ENG 01

1. The APU supplies __________. A) electrical and (optionally) pneumatic power B) electrical and pneumatic power C) electrical power only D) pneumatic power only

2. Select the correct statement(s) about APU operation: Mark 2 correct answers. A) The APU is subject to an operating envelope which sets out the limits for airborne re- light. B) Operation of the APU is semi-automatic. C) An APU fire invariably requires you to shut down the unit from the APU control panel. D) An APU intake is always covered by doors which need to be opened before operation.

3. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Petrol engines initiate combustion with a spark. B) Diesel piston engines initiate combustion with a spark. C) The correct sequence of the 4-stroke cycle is: compression, power, induction, exhaust. D) 2 of the 4 strokes produce power in a 4-stroke engine.

4. Ignition timing: Mark 2 correct answers. A) Is performed by the magnetos. B) Is necessary because it takes a finite time for the mixture to burn. C) Is necessary because it takes a finite time for the charge to enter the cylinder. D) Is performed by the camshaft. E) Is necessary because it takes a finite time to exhaust waste gas from the cylinder.

5. The __________ engine initiates combustion by the heat of compression. A) diesel B) petrol

6. The process by which the opening of inlet and exhaust valves is carefully sequenced is known as __________ __________. A) valve timing B) ignition timing C) valve lead

7. The purpose of valve timing is to maximise the amount of _____ entering the cylinder and to _____ the amount of waste gas leaving the cylinder. A) charge; maximise B) fuel; maximise C) air; reduce D) charge; reduce

8. The component of a piston engine which converts linear motion into rotary motion is the __________. A) crankshaft B) camshaft

9. The component of a piston engine which determines the valve timing is the __________. A) camshaft B) crankshaft

10. Each stroke requires __________ revolution(s) of the crankshaft. A) a half B) one C) two

11. The connecting rod connects the __________ to the crankshaft. A) piston B) big end

12. The period of relatively little movement of the piston around TDC and BDC is known as the __________ crank angle. A) ineffective B) effective

13. The pressure of the combusted mixture drives the __________ motion of the piston. A) linear B) rotary C) torque

14. Tappet clearance is provided to: A) Maintain the gap between the push rod and valve rocker despite thermal expansion of the valve stem. B) Allow for thermal expansion between the camshaft and push rod. C) Allow for increased RPM. D) Allow the ignition to be advanced.

15. The 'crank assembly' comprises: Mark 3 correct answers. A) Pistons B) Connecting rods C) Crankshaft D) Push rods E) Valve rods F) Tappets

16. Hydraulic tappets: A) Are used to automatically adjust the tappet clearance. B) Are used to provide hydraulic power to the valve rockers. C) Are used to provide hydraulic power to the engine. D) Are used to power the camshaft hydraulically.

17. The multiple components which seal the piston skirt are known as __________ __________. A) piston rings B) skirt rings C) piston bearings

18. The propeller is attached to, and driven by, the __________. A) crankshaft B) camshaft

19. The particular parts of the camshaft which lift the push rods are known as __________. A) cams B) con rods C) tappets

20. The primary disadvantage of water cooling is __________. A) the weight of the coolant B) the relative inefficiency of liquid cooling

21. The crankshaft controls the opening and closing of the __________. A) none of these B) inlet valves C) exhaust valves D) inlet and exhaust valves

22. At 15ºC, AVGAS has a specific gravity (SG) of about __________. A) 0.72 B) 0,85 C) 0,62

23. The extremely rapid chemical decomposition of the mixture, after burning has been initiated by the spark plug, is called __________. A) detonation B) pre-ignition

24. 100LL AVGAS is dyed __________. A) blue B) red C) straw

25. __________ is added to AVGAS to control detonation. A) Lead B) Coolant C) Dye

26. The stoichiometric ratio is __________. A) 15 parts air to 1 part fuel B) 15 parts fuel to 1 part air

27. Increasing the RPM is likely to increase the symptoms of __________. A) pre-ignition B) detonation

28. A loss of power caused by fuel starvation, resulting from vapourised fuel in the fuel lines is known as __________ lock. A) vapour B) fuel C) line

29. __________ may sometimes be detected by a knocking sound coming from the engine. A) Detonation B) Pre-ignition

30. Black exhaust smoke is a symptom of an excessively __________ mixture. A) rich B) lean C) hot

31. An excessively lean mixture results in a __________. A) lower EGT B) higher EGT

32. Petrol engines produce less __________ than diesel engines. A) soot B) carbon monoxide

33. At low power settings the butterfly valve is __________. A) almost closed B) fully open

34. Carburettor icing is more likely at __________ power settings. A) low B) high

35. Excessive use of the __________ before engine start increases the risk of carburettor fire. A) priming pump B) starter motor

36. Alternate air is __________. A) unfiltered B) filtered

37. Aviation gasoline must have the following desirable properties: Mark 3 correct answers. A) High calorific value. B) Ability to form a vapour. C) Must be able to burn quickly. D) Good insulating properties. E) Low calorific value. F) Inability to form a vapour (to avoid vapour lock). G) Must be coloured blue.

38. Pre-ignition is: A) The ignition of the mixture before the spark plug has fired. B) The rapid chemical decomposition of the mixture before the spark plug has fired. C) The detonation of the mixture before the piston has reached top dead centre (TDC). D) Caused by hot spots in the carburettor.

39. The symptoms of pre-ignition and detonation include: Mark all correct answers. A) Rough running. B) Loss of power. C) Overheating. D) Sparking. E) Backfiring ('popping back').

40. Which of the following statements are true? Mark 4 correct answers. A) The purpose of the carburettor is to mix fuel and air at the correct ratio. B) Fuel is delivered under pressure to the carburettor. C) The pressure balance duct prevents an excessively weak mixture. D) The accelerator pump provides more fuel during accelerations. E) The venturi controls the amount of mixture sent to the engine. F) The diffuser prevents an excessively lean mixture at high power.

41. Which of the following statements about fuel injection are correct? Mark 3 correct answers. A) Fuel can be injected directly into the cylinder. B) Fuel can be injected just before the inlet port. C) A metering unit controls the amount of fuel injected. D) A mixture lever adjusts the fuel/air ratio. E) Fuel injection eliminates the risk of intake icing.

42. Depending on the piston engine design, __________ are used to alleviate the symptoms of carburettor icing. A) alternate air or carburettor heating B) intake flaps C) ice diverters

43. An ignition switch in the closed position: A) Grounds the magneto and thus renders the ignition circuit safe. B) Grounds the spark magneto and thus renders the ignition circuit live. C) Closes the circuit between the magneto and spark plugs. D) Provides a starting current to the magneto.

44. The design of the ignition switch system: Mark 3 correct answers. A) Is fail-safe in the air. B) Allows the engine to continue to fire, even if the switch fails. C) Is a potential hazard to anyone close to a stationary propeller on the ground. D) Includes a back-up magneto in case the switch fails. E) Is fail-safe on the ground.

45. The drop in RPM when a magneto is tested pre-flight is due to the fact that: A) 2 functioning spark plugs per cylinder ensure quicker and better combustion. B) The magneto increases the power to the spark plug. C) 2 magnetos double the power to the spark plug. D) 1 magneto promotes very even combustion. E) 2 magnetos can interfere with each other.

46. If one magneto fails in flight: A) None of the cylinders will stop firing. B) The cylinders on one side of the engine will stop firing. C) 2 of the 4 cylinders will stop firing. D) All the cylinders will stop firing (fail-safe).

47. Two spark plugs per cylinder are used to improve combustion efficiency and because of the need to provide __________. A) redundancy in case of magneto failure B) extra power at high altitude

48. During engine start, the spark plugs are electrically powered by the __________. A) magnetos B) generators C) battery

49. The component which converts the continuous supply of AC current into a series of pulses is called the __________. A) distributor B) camshaft C) magneto

50. The engine mechanically drives the __________. A) Magnetos and distributor B) Magnetos only C) Distributor only D) Neither magnetos nor distributor

51. During a test of the magnetos before flight you should expect __________. A) a temporary drop in RPM B) a temporary rise in RPM C) no change in RPM

52. The design of the ignition switch system: Mark 3 correct answers. A) Is fail-safe in the air. B) Allows the engine to continue to fire, even if the switch fails. C) Is a potential hazard to anyone close to a stationary propeller on the ground. D) Is fail-safe on the ground. E) Includes a back-up magneto in case the switch fails.

53. Which of the following statements is true? Mark 3 correct answers. A) Oil lubricates the engine bearings, cleans the engine and protects against corrosion. B) Oil can be used in engine-related hydraulic operations. C) A wet sump system uses a method called 'splash lubrication'. D) On a healthy engine, no oil is lost during normal operations. E) When topping up the system, you can use either synthetic or mineral oil, depending on what's available.

54. On a dry sump system the air-cooled oil cooler is located: A) Between the scavenge pump and the reservoir. B) In the return lines feeding the main bearings. C) In the reservoir.

55. An ideal oil: Mark 3 correct answers. A) Has suitable viscosity over a wide range of temperatures. B) Inhibits corrosion. C) Discourages the formation of sludge. D) Has a high evaporation rate. E) Should be highly reactive. F) Maintains very high viscosity over a wide range of pressures.

56. The main purposes of an engine oil system is lubrication. Regarding the engine itself, select THREE secondary functions of engine oil from the list below. A) cooling the engine by absorbing heat and dissipating it to surrounding atmosphere B) cleaning the engine C) protection of engine components from corrosion D) secondary lubrication by transfer of oil between systems E) heating fuel to prevent fuel icing in the cylinders F) warming air for air conditioning systems G) lubrication of fuel to prevent blockages in fuel pipes

57. High oil temperature often results in low oil pressure because of the change in the __________ of the oil. A) viscosity B) chemical composition

58. A __________. system has: a reservoir; an oil pump and PRV; a scavenge pump and a pressure filter. A) dry sump B) wet sump

59. A disadvantage of the wet sump system is excessive oiling at __________ RPM. A) high B) low

60. Aero engines are normally air cooled __________. A) to save excessive weight B) to ensure optimum cooling C) to ensure even cooling over each cylinder

61. Which of the following instruments are included primarily to allow the pilot the assess the heath of the engine. A) CHT gauge B) Oil pressure gauge C) Oil temperature gauge D) Boost gauge.

62. The combination of factors most likely to lead to engine overheating are __________. A) high power and slow airspeed B) low power and low airspeed C) high power and high airspeed

63. Excessive engine cooling in the descent can cause damage to the engine due to __________ . A) thermal shock B) high friction caused by high viscosity oil

64. On some piston engine designs __________ is used to control the amount of cooling air flowing over the engine. A) a cowl flap B) alternate air

65. A turbocharger is: A) Powered by the exhaust gases. B) Powered by the crankshaft. C) Powered by an electric motor on some types. D) A method of compressing the fuel.

66. Which of the following statements about the waste gate are true: Mark 3 correct answers. A) The waste gate is controlled by a waste gate controller. B) The waste gate controller is sensitive to ambient pressure. C) The waste gate controls the rotational speed of the turbocharger. D) The waste gate is a means of dumping excess charge overboard. E) The waste gate is powered by exhaust gases.

67. All __________ piston engines lose power during the intitial part of a climb to high altitude. A) normally aspirated B) turbocharged

68. One advantage of operating at high altitude is the reduced __________ __________ in the exhaust. A) back pressure B) emissions

69. A compressor which increases the overall power of the engine is a type of __________ boosting. A) ground B) altitude

70. Altitude boosting sustains engine performance up to the __________. A) critical altitude B) rated altitude

71. The working principle of the waste gate is to control the amount of boost by regulating the flow of __________ over the turbocharger's turbine. A) exhaust gas B) charge C) mixture

72. When used, intercoolers are placed between the turbocharger and __________ . A) the inlet manifold B) the waste gate C) the exhaust manifold

73. The altitude at which a turbocharger can no longer sustain the required amount of boost, is known as the __________. A) critical altitude B) full throttle height

74. The primary cause of decreasing piston engine performance with altitude is the reduction in air __________. A) density B) temperature

75. Which of these statements is/are true? A) All diesel engines are fuel injected. B) A diesel engine can use AVGAS but normally uses JET-A1. C) A diesel engine is lighter than a petrol engine. D) The carburettor on a diesel engine is not prone to icing. E) Intake icing is not a problem on a diesel engine.

76. Diesel engines have a __________ compression ratio than petrol engines. A) higher B) lower C) same

77. __________ is the primary reason why diesel engines do not need spark plugs. A) Higher cylinder pressure B) Highly volatile diesel fuel

78. The component which warms the interior of cylinder before engine start is the __________ __________. A) glow plug B) spark plug

79. Diesel engines __________ require a mixture control lever in the cockpit. A) do not B) do

80. In a diesel engine, combustion of the mixture is initiated by __________. A) the heat of compression B) a glow plug

81. A higher compression ratio __________ the thermal efficiency of an engine. A) increases B) decreases

82. The higher compression ratio of a diesel engine means that the engine block has __________ weight than a similar powered petrol engine and usually needs to be water cooled. A) more B) less

83. On a fixed pitch propeller system, power is approximately indicated by the: A) The RPM gauge. B) The EGT gauge. C) The boost warning light. D) The torque gauge. E) The CHT gauge.

84. On a constant speed propeller unit, power is indicated by MAP and: A) The torque gauge. B) The RPM gauge C) The EGT gauge D) The CHT gauge. E) The boost light.

85. On a petrol engine, the lean mixture required in the cruise is set using: A) The mixture control lever. B) The EGT gauge. C) The throttle lever. D) The RPM lever

86. On a petrol engine the mixture adjustment can be finessed by referring to: A) The EGT gauge. B) The RPM gauge. C) The mixture control lever. D) The CHT gauge. E) The boost warning light.

87. A potential sign of impending engine problems may be indicated by a falling indication on the oil: A) Pressure gauge. B) Temperature gauge.

88. During a steady climb at relatively low speed and high power, you are monitoring the CHT. In addition, you are regularly checking the oil indications. You should expect: A) A steady increase in the oil temperature. B) The oil temperature to remain constant. C) The oil temperature to rise - but only if the cowl flaps are closed. D) A steady decrease in the oil temperature as the ambient temperature reduces.

89. On a constant-speed propeller unit, a dangerously excessive power demand may be indicated by the: A) The boost warning light.. B) The EGT gauge. C) The RPM gauge

90. On a constant speed propeller system, a useful phrase for remembering the correct sequence for the throttle and RPM lever is: A) 'Rev up - throttle back' B) 'Throttle up - rev back'

91. If you increase power substantially, the overboost warning light may illuminate if you don't first adjust the: A) The RPM lever. B) The throttle lever. C) The mixture control lever.

92. Power is the rate of doing work. In a piston engine, power is a function of RPM x __________. A) the mass of charge B) the mixture ratio

93. For a fixed-pitch propeller system at any given altitude, increasing the RPM, __________ the engine's power output. A) increases B) decreases

94. The ratio of compressed mixture to mixture at ambient pressure is a measure of the engine's __________. A) volumetric efficiency B) thermal efficiency

95. A high SFC indicates __________ efficiency. A) poor B) good

96. Thermal efficiency __________ with an increase in compression ratio. A) increases B) decreases

97. Because of the change in exhaust back-pressure, volumetric efficiency __________ in the climb. A) increases B) decreases

98. The mass of fuel required to produce a given amount of power for a given amount of time is a direct measure of the engine's __________ . A) specific fuel consumption B) volumetric efficiency C) thermal efficiency

99. As well as always avoiding overboosting, the primary means of preserving engine life is __________ throttle handling. A) gentle B) firm C) positive

100. FADEC' stands for: __________ . A) full authority digital engine control B) full authority digital engine computer C) full authority diesel engine control

101. FADEC __________ the number of controls in the cockpit. It also reduces the engine-handling task. A) reduces B) increases

102. Some FADEC installations may offer single-lever control of the engine. All FADEC installations dispense with the __________ lever. A) mixture B) RPM

103. Carburetted engines __________ be fitted with FADEC. A) can not B) can

104. The primary purpose of an adjustable blade pitch system is: A) To allow the propeller to absorb more power. B) To allow the engine to absorb more power. C) To reduce noise levels in the cabin. D) To accommodate full authority digital engine control (FADEC).

105. The ultimate purpose of propeller synchronising and synchrophasing systems is: A) To increase comfort for passengers and crew. B) To reduce engine wear. C) To reduce metal fatigue in the propeller blade roots. D) To reduce cabin pressure.

106. To avoid the extremely dangerous situation of reverse thrust being selected in the air: A) A fine pitch stop is activated by a weight-on-wheels switch. B) A coarse pitch stop is fitted to the power lever. C) A coarse pitch stop is fitted to the RPM lever. D) A coarse pitch stop is activated by a weight-on-wheels switch.

107. On a constant-speed propeller unit, as airspeed increases, blade pitch __________ . A) coarsens B) fines C) remains the same

108. On a constant-speed unit, RPM __________ the best means of indicating engine power output. A) is not B) is C) is always

109. More engine power can be absorbed when the blade pitch is __________. A) coarsened B) fined

110. At constant airspeed with the throttle lever untouched, fineing the blade pitch will __________ engine RPM. A) increase B) reduce C) have no effect

111. A governor is always fitted to a __________ __________ system. A) constant speed, variable pitch B) constant pitch, variable speed

112. The mechanism in the propeller hub which drives the blade pitch to different angles is the __________ . A) PCU B) CSU

113. The pilot sets the regulating speed for the CSU using the __________ . A) RPM lever B) throttle lever

114. The greatest amount of rotational drag is experienced by the propeller when the blades are set to __________ . A) coarse B) fine

115. The pitch control unit is driven by __________ . A) hydraulic pressure and (sometimes) spring pressure B) only by spring pressure C) only by hydraulic pressure

116. The hydraulic pressure fed to the PCU is regulated by the __________ . A) CSU B) engine C) current blade pitch

117. The __________ __________ prevents the blades from going to fully coarse on shut-down. A) centrifugal latch B) fine pitch stop

118. On a piston engine the blades should be set to __________ to reduce the rotational drag. A) fine B) coarse

119. If the propeller is overspeeding the CSU will direct pressure to the __________ side of the PCU actuator. A) coarse B) fine

120. On a constant speed propeller installation, if the throttle is advanced but the RPM lever is not moved, the torque will __________ provided that adequate power is available. If adequate power is not available, the RPM may __________ . A) increase; decrease B) decrease; decrease C) decrease; increase D) increase; increase

121. The effect of the constant speed propeller feathering control is to set the blades to __________ pitch. The purpose of the feathering control is to __________ . A) coarse; reduce drag B) fine; reduce drag C) coarse; increase drag D) fine; increase drag

122. The unfeathering system is used if you need to __________ an engine in flight. A) re-start B) shut down

123. Operating the unfeathering switch causes the blades to be driven to __________ . A) fine B) coarse

124. An autofeathering system is necessary on a commercial __________ __________ aircraft. A) multi-engine B) single-engine

125. Before flight the correct operation of the CSU must be checked. This is done by operating the __________ . A) RPM lever B) throttle lever

126. When you wish to increase air speed you should lead with the __________ lever and follow up with the __________ lever. A) RPM; throttle B) RPM; RPM C) throttle; throttle D) throttle; RPM

127. inside a reciprocating engine, the connecting rods and the crankshaft convert the (1 ) .... motion of the (2) ..... into a (3) ….. motion.

128. Complete the statement correctly from the options below. The turbocharger waste gate is located in a (1) ___ and the turbine achieves the maximum RPM when the valve ls (2) ____.

129. For a piston engine, the chemically correct fuel/air ratio is:

130. When are the auxiliary fuel pumps installed on single-engine low-wing aeroplanes typically used? 1. during take-off. 2. during cruise. 3. during landing. 4. in emergency situations. 5. in case of a suspected vapour lock. 6.in case of failure of the engine fuel pump.

131. The thermal efficiency of a piston engine is about:

132. When altitude increases, in a normally aspirated piston engine, mixture must be adjusted because there is:

133. When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected because of:

134. Diesel engines, compared to petrol engines have:

135. In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure can be monitored by:

136. When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the:

137. Ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre):

138. An excessively rich mixture in a piston engine can be detected by:

139. The power of a piston engine, which is measured by a friction brake, is:

140. The main reason for opening the cowl flaps is to control the:

141. A turbocharger in a reciprocating engine consists of a:

142. In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:

143. What is the engine control element the pilot may expect on the flight deck of an aircraft with a piston engine controlled by FADEC?

144. The crank assembly of a piston engine comprises the:

145. The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is called the:

146. To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to:

147. The power of a normally aspirated piston engine decreases during a climb with a constant power lever setting because of the:

148. The function of an accelerator pump in the carburettor of a piston engine is to:

149. When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90° , the propeller is said to be:

150. What may happen to a piston engine during a continuous climb with a mixture setting fully rich?

151. The power output of a diesel engine without a turbo charger is regulated by:

152. When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause:

153. Excessive pressure in the cylinders of a piston engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, can be caused by the combination of:

154. From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:

155. During a climb in a standard atmosphere with constant MAP and RPM indications and at a constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine:

156. The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is:

157. In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake and exhaust valve just after the power stroke are:

158. Apart from flight into known icing conditions, the intake system of a diesel engine:

159. One of the advantages of a turbocharger over a supercharger is that:

160. In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because:

161. The use of carburettor heating during take-off and climb is discouraged because of the:

162. The "slipstream effect" of a propeller is most prominent at:

163. For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:

164. For a piston engine, specific fuel consumption is defined as the:

165. To prevent vapour locking, which can lead to fuel starvation, a common type of limitation imposed by the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) in large transport aeroplanes for complete boost pump failure is:

166. An intercooler fitted between a supercharger and the inlet manifold will:

167. On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the:

168. The correct formula to calculate the total displacement of a multi-cylinder piston engine is the:

169. In a reciprocating four-stroke engine, the only "driving" stroke is the:

170. The reading on the engine oil pressure gauge is the:

171. Assuming the same swept volume and no turbo charger, diesel engines compared to petrol engines:

172. A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:

173. On an aeroplane equipped with a manual feathering system the pilot can feather the propeller by:

174. What are the actions to un-feather a variable pitch prop:

175. The primary functions of the lubrication system of an air-cooled piston engine is to:

176. When detonation is recognised in a piston engine, the correct procedure is to:

177. Consider a piston-engine aircraft with a constant speed propeller. Upon reaching cruising altitude when less power is required, engine power is:

178. In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel is approximately 9:1 the mixture is:

179. Diesel engines always produce a certain amount of soot, because:

180. If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine continues to run normally, the most probable cause is that:

181. Regarding the piston engine, what is the relationship between the compression ratio and the required fuel octane?

182. For a piston engine, pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:

183. The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which:

184. In reference to piston engines, what is meant by the term 'swept volume'?

185. The power output of a piston engine is directly proportional to:

186. A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:

187. The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the:

188. Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively: