A 32-year-old man reports a patchy, binocular visual loss. On
tangent screen testing at 1 m, he has a 15° central loss of
vision in both eyes. The size of the field deficit stays unchanged
when testing is repeated at 2 m. Which of the following condi-
tions is the most likely explanation for his visual symptoms?
a. Bilateral optic neuropathy
b. Chiasmal lesion
c. Nonorganic (psychiatric) visual symptoms
d. Bithalamic lesion due to venous sinus thrombosis
e. Bilateral occipital lesion resulting from prior head trauma
Answer c.
Functional visual loss commonly presents as tunnel vision.
On tangent screen testing, a circular area of constriction
that does not expand appropriately when the distance
between the patient and the tangent screen is increased is
suspicious for functional disorder.
A 78-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the emer-
gency department with abrupt visual change. On examination,
he has a left homonymous hemianopia. Which of the following
localizations best accounts for the patient’s visual change?
a. Left retinopathy
b. Right optic neuropathy
c. Midline chiasmal lesion
d. Left temporal optic radiation lesion
e. Right occipital lobe lesion
Answer e.
A right occipital lobe infarction would result in a left hom-
onymous hemianopia. A left homonymous hemianopia
also could be seen with a lateral geniculate body lesion,
although the latter is generally incongruent.
The following visual field was obtained after a
patient presented with a 4-week history of worsening blurred
vision. What is the likely cause of this visual symptom?
a. Unilateral optic glioma
b. Pituitary tumor
c. Left temporal lobe hamartoma
d. Left carotid cavernous fistula
e. Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
The visual field examination shows bilateral enlargement
of the blind spots. This could be seen in a number of dis-
orders, but of the choices given, idiopathic intracranial
hypertension is the correct answer.
The patient whose fundus is shown in the image below might
report which of the following symptoms?
a. Reduced color vision
b. Headache and transient visual obscurations
c. Ocular pain
d. Diplopia
e. Visual loss, peripheral neuropathy, and dermatitis
Answer b.
Patients with papilledema may present with headache,
transient visual obscurations, enlarged blind spots, and
visual field loss (usually beginning nasally) if the edema is
chronic.
A 25-year-old woman presents with right-sided anterolateral
neck pain after falling while skiing. Her examination is remark-
able for a small but reactive pupil on the right and ptosis.
Brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is negative. Which of
the following is the most likely cause of this finding?
a. Right vertebral artery dissection
b. Right extracranial carotid artery dissection
c. Right intracranial carotid artery dissection
d. Carotid-cavernous fistula
e. Sigmoid sinus dural arteriovenous fistula
Horner syndrome is characterized by unilateral ptosis,
miosis, and anhidrosis. It can result anywhere along the
pathway of the sympathetic axons traveling to the eye (see Figure X.A5). In the case of an extracranial carotid artery
dissection, anhidrosis is usually absent because the sudo-
motor fibers have traveled to the face along and near the
external carotid artery. Vertebral artery dissection would
result only in Horner syndrome if evidence of ischemia
was observed on MRI (lateral brainstem), and the pain is
usually posterior. Carotid-cavernous fistula also can occur
after trauma and more commonly results in eye pain, prop-
tosis, and a sixth nerve palsy. A sigmoid sinus dural arte-
riovenous fistula would typically present with pulsatile
tinnitus and would not affect the sympathetic pathway.
A 93-year-old woman has hallucinations of household objects
moving across her vision about 2 weeks after a right occipital
infarction. She sometimes sees people who are not present.
These last for hours and come and go at all times of the day.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Occipital seizure
b. Hypnagogic hallucinations
c. Charles-Bonnet hallucinations
d. Palinopsia
e. Metamorphopsia
Charles-Bonnet hallucinations may occur after occipital
lobe injury and consist of well-formed hallucinations due
to deprivation of sensory input. Compared with seizures
that last from seconds to minutes, Charles-Bonnet halluci-
nations may last for hours. Hypnagogic hallucinations are
hallucinations occurring immediately before falling asleep.
Palinopsia refers to the persistence of an image after the
stimulus has been removed. Metamorphopsia is the distor-
tion of an image in time and space.
Branch retinal artery occlusions are found in a 27-year-old
woman who is also reporting hearing loss. Her magnetic reso-
nance imaging (MRI) scan is shown below. Which of the follow-
ing diagnoses is the most likely in this case?
a. Eales disease
b. Isolated central nervous system vasculitis
c. Leber optic neuropathy
d. Susac syndrome
e. Takayasu arteritis
Answer d.
The combination of visual loss (branch retinal artery occlu-
sion), hearing loss, and cerebral ischemia is characteristic
of Susac syndrome. The MRI scan shows the snowball-like
appearance of ischemic changes in the corpus callosum
consistent with Susac syndrome.
Which of the following statements is true about Graves disease
and the nervous system?
a. The lateral recti muscles are most commonly affected
b. The pathologic cause is inflammation of the muscle tendon
insertions
c. Exophthalmos and orbital edema usually occur after diplopia
d. Optic neuropathy may occur and threaten vision
e. Horizontal diplopia is a common first concern
Graves disease generally causes exophthalmos and orbital
edema before progressing to ophthalmopathy. The myopa-
thy is attributed to inflammation and fibrosis of the mus-
cles, sparing the tendinous insertions. The inferior recti
muscles usually are most severely affected (causing hypot-
ropia), followed by the medial recti, superior recti, and
oblique muscles. In thyroid ophthalmopathy, the lateral
rectus muscle is rarely affected. The most common presen-
tation is vertical diplopia caused by asymmetrical involve-
ment of the inferior or superior recti muscles. Other signs
may include orbital congestion, eyelid lag, proptosis, con-
junctival injection, and optic neuropathy due to compres-
sion of the optic nerve by enlarged extraocular muscles in
the orbital apex.
A 38-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus presents with sub-
acute, progressive right ear pain and reduced hearing that has
lasted for more than 1 week. During the past 2 days, diplopia
developed. General examination shows that the patient is febrile
and has a cloudy right tympanic membrane. Neurologic exami-
nation shows a right sixth nerve palsy. Which of the following is
the most likely cause of the patient’s presentation?
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Gradenigo syndrome
c. Cavernous sinus mucor
d. Pontine abscess
e. Herpes oticus
Gradenigo syndrome is an infectious or neoplastic pro-
cess that spreads to the tip of the petrous bone (petrous
apicitis). It can be caused by otitis media. This syndrome
may result in a sixth nerve palsy because the sixth nerve
travels through the Dorello canal along the petrous apex.
A 31-year-old woman presents with sudden diplopia. Examination
shows that she has right eye ptosis, the eye is positioned down
and out, and the pupil is enlarged and nonreactive. Head com-
puted tomography (CT) is negative. What is another emergent
necessary test to determine the cause of this patient’s symptoms?
a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. CT angiogram of the neck
c. Toxicology screen
d. CT angiogram of the head
e. Magnetic resonance venogram
A pupil involving third nerve palsy is an emergency until
proven otherwise. The differential diagnosis includes
compressive causes, including an enlarging aneurysm,
pituitary apoplexy, cavernous sinus fistula, or thrombosis.
A CT angiogram of the brain helps in the evaluation for an
aneurysm and carotid sinus vascular pathologic cause.
Magnetic resonance imaging might also be helpful to eval-
uate the course of the third nerve, including assessment of
the pituitary gland.
A 25-year-old man reports skew double vision at 3 weeks after
head trauma. Examination shows that he has slight right hyper-
tropia. Double vision worsens with right head tilt and improves with left head tilt. The pupils are equal and reactive. Which of
the following is the most likely cause of the double vision?
a. Right fourth nerve palsy
b. Left fourth nerve palsy
c. Right partial third nerve palsy
d. Right intranuclear ophthalmoplegia
e. Left partial third nerve palsy
Answer a.
The superior oblique functions to move the eye down and
inward, as well as intorsion. A patient with fourth nerve
palsy has hypertropia of the affected eye because the supe-
rior oblique is not aiding the inferior oblique to keep the
eye downward. The affected eye is slightly extorted
because of impairment of intorsion. Thus, the patient
reports skew double vision that worsens with head tilt
toward the side of the superior oblique dysfunction and
improves with head tilt to the opposite side. Trauma is a
common cause of fourth nerve palsy.
Which of the following would most strongly suggest a central
cause for a patient’s presenting vertigo?
a. Recent upper respiratory infection
b. Ability to walk independently
c. Horizontal diplopia associated with the symptoms
d. Abnormal head impulse test
e. Unidirectional horizontal nystagmus
The presence of horizontal diplopia would be suggestive
of additional involvement of the brainstem. A recent
upper respiratory infection, abnormal head impulse test,
and unidirectional horizontal nystagmus should point
more toward a peripheral cause of vertigo. Although the
ability to walk independently is more likely to be
impaired in central vertigo than peripheral vertigo, it is
not a sensitive test.
Which of the following statements regarding episodic vertigo is
correct?
a. Vertigo, regardless of position or movement, is most suggestive
of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
b. Migrainous vertigo may be prolonged, lasting from minutes to
days
c. The presence of substantial hearing loss argues against the
diagnosis of Meniere disease
d. Most patients with BPPV report associated tinnitus
e. Surgery is not an effective treatment option for patients with
superior semicircular canal dehiscence syndrome
Migrainous vertigo may last from 5 minutes to 72 hours.
BPPV is triggered by position change and generally lasts
seconds. It may or may not be accompanied by other
symptoms. Meniere disease is commonly associated with
hearing loss and tinnitus, in addition to episodic vertigo.
Surgery can be performed to treat patients with vertigo and
semicircular canal dehiscence.
A 19-year-old woman who is otherwise healthy reports a pulsa-
tile “whooshing” in both ears. Which of the following is least
likely to explain these symptoms?
a. Meniere disease
b. Dural arteriovenous fistula
c. Glomus jugulare tumor
d. Superior semicircular canal dehiscence syndrome
All of the listed items can cause pulsatile tinnitus except
Meniere disease, which generally causes persistent non-
pulsatile tinnitus.
A 64-year-old man presents with right hemifacial spasm. He
receives magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (Figure X.Q15) to
assist the diagnosis. What is the cause of his condition?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Idiopathic cause
c. Vertebrobasilar dolichoectasia
d. Cerebellopontine angle tumor
e. Sarcoid
The MRI shows a flow void in the region of cranial nerve
VII. The void is the vertebral artery that swings into the
cerebellopontine angle. The term dolichoectasia refers to
an enlarged, tortuous vessel. Vertebrobasilar dolichoectasia
may cause hemifacial spasm, trigeminal neuralgia, or, occa-
sionally, paroxysmal vertigo because of compression of
these cranial nerves. These entities also may result from
ischemic stroke and hemorrhage. Magnetic resonance angi-
ography from the same patient (Figure X.A15) shows the
tortuosity of the vertebral arteries into the cerebello-pon-
tine angle.
A 25-year-old patient presents with acute right anterior neck
pain, right Horner syndrome, and tongue deviation to the
right. The likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is which of
the following?
a. Internal carotid artery dissection
b. Retropharyngeal abscess
c. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
d. Foramen magnum meningioma
e. Jugular foramen tumor
The sympathetic axons and cranial nerve XII come
together in the retropharyngeal space, coursing near the
internal carotid artery. Both an internal carotid artery dis-
section and retropharyngeal abscess could result in the
described deficits. However, the acute onset is suggestive
of a vascular cause. In the retropharyngeal space, addi-
tional involvement of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI may
occur.
The most common cause of anosmia is which of the following?
a. Parkinson disease
b. Head trauma
c. Upper respiratory infections and sinus disease
d. Medications and toxins
e. Congenital disease
Upper respiratory infections including COVID-19 viral
infection, and sinus disease account for the majority of
cases of patients reporting anosmia. Often, the symptom is
temporary. Head trauma is a common cause of loss of
smell that is more permanent.
Ipsilateral reduction in taste in the posterior one-third of the
tongue, ipsilateral soft palate weakness, hoarse voice, and ipsi-
lateral sternocleidomastoid and trapezius weakness would
localize in which of the following places?
a. Foramen magnum
b. Jugular foramen
c. Hypoglossal canal
d. Cerebellopontine angle
e. Lateral medulla
The description is of symptoms or signs suggestive of
involvement of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI. These cranial
nerves exit the jugular foramen together. Although the
nerves have components in the medulla, the spinal por-
tion of the spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) enters
the foramen magnum and exits the jugular foramen after
merging with the component of cranial nerve XI arising
from the nucleus ambiguous. It is never part of the medul-
lary parenchyma.
Last changed14 days ago