
PCR-amplify ditags, then ligate them into long chains.
Sequence many tags in one go.
Map tags back to the genome to identify the originating gene.
Microarrays can be used to estimate absolute gene expression levels.
False it measures relative abundance
Which of the following statements about EST sequencing is FALSE?
A) ESTs provide a way to estimate gene expression.
B) It is efficient at detecting low-abundance transcripts.
C) It requires reverse transcription of mRNA.
D) It produces redundant reads from highly expressed genes.
The ratio of red to green fluorescence in a microarray hybridization indicates the ___________ between two samples.
relative gene expression level
What is the typical length of oligonucleotide probes used in Affymetrix GeneChips™?
A) 10 bp
B) 25 bp
C) 50 bp
D) 100 bp
What is one major advantage and one major disadvantage of SAGE over EST sequencing?
Advantage: More efficient; allows many transcripts to be analyzed in one sequencing reaction via tag concatenation.
Disadvantage: Requires a well-annotated genome to match short tags accurately.
Which method uses mismatch controls to improve specificity in hybridization-based transcriptomic analysis?
A) EST sequencing
B) Microarrays
C) Affymetrix GeneChips™
D) SAGE
C) Affymetrix GeneChips
In SAGE, what is the role of the enzyme NlaIII?
A) Adds biotin to primers
B) Synthesizes cDNA
C) Cuts cDNA at recognition sites to create tags
D) Labels cDNA with fluorescent dyes
Why might a gene be undetected in an EST sequencing experiment?
It might be expressed at very low levels or only in a tissue or condition not sampled.
If mutating a gene results in a specific phenotype, we can assume the gene is not involved in that trait.
False
In forward genetics, what is the typical sequence of steps?
A. Identify a gene → Mutate it → Observe phenotype
B. Observe phenotype → Identify gene
C. Insert transgene → Observe function
D. Silence gene → Measure expression
What is a “genetic screen”?
A genetic screen is a technique used in forward genetics to identify and study genes involved in a particular biological process or phenotype.
It involves the following steps:
Mutagenesis – Organisms (like Drosophila, C. elegans, bacteria, or plants) are treated with a mutagen (e.g., X-rays, EMS, or transposons) to introduce random mutations into their genomes.
Screening – The offspring of these mutagenized organisms are then screened for specific phenotypes of interest, such as defects in development, metabolism, or behavior.
Identification – Once mutants with the desired phenotype are identified, researchers then work to map and identify the mutated gene(s) responsible.
The goal of a genetic screen is often to find all of the genes involved in a particular trait or process, making it a powerful tool for dissecting complex genetic pathways.
Match the mutagen type to its description:
a. X-rays
b. EMS
c. Transposon
i. Causes point mutations
ii. Causes chromosomal deletions
iii. Can be used to tag and disrupt genes
a-ii, b-i, c-iii
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of chemical mutagenesis (like EMS) in forward genetics.
EMS Mutagenesis – Pros:
High mutation rate → Efficient gene disruption
Random → Unbiased gene discovery
Simple & cheap
Can reveal partial/essential gene functions
EMS Mutagenesis – Cons:
Random → Not gene-specific
Many mutations → Hard to find causal one
No marker → Mapping is slow
Bias for G/C → A/T mutations
Which of the following is not typically associated with reverse genetics?
A. RNA interference
B. CRISPR-Cas9
C. Saturation mutagenesis with phenotype screening
D. Homologous recombination
Why is reverse genetics particularly useful in the post-genomic era?
Reverse Genetics in the Post-Genomic Era – Why Useful?
Known genes, unknown function: Genomes are sequenced → many genes identified, but their functions aren’t.
Targeted approach: Reverse genetics allows direct testing of gene function by altering specific genes.
Tools available: Technologies like CRISPR, RNAi make gene targeting efficient.
Faster insights: Speeds up linking genes to phenotypes.
RNA interference always leads to complete elimination of gene expression.
In reverse genetics, _________ methods such as DHPLC and SSCP are used to detect point mutations.
screening
What is the main advantage of using transposable element excision in Drosophila reverse genetics?
Transposable element excision in Drosophila allows precise identification and disruption of genes, making it easier to link genotype to phenotype.
Which of the following is a correct pairing of gene silencing method and delivery mode?
A. RNAi – UV crosslinking
B. RNAi – dsRNA feeding
C. Transgenic deletion – siRNA injection
D. CRISPR – gene overexpression
How does the wHy method increase the chance of generating deletions compared to the standard P-element method?
The wHy method increases deletion frequency by using two transposons—one P-element and one piggyBac—flanking the target gene. When both elements excise, larger deletions spanning the gene are more likely, compared to standard single P-element excision, which typically causes smaller or local changes.
Compare and contrast homologous recombination and CRISPR-Cas9 as tools for genome editing.
Comparison
Both allow targeted genome modifications
HR is more precise but less efficient
CRISPR is faster, easier, and more versatile
Homologous Recombination (HR)
Precise, uses a DNA template for targeted edits
Low efficiency, especially in higher eukaryotes
Slow and labor-intensive
Often used in yeast and mice
CRISPR-Cas9
High efficiency and speed
Uses guide RNA to target DNA, can induce DSBs
Can cause insertions, deletions, or precise edits (with repair template)
Widely applicable across species
The QuikChange method uses mismatch primers to introduce mutations into plasmids.
True
Why must the parental DNA be digested with DpnI during the QuikChange mutagenesis method?
The parental DNA is digested with DpnI during the QuikChange mutagenesis method because DpnI specifically digests methylated DNA (the parental plasmid), leaving the newly synthesized, mutated DNA (which is not methylated) intact. This ensures that only the mutated DNA is retained, while the original (unmutated) plasmid is removed. This step helps enrich the sample with the correct, newly generated mutations.
Which of the following reporter genes is derived from jellyfish?
A. LacZ
B. β-galactosidase
C. GFP
D. ocnus
What was the functional conclusion from mutating the 3’ UTR of the Drosophila Adh gene?
The functional conclusion from mutating the 3’ UTR of the Drosophila Adh gene was that the wild-type 3’ UTR sequence acts as a negative regulatory element. When this region was deleted, alcohol dehydrogenase (Adh) enzymatic activity in the flies increased twofold, suggesting that the 3’ UTR normally serves to regulate down the expression of the gene. Removing this regulatory sequence leads to an increase in gene expression.
Which of the following best describes a complementation group?
A. A group of genes that physically interact in a pathway
B. A set of mutations that fail to complement each other and are likely in the same gene
C. A set of mutations that all show wild-type phenotype in combination
D. A set of genes encoding proteins found in the same cellular compartment
B
Which of the following is not a limitation of the Yeast 2-Hybrid (Y2H) system?
A. It only detects direct protein-protein interactions
B. It can detect interactions requiring three or more proteins
C. Fusion of proteins may alter their structure or function
D. Some bait proteins auto-activate transcription
B (meaning it cannot detect interactions of more than 2 proteins)
Which method would be most appropriate to detect protein-protein interactions on a genome-wide scale without prior purification of the protein?
A. Direct purification
B. Co-immunoprecipitation
C. GST-fusion chromatography
D. Yeast 2-Hybrid screen
D
In a genetic modifier screen, what would a mutation that makes a mutant phenotype less extreme be classified as?
A. Enhancer
B. Suppressor
C. Repressor
D. Inhibitor
Which of the following statements about protein microarrays is TRUE?
A. Proteins are more stable than DNA and easy to store
B. It is simple to synthesize proteins in large quantities like oligonucleotides
C. Proteins on arrays must be kept hydrated to maintain function
D. Protein arrays are typically used to identify mRNA-protein interactions
C
Explain the difference between a genetic interaction and a physical interaction in the context of interactomics.
A genetic interaction refers to the functional relationship between genes, often observed when mutations in two genes lead to a different phenotype than expected based on the individual mutations. A physical interaction refers to direct molecular contact between two molecules, such as two proteins or a protein and DNA.
Why do complementation tests only work with recessive mutations?
Because dominant mutations will show their phenotype even in the heterozygous state, making it impossible to determine whether two mutations complement each other based on offspring phenotype.
Define synthetic lethality and give an example of how it can be used to study genetic interactions.
Synthetic lethality occurs when two mutations, each of which is non-lethal on its own, result in lethality when combined. It can be used to identify genes with redundant or parallel functions. For example, in yeast, knocking out two genes involved in the same essential pathway might lead to cell death.
List one major advantage and one limitation of affinity chromatography in studying protein interactions.
Advantage: It allows the purification of protein complexes, identifying both direct and indirect interactions.
Limitation: It cannot distinguish between direct binding partners and those that are part of a complex via intermediates.
Imagine you are performing a forward genetic screen using Drosophila with a known Bar eye mutation. You want to identify enhancers and suppressors. Design an experimental strategy and explain how you would interpret the results.
Perform mutagenesis on Bar mutant flies.
Screen for offspring with either more extreme (narrower) or less extreme (wider) eye phenotypes.
Narrower eyes = potential enhancer mutations.
Wider/more wild-type eyes = potential suppressor mutations.
Further genetic mapping and complementation testing would identify the genes involved.
Critically evaluate the strengths and limitations of the Y2H method compared to co-immunoprecipitation. When would you prefer one over the other?
Y2H is high-throughput and detects direct interactions but may miss complex or context-dependent ones.
Co-IP detects protein complexes in their native cellular context but has lower throughput and requires good antibodies.
Y2H is preferred for large-scale screens; Co-IP is preferred for confirming interactions in the native cell environment.
In the yeast genetic interaction screen from 2010, ~170,000 interactions were found. Discuss how this information could be used to build a functional gene network and predict unknown gene functions.
Interacting genes often participate in similar processes.
By clustering genes with similar interaction profiles, functional modules can be identified.
Genes with unknown function can be assigned to pathways based on their interaction partners.
What is one of the main advantages of Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) over Sanger sequencing?
A) Produces longer reads
B) Requires no DNA library preparation
C) Can sequence DNA on a gigabase scale quickly
D) Does not require a reference genome
Which organisms were among the first to have their genomes sequenced using Sanger sequencing?
H. influenzae, yeast, Drosophila, Arabidopsis, human
Can Sequencing by hybridization be used to discover novel genomic sequences in non-model organisms?
False – it requires a known reference genome.
In sequencing by hybridization, how is the correct base at a position identified?
A) By sequencing both DNA strands
B) By measuring the size of PCR fragments
C) By observing which of four central-base probes has the strongest hybridization signal
D) By ligating fluorescently labeled terminators
Match each sequencing method to its key feature:
Method
Key Feature
A. 454
1. Sequencing by synthesis with reversible terminators
B. Illumina
2. Sequencing by ligation
C. SOLiD
3. Pyrophosphate release and light burst
A - 3
B - 1
C - 2
Which of the following NGS platforms uses emulsion PCR and detects light signals for base calling?
A) SOLiD
B) Illumina
C) 454 (Roche)
D) Nanopore
What are paired-end reads, and why are they useful?
Paired-end reads involve sequencing both ends of a DNA fragment. They help with genome assembly by providing information about the distance between reads and can resolve repetitive regions better.
Which sequencing method calls each base twice for increased accuracy using two-base encoding?
A) 454
C) SOLiD
What is RNA-seq and what is it typically used for?
RNA-seq is sequencing of cDNA to quantify gene expression. It maps millions of reads back to the genome to measure transcript abundance.
Which of the following is not a typical application of NGS?
A) Whole genome resequencing
B) Typing known SNPs
C) Gene expression profiling
D) High-accuracy long-read sequencing of single genes
(Typing of SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms) means detecting which version (allele) of a specific SNP is present in a sample.)
Next generation sequencing methods generally have lower error rates than Sanger sequencing.
False – NGS typically has higher error rates.
List two limitations of early NGS platforms.
Short read lengths (50–250 bp typically)
Higher error rates than Sanger sequencing
Slow base-by-base calling process
Which sequencing platform uses Zero-Mode Waveguides (ZMWs)?
A. Illumina
B. Oxford Nanopore
C. Pacific Biosciences (PacBio)
D. Ion Torrent
Which of the following is not a pro of the Ion Torrent platform?
A. Uses semiconductor chips
B. Low cost and small machine
C. Highest sequencing throughput
D. Fast run-times
What makes Oxford Nanopore sequencing unique compared to other methods?
A. Uses fluorescent nucleotides
B. Detects protons released during base incorporation
C. Reads DNA as it passes through a pore
D. Attaches polymerase to a chip
PacBio sequencing offers read lengths of up to 25,000 base pairs or more.
Oxford Nanopore sequencing always produces very accurate reads.
Ion Torrent detects changes in fluorescence.
PacBio sequencing uses light emission from incorporated nucleotides for base calling.
In Ion Torrent sequencing, base incorporation is detected via changes in _______.
pH
The PacBio sequencing platform uses a method known as __________ sequencing.
Single Molecule Real Time (SMRT)
Oxford Nanopore sequencing devices are small and can be used in the ________.
field
The part of the PacBio system that allows observation of single polymerase activity is called a __________.
Zero-Mode Waveguide (ZMW)
What is a major advantage and disadvantage of the Oxford Nanopore MinION platform?
→ Advantage: Extremely long reads, portability, and low cost
→ Disadvantage: High error rate (15–30%) and requires optimization for sample types
Why are PacBio’s long reads particularly useful?
They help with de novo genome assembly by spanning repetitive regions and resolving complex genomic structures.
How does the Ion Torrent platform detect which base is added?
It detects the release of a proton, which causes a measurable pH change during base incorporation.
What future improvement is mentioned for Oxford Nanopore technology?
Replacing the protein nanopore with a solid-state nano-channel or DNA transistor, which may offer faster and cheaper sequencing once technical challenges are solved.
What are Heat-Shock Proteins?
Heat-shock proteins (HSPs) are a group of molecular chaperones that help protect cells from stress, particularly from elevated temperatures, but also from other stressors like toxins, oxidative stress, or infection.
What is the difference between faulx and shotgun reads
FAULX reads are simulated reads, not real sequencing data.
No sequencing errors, biases, or gaps — they are “perfect” reads.
Which method uses pyrosequencing?
Roche 454 sequencing
Whats the difference between a contig and a scaffold?
contig is a continuous stretch of DNA sequence assembled from overlapping sequencing reads.
It represents a single contiguous sequence with no gaps.
A scaffold is a portion of the genome sequence reconstructed from end-sequenced whole-genome shotgun clones. Scaffolds are composed of contigs and gaps.
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