XII.1.
A 25-year-old man with HIV positivity presents with focal neu-
rologic deficit. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows an
enhancing lesion with mild mass effect (see below image).
Which of the following diseases is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Glioblastoma
b. Meningioma
c. Central nervous system (CNS) lymphoma
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Oligodendroglioma
Answer c.
For patients with HIV/AIDS, toxoplasmosis and CNS lym-
phoma are the top considerations for a mass lesion with
enhancing characteristics on brain MRI. Additional studies
would be helpful to distinguish between the two. Lesions,
such as the one pictured, that involve the corpus callosum
or the periventricular area and those larger than 4 cm are
more suggestive of CNS lymphoma than toxoplasmosis.
XII.2.
A patient had whole-brain radiation for acute lymphoblastic
leukemia as a child. The patient recently had a finding of a
mass in the brain. The most likely cause of this mass is which
of the following diseases?
a. Sarcoma
b. Pituitary adenoma
c. Craniopharyngioma
d. Pineoblastoma
e. Meningioma
XII.2. Answer e.
Patients who have had prior brain radiation are at higher
risk for meningioma and astrocytoma.
XII.3.
A 23-year-old man presents with progressive right-sided hear-
ing loss and tinnitus. His father had a brain tumor and hearing
loss as well. Contrasted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was performed (see below image). The most likely cause of the
patient’s hearing loss and tinnitus is which of the following?
a. Dermoid cyst
d. Acoustic neuroma
e. Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor
XII.3. Answer d.
The MRI shows an enhancing lesion in the cerebello-
pontine angle, consistent with an acoustic neuroma.
Craniopharyngioma and dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial
tumors are not typically located in this site. Both meningi-
oma and acoustic neuroma can occur in the cerebellopon-
tine angle. However, acoustic neuroma can be inherited in
an autosomal dominant manner in patients with neurofi-
bromatosis type 2.
XII.4.
Subependymal giant cell astrocytomas are almost exclusively
associated with which of the following conditions?
a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Neurofibromatosis type 1
c. Neurofibromatosis type 2
d. Lynch syndrome
e. Turcot syndrome
XII.4. Answer a.
These astrocytomas are well-known manifestations of tuber-
ous sclerosis (TS), affecting up to 20% of TS patients. The
tumor is low grade and arises in the ventricles of the brain.
XII.5.
Which of the following is not a feature seen on the histopathologic evaluation of glioblastoma?
a. Mitoses
b. Necrosis
c. Verocay bodies
d. Endothelial proliferation
e. Nuclear atypia
XII.5. Answer c.
Verocay bodies are associated with schwannomas and are
not a characteristic of glioblastoma. The other choices are
all seen in World Health Organization grade IV glioblasto-
mas and make up the mnemonic AMEN (nuclear atypia,
mitoses, endothelial proliferation, and necrosis).
XII.6.
The presence of a 1p19q chromosomal deletion leads to a
diagnosis of which of the following glioma subtypes?
b. Pilocytic astrocytoma
c. Diffuse astrocytoma
d. Oligodendroglioma
e. Ependymoma
XII.6. Answer d.
The oligodendroglioma codeletion is required for the diag-
nosis of oligodendroglioma, according to the World Health
Organization 2016 guidelines.
XII.7.
“Small round blue cells” is a common histopathologic descrip-
tion for which of the following intracranial tumor types?
a. Meningioma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Pituitary adenoma
d. Colloid cyst
e. Primary central nervous system lymphoma
XII.7. Answer b.
Grossly, medulloblastoma often appears as soft but firm
pink to dark gray masses. Histologically, the most common
characteristics are small round blue cells with scant cyto-
plasm; dark nuclei with nuclear molding or wrapping; and
neuroblastic rosettes with fibrillary centers.
XII.8. Choroid plexus papillomas are graded as which of the following World Health Organization (WHO) grades?
a. WHO grade I
b. WHO grade II
c. WHO grade III
d. WHO grade IV
e. They are not included in the WHO classification
XII.8. Answer a.
Primary neoplasms of the choroid plexus include choroid
plexus papilloma (WHO grade I), atypical choroid plexus
papilloma (WHO grade II), and choroid plexus carcinoma
(WHO grade III). Papillomas occur 5 times more often than
carcinomas.
XII.9. Staging for germ cell tumors includes all of the following
except which step?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head and full spine
with contrast medium
b. Measurement of α-fetoprotein (AFP) and β-human chorionic
gonadotropin (β-hCG) in both serum and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
c. Computed tomography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
d. CSF cytologic examination
e. Pituitary and hypothalamic hormone evaluation
XII.9. Answer c.
Complete central nervous system (CNS) staging is manda-
tory in all cases of CNS germ cell tumors because they have
a predilection for CSF dissemination to all levels of the
neuraxis, even at early disease stages. CNS staging should
include MRI of the head and total spine with contrast
medium, CSF cytologic evaluation, measurement of AFP
and β-hCG levels in both serum and CSF, and laboratory
studies of pituitary or hypothalamic hormones, or both.
XII.10. Which genetic mutation is important to identify in diffuse
astrocytomas of the spinal cord because it predicts a poor
prognosis and aggressive behavior?
a. RAS
b. TERT
c. H3K27M
d. NF1
e. NF2
XII.10. Answer c.
The H3K27M mutation has recently been shown to have an
important prognostic significance in diffuse astrocytomas
of the spinal cord. It may one day be a target for treatment
because some histone deacetylase–related treatments are
currently under study. The other options are sometimes
tested and found to be mutated, but they are not estab-
lished as a marker of poor prognosis.
XII.11. A myxopapillary ependymoma that was enlarging on serial
scans and causing a right lumbar radiculopathy was resected,
and the patient’s symptoms have improved considerably.
However, an area of residual tumor is present on an immedi-
ate postoperative scan. What is the best next step in the treat-
ment of this patient?
a. Consideration of repeat resection
b. Consideration of postoperative chemotherapy
c. Consideration of postoperative radiation and chemotherapy
d. Magnetic resonance imaging in about 3 months
e. Recommendation of follow-up if any symptoms recur
XII.11. Answer d.
Most myxopapillary ependymomas behave in an indolent
way, at times staying static in size for a prolonged period.
With the patient’s symptoms improved, surveillance scans
would be a rational next step, initially at a short interval
and increasing the interval with stable scans. A possible
alternative could be to consider radiation therapy, but the
role of chemotherapy is limited.
XII.12. Imaging performed following a motor vehicle collision identified an intradural, extramedullary, briskly contrast-enhancing thoracic spine mass, approximately 5 mm in all dimensions. The
nearby structures appear to be normal in architecture, and there
is no local edema. What is the best next step in management?
a. Consider radiation
b. Consider chemotherapy
c. Scan the chest for a primary source
d. Perform magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in about 3 months
e. Recommend follow-up if any symptoms occur
XII.12. Answer d.
This patient likely has an asymptomatic incidentally dis-
covered meningioma. Metastasis is possible but would be
less likely with no clues (eg, edema) on imaging. In this
context, a period of surveillance MRI scans is commonly
recommended, and additional testing is deferred unless a
change is identified on a subsequent scan. A resection can
be considered, but at many centers it usually is reserved
for symptomatic or enlarging tumors. Radiation treatment
or chemotherapy would be difficult to recommend with-
out a pathologic diagnosis. If screening for malignancy is
pursued, then more extensive systemic imaging, looking
not only at the chest, should be recommended.
XII.13. A 23-year-old man presents with bilateral hearing loss, with the right side loss greater than the left. His father had hearing loss
and paraplegia. Magnetic resonance imaging shows enhancing
masses in bilateral cerebellopontine angles. Which of the fol-
lowing statements can be made about the genetics or manifes-
tation, or both, of this patient’s disease?
a. The gene for this disease is on chromosome 22, which encodes for a protein called merlin
b. The gene for this disease is inherited in an autosomal reces-
sive manner
c. The gene for this disease is on chromosome 17 and encodes for neurofibromin
d. The patient will also have shagreen patches
e. The inheritance of this disease has an X-linked pattern
XII.13. Answer a.
The patient has neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) characterized
by bilateral acoustic neuromas. The gene for NF2 is located
on chromosome 22 and encodes for merlin. It is inherited in
an autosomal dominant manner. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is
inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is located
on chromosome 17. Shagreen patches are seen in patients
with tuberous sclerosis.
XII.14. A 25-year-old patient presents with multiple café au lait spots,
iris Lisch nodules, and a learning disorder. She has multiple
cutaneous palpable nodules, some of which are tender. Which
of the following statements is true about these cutaneous
lesions or the patient, or both?
a. These lesions occur more frequently in women than men
b. The patient is likely to also have an acoustic neuroma
c. The cutaneous lesion infiltrates the parent nerve
d. This patient’s disorder is autosomal recessive
e. This patient’s disorder is due to mutation of chromosome 22
XII.14. Answer c.
This patient has neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), an autoso-
mal dominant condition. Patients with NF1 may have café
au lait spots, iris Lisch nodules, optic glioma, and neurofi-
bromas. The neurofibromas are benign peripheral nerve
sheath tumors that have an infiltrative growth pattern
within the parent nerve and may have numerous axons.
They present as superficial dermal or subcutaneous nod-
ules. Neurofibromas can occur at any age, and they do not
have a sex predilection. Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associ-
ated with acoustic neuroma and is due to a mutation on
chromosome 22.
XII.15. A 31-year-old man with neurofibromatosis type 1 has rapid
growth of a cutaneous neurofibroma along the rib cage, with
associated pain. The growth measures approximately 5 cm and
is mobile and tender. Which of the following treatments is the
best management of this lesion?
a. Pain management, lesion observation for 3 months, and
reassessment
b. An MEK inhibitor trial for 3 months
c. A vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitor trial for 3 months
d. Focused radiotherapy
e. Surgical removal and pain management
XII.15. Answer e.
Surgical excision of a solitary neurofibroma is considered
when the tumor is painful, the patient has associated neu-
rologic deficits, or the tumor shows increased growth. Use
of MEK inhibitors in the treatment of inoperable or refrac-
tory plexiform neurofibromas is evolving but is not first-
line therapy. A malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
(MPNST) may arise from a preexisting plexiform neurofi-
broma and can be aggressive, requiring surgical removal.
MPNSTs often are ≥5 cm and rapidly enlarge; they are
often associated with pain.
XII.16. What are the most common cancers to metastasize to the brain?
a. Lung, liver, renal, and breast
b. Melanoma, renal, and breast
c. Lung, breast, and melanoma
d. Breast, lung, and thyroid
e. Breast, lung, and renal
XII.16. Answer c.
It is important to know the frequency of these tumors and
to recall that lung cancer is the most common cancer and
thus also the most common to go to the brain, followed by
breast cancer. Melanoma is the third most common
because it tends to quickly metastasize to the brain, even
though it is not as frequent a cancer.
XII.17. Which of the following factors would be considered a positive
prognostic factor for a patient with brain metastases?
a. Age >75 years
b. Karnofsky performance status (KPS) score of 80
c. Extensive metastases through multiple organs
d. Large lesions >2 cm
e. Leptomeningeal disease
XII.17. Answer b.
Higher KPS scores are better. A KPS score ≥70 is consid-
ered functional. All the other features would be concern-
ing. Age ≤65 years is prognostically favorable; limited
systemic disease, smaller and fewer lesions, and absence
of leptomeningeal disease would all be more favorable.
XII.18. Which of the following cancers is most commonly observed to
progress to cause leptomeningeal disease?
a. Lung
b. Melanoma
c. Renal
d. Breast
e. Thyroid
XII.18. Answer d.
Breast cancer is most likely to, and is known to, progress
to leptomeningeal disease, resulting in additional compli-
cations in its treatment and prognosis.
XII.19. Which of the following adverse effects can happen as an acute,
subacute, and chronic complication of radiation therapy?
a. Radiation necrosis
b. Radiation myelopathy
c. Radiation-induced dementia
d. Acute encephalopathy
e. Peripheral nerve injury
XII.19. Answer b.
Radiation myelopathy can occur immediately after treat-
ment or take time to develop, even occurring years after
treatment. Acute encephalopathy occurs immediately after
treatment. Radiation necrosis is a subacute complication.
Radiation-induced dementia and peripheral nerve injuries
are more long-term complications.
XII.20. Which of the following chemotherapy drugs is a major offender
in chemotherapy-induced leukoencephalopathy?
a. Vincristine
b. Thalidomide
c. Bevacizumab
d. Methotrexate
e. Cytarabine
XII.20. Answer d.
Intrathecal or intravenous methotrexate or high doses of
methotrexate can result in chemotherapy-induced leuko-
encephalopathy.
XII.21. Which of the following is not a common complication caused
by bevacizumab?
a. Migraine attacks
b. Hemorrhage
c. Hypertension
d. Pulmonary embolism
e. Colon perforation
XII.21. Answer a.
Migraine attacks are not usually related to bevacizumab
treatment.
XII.22. A 64-year-old man presented with hyponatremia, limbic
encephalitis, and faciobrachial dystonic seizures (FBDSs). Which
antibody is most commonly associated with this syndrome?
a. Aquaporin 4 immunoglobulin G (AQP4-IgG)
b. Purkinje cell cytoplasmic antibody type 1 (PCA-1)
c. 65-kDa isoform of glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD65) anti-
body
d. P/Q- and N-type voltage-gated calcium channel (VGCC) antibody
e. Leucine-rich, glioma inactivated 1 protein antibody (LGI1)
XII.22. Answer e.
Limbic encephalitis and FBDSs are common manifesta-
tions of LGI1 autoimmunity, which typically affects older
men and is often associated with hyponatremia. AQP4-IgG
is a biomarker for recurrent optic neuritis, transverse
myelitis (usually longitudinally extensive), and area pos-
trema (intractable nausea, vomiting, and hiccups). PCA-1
IgG is a biomarker for paraneoplastic cerebellar degenera-
tion, typically in women with gynecologic malignancies.
GAD65 antibodies are detected at high titer in patients with
stiff person syndrome, ataxia, and temporal lobe epilepsy.
VGCC-P/Q-type and VGCC-N-type are helpful in the diag-
nosis of Lambert-Eaton syndrome and cerebellar ataxia.
XII.23. A 76-year-old man with a smoking history of 60 pack-years
presents with retinopathy, vitritis, encephalomyelitis, chorea,
and neuropathy. Which antibody is most commonly associated
with this syndrome?
a. Antineuronal nuclear antibody 1 (ANNA-1)
c. P/Q- and N-type calcium channel antibody
d. Collapsin response mediator protein 5 (CRMP-5) antibody
e. γ-Aminobutyric acid B receptor antibody
XII.23. Answer d.
Although encephalitis is encountered in patients with
multiple neural autoantibodies, the combination of ocular
findings (including retinopathy, optic neuropathy, and vit-
ritis), encephalomyelitis, and chorea are classic manifesta-
tions of CRMP-5 autoimmunity.
XII.24. A 68-year-old woman presents with subacute cerebellar ataxia.
Her serum is positive for Purkinje cell cytoplasmic antibody
type 1 (PCA-1). What is the oncologic association of this neuro-
logic syndrome and antibody?
a. Ovarian teratoma
b. Ovarian or other Müllerian (gynecologic tract) adenocarci-
noma, breast adenocarcinoma
c. Small cell lung carcinoma
d. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
e. Prostate carcinoma
XII.24. Answer b.
PCA-1–immunoglobulin G is a biomarker of paraneoplas-
tic cerebellar degeneration, usually detected in patients
with ovarian or other Müllerian (gynecologic tract) adenocarcinoma and breast adenocarcinoma. Ovarian teratoma
is the most common neoplasm in patients with anti–N-
methyl-D-aspartate receptor encephalitis. Small cell lung
carcinoma is associated with multiple antibodies, includ-
ing antineuronal nuclear antibody 1 (ANNA-1) and γ-ami-
nobutyric acid antibody. Thyroid carcinoma and prostate
carcinoma are rarely associated with paraneoplastic neu-
rologic syndromes.
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