ENG 02

1. According to Newton's 3rd law, if an object (such as a jet engine) accelerates a mass of air rearwards, it creates an equal and opposite __________ which propels it forward. A) reaction B) action

2. The reactive force produced by a jet engine is the product of the mass of the air being acted on and the __________. A) acceleration given to the air B) the heat energy added to the air

3. Thrust = mass x velocity. The 'velocity' in this equation is the difference in the speed of the exhaust gas flow and the speed of the __________. A) aircraft B) jet inflow

4. In the equation T=MV the velocity that counts towards jet thrust is the __________ velocity. A) axial B) radial C) axial and radial

5. The compressor __________ the gas flow. A) gives energy to B) takes energy from

6. The turbine __________ the gas flow to power the compressor. A) extracts energy from B) gives energy to

7. In the combustor section, fuel is combusted at constant __________. A) pressure B) temperature C) velocity

8. Propulsive power is the product of thrust multiplied by the velocity of the __________. A) aircraft B) exhaust gas

9. Which of the following statements about jet engines are/is correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Increasing the engine's RPM increases the mass flow through the engine. B) RPM is increased by adding fuel to the air in the combustor. C) The maximum thrust of the engine is effectively limited by the ability of the turbine 1st stage to withstand the gas temperature. D) Adding more fuel to the air in the combustor increases the temperature. E) The air fuel mixture is burned at constant temperature.

10. Ram effect is a phenomenon associated with __________ air speed. A) high B) low

11. Jet thrust varies with which of the following factors?Mark all correct answers. A) Air density. B) Air speed. C) Altitude. D) Engine RPM.

12. Hot and high conditions are associated with __________ thrust available from the engine. A) the least B) the most

13. Flat rating is an engine safety measure used in __________ ambient conditions. A) cold B) hot

14. Bypass engines have an inherently __________ SFC than pure turbojets. A) lower B) higher

15. The temperature of the air passing through the bypass duct is __________. A) essentially unchanged from ambient B) much colder than ambient C) much hotter than ambient

16. Bypass engines are efficient because the air passing through bypass does not have to be __________. A) heated B) accelerated

17. The general principle of a bypass engine is to give a relatively __________ acceleration to a relatively __________ mass of air. A) small; large B) large; small C) small; small D) large; large

18. The pure turbojet has no __________ but the __________ exhaust jet velocity allows it to propel aircraft at very high air speed. A) bypass duct; high B) bypass duct; low C) compressor; low D) compressor; high

19. A spool comprises: A) A compressor linked to a turbine by a shaft. B) A compressor and a combustor. C) A fan and compressor linked by a shaft. D) A set of compressor stages.

20. The advantage of a multiple spool design is: A) Each spool runs at its optimum speed. B) Low manufacturing cost. C) Higher bypass velocity. D) Turbines and compressors can run at their individual optimum speeds.

21. A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1000 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 889 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:

22. A turbofan engine with a bypass air mass flow of 200 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 20 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:

23. A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 300 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:

24. An engine which uses a gas turbine core to drive a propeller is known as a __________. A) turbo propeller B) turbofan C) turboshaft

25. An engine which uses a gas turbine core to drive a helicopter rotor is a __________. A) turboshaft B) turbojet C) turbofan

26. A turbine which is not linked to a compressor is a: __________. A) free turbine B) free spool C) free shaft

27. Most modern commercial jet aircraft use __________ engines. A) turbofan B) turboshaft C) turbojet

28. An LP spool comprises: A) An LP compressor or fan, shaft and LP turbine. B) A fan, shaft and LP turbine. C) An LP compressor or fan, shaft and HP compressor. D) A fan and shaft.

29. For optimum efficiency, the fan needs to run at relatively __________ RPM and the core needs to run at relatively __________ RPM. A) low; high B) low; low C) high; high D) high; low

30. The bypass ratio is the ratio of bypass air mass flow to core __________ . A) mass flow B) velocity

31. An intermediate (IP) compressor is a feature of __________ spool designs. A) triple B) twin

32. Select the correct answer(s).The tasks and functions of a modern pitot-type air inlet are to:1 - Provide stable airflow to the engine at high angles of attack.2 - Provide stable airflow to the engine at all normal operating speeds.3 - Slow and compress the air before it reaches the fan.4 - Increase the velocity of the air approaching the core.5 - Attenuate compressor noise. A) 1 2 3 5 B) 2 3 5 C) 1 3 4 5 D) 2 5

33. Select the correct answer(s).Despite its design, a pitot-type inlet cannot guarantee stable inlet conditions:1 - In very high crosswinds.2 - In cloud.3 - In very heavy rain.4 - At very high angle of attack.5 - At low speed.6 - In severe turbulence.7 - When contaminated with ice. A) 1 4 6 7 B) 2 4 7 C) 1 3 6 7 D) 1 2 3 4

34. Select the correct answer(s).The air inlet contains sensors to detect (among other things):1 - Inlet pressure.2 - Noise levels.3 - Inlet temperature.4 - Core fan speed. A) 1 3 B) 1 2 3 C) 3 4 D) 1 4

35. The tasks and function of the nacelle are:1 - To aerodynamically streamline the engine installation.2 - To protect the external engine components from damage.3 - To provide stable airflow to the core fan.4 - To mask or decrease noise from the compressor.5 - To provide the structure for the bypass duct. A) 1 2 4 5 B) 1 3 4 C) 1 2 5 D) 2 4 5

36. A pitot-style inlet makes full use of the __________ effect at high forward air speeds. A) ram B) ram rise C) pitot

37. The rear part of a pitot-style inlet forms a __________ duct. A) divergent B) convergent

38. Which of these statement(s) about an axial flow compressor is/are true?1 - The space between stators is designed to increase the flow's kinetic energy.2 - An axial flow compressor comprises many stages.3 - The blade twist on a rotor blade ensures the optimum blade angle of attack across the length of the blade.4 - Tip losses describes the aerodynamic turbulence and drag resulting from air escaping around the end of a rotor blade.5 - Stator blades are fixed, rotor blades rotate on the shaft. A) 2 3 4 5 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 3 4 5 D) 2 4 5

39. Select the correct answer(s).The symptoms(s) of a compressor stall or surge are:1 - Low RPM.2 - High EGT.3 - Banging or rumbling noises.4 - No RPM. A) 1 2 3 B) 2 3 4 C) 1 3 4 D) 2 3

40. Select the correct answer(s).The advantage(s) of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal type is/are:1 - Lower cost of manufacture.2 - Lighter and more compact.3 - Smaller diameter.4 - Greater efficiency.5 - Less vulnerable to FOD. A) 3 4 B) 3 4 5 C) 1 3 D) 2 4

41. Handling bleed is used to: A) Keep the compressor on the working line during engine accelerations. B) Supply the aircraft's pneumatic system. C) Supply hot air to de-ice the intake lip. D) Supply hot air to de-ice the bypass duct. E) All of these.

42. The __________ the compression, the greater the efficiency of the engine. A) higher B) lower

43. The purpose of compressing air is to maximise the mass flow __________ . A) through the core B) through the bypass C) through the core and bypass

44. The two types of compressor design are __________. A) axial and centrifugal B) axial and radial C) centrifugal and aerodynamic

45. The entire axial flow compressor is situated in a __________ duct. A) convergent B) divergent

46. The purpose of a diffuser is to convert __________ energy into pressure energy. A) kinetic B) thermal C) chemical

47. A diffuser, located at the rear of an axial flow compressor, uses a __________ duct. A) divergent B) convergent

48. A centrifugal compressor __________ suffer from an aerodynamic stall. A) cannot B) can

49. The component of flow through an engine which flows directly from front to rear is __________. A) axial B) tangential

50. Tangential flow __________ contribute to thrust. A) does not B) does

51. In a centrifugal compressor the air is mechanically forced to flow from the __________ to the __________ . A) eye; diffuser B) diffuser; eye C) diffuser; diffuser D) eye; eye

52. Each stage in an axial flow compressor comprises a set of rotor blades and a set of stator blades. The __________ are fixed onto the inner engine casing. A) stators B) rotors

53. The space between a pair of stator blades forms a __________ duct. A) divergent B) convergent

54. The pressure rise across a single stage of an axial flow compressor is about __________ . A) 1.2:1 B) 5.4:1

55. The graph which shows the axial flow compressor's working line between the two operating margins is called a __________. A) compressor map B) stability map C) surge map

56. To help to sustain the flow of air against steadily rising static pressure, the entire axial flow compressor is located in a __________ duct. A) convergent B) divergent

57. __________ at the front of the compressor swivel to direct air flow at the correct angle of attack onto the first rotor. A) Variable inlet guide vanes B) Splitters C) Inlet guide vanes

58. Before reaching the combustor, the gas flow reaches its maximum static pressure in the __________. A) diffuser B) compressor C) rear of the pitot-type inlet

59. The breakdown of stable airflow across one or more stages is called a __________. A) compressor stall B) compressor surge

60. Flow reversal though an axial flow compressor is called a __________. A) compressor surge B) compressor stall

61. A centrifugal compressor __________ suffer a breakdown of stable airflow, resulting in a loss of compression. A) can B) cannot C) never

62. Bleed air is taken from the __________ to power the aircraft's pneumatic systems. A) compressor B) turbine

63. The purpose(s) and functions(s) of the combustor is/are to:1 - Mix fuel with air and combust the mixture.2 - Draw in a mixture through the snout and then combust it.3 - Promote easy light-up and stable combustion.4 - Cool the combusted gases before they arrive at the turbine.5 - Raise the pressure of the gas, to power the turbine. A) 1 3 4 B) 1 2 4 C) 3 4 5 D) 1 4 5

64. The purpose of the igniter plugs is to: A) Initiate combustion and to sustain it under adverse conditions. B) Initiate and sustain combustion under normal conditions. C) Time the spark to coincide with compression. D) Provide power to the spark plugs.

65. A reverse-flow combustor: A) Is U-shaped to reduce the overall length of the engine. B) Reverses the flow of mixture in the snout. C) Reverses the secondary air. D) Is commonly used on large turban engines.

66. The purpose of the manifold drain is: A) To prevent fouling of the spray nozzles and sooting of the combustor after shut- down. B) To prevent fouling of the spray nozzles and sooting of the combustor during engine running. C) To expel fuel from the engine during an engine fire. D) To drain excess oil from the combustor.

67. Fuel is mixed with __________ air. A) primary B) secondary

68. __________ air is used for cooling. A) Secondary B) Primary

69. The inner walls of the flame tube are protected by __________ air. A) secondary B) primary

70. An annular combustor which wraps continuously around the main shaft (rather than comprising separate 'combustion tubes') is a type of __________ chamber. A) plenum B) can-annular

71. Once it has begun, combustion __________ . A) is self-sustaining B) always needs a continuous electrical source of ignition

72. In the combustor, the pressure of the gas __________ and the velocity of the gas __________ . A) remains constant; increases B) remains constant; decreases C) decreases; increases D) increases; remains constant

73. During high altitude re-lights, the igniters operate in __________ mode. When continuous ignition is selected, the igniters operate in __________ mode. A) high energy; low energy B) high energy; high energy C) low energy; high energy D) low energy; low energy

74. The fuel spray nozzles are connected to, and fed by, the __________ . A) fuel manifold B) fuel pumps

75. Across a turbine stage, the pressure __________, the temperature __________ and the velocity __________. A) falls; falls; falls B) rises; falls; falls C) falls; rises; rises D) falls; rises; falls

76. Most modern turbines use __________ blades. A) impulse-reaction B) reaction C) impulse

77. Blades are shrouded to reduce __________. A) tip losses B) blade creep C) blade stall

78. Active clearance control: A) Is a method for managing tip clearance in the turbine, using bleed air. B) Is a method of ensuring a free gas path through the turbine. C) Is a method for reducing or eliminating blade creep. D) Uses very hot secondary air played onto the turbine case.

79. The primary factor limiting the maximum thrust of a gas turbine is the turbine __________ temperature. A) inlet B) outlet

80. The entire turbine is contained within a __________ air annulus. A) divergent B) convergent

81. The turbine component which directs the flow of gas at the correct angle onto a turbine blade is called a __________. A) nozzle guide vane B) inlet guide vane C) stator

82. On a multi-spool engine, the LP turbine is located __________ the exhaust section. A) closest to B) furthest from

83. The exhaust system of a commercial turbofan or turbojet engine comprises the following essential and optional components:1 - Jet pipe2 - Propelling nozzle3 - Diffuser4 - Exhaust cone5 - Bleed system A) 1 2 4 B) 1 3 4 C) 2 3 4 D) 1 4 5

84. Scarfing is a technique for: A) Reducing exhaust noise. B) Increasing exhaust flow. C) Reducing exhaust back flow. D) Increasing exhaust gas pressure.

85. A minimum ground speed for thrust reverse operation is usually specified: A) To avoid reingestion of hot gases. B) To reduce excessive noise in the airport environs. C) To maximise wheel braking efficiency. D) To reduce damage to the runway surface.

86. When the velocity of the gas stream at the nozzle reaches M 1.0, the exhaust system is said to be __________. A) choked B) stalled C) optimised

87. In the exhaust system, the temperature of the gas flow __________, the pressure of the gas flow __________ and the velocity of the gas flow usually __________. A) falls; falls; rises B) rises; falls; rises C) falls; rises; rises D) falls; rises; falls

88. High-bypass engines usually generate __________ exhaust noise. A) less B) more

89. The purpose of a mixer unit is to __________. A) reduce noise B) add fuel to the gas flow C) reverse the gas flow

90. A thrust reverse system on a high-bypass engine reverses some of the __________. A) cold bypass air B) hot core air

91. Clamshells or buckets are used to reverse the __________. A) hot stream B) cold stream

92. To prevent the extremely dangerous situation of reverse thrust engaging in flight, an __________ is used to __________. A) interlock; prevent the flight deck lever from being operated B) locking pin; prevent the flight deck lever from being operated C) warning caption; prevent the flight deck lever from being operated D) interlock; prevent the reverser doors from opening

93. Cascade vanes help to reverse the __________. A) cold stream B) hot stream

94. Air oil separators are required because: A) Labyrinth seals aerate the oil in the bearing chambers. B) Bearings tend to aerate the oil. C) There are unavoidable air leaks in the lubrication system. D) Oil naturally combines with air.

95. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Filters have bypass circuits in case they become blocked. B) The bearings are fed by oil from an LP pump. C) Magnetic chip detectors are fitted in the oil tank. D) The fuel-cooled oil heater sits between the bearing chamber and the scavenge pumps.

96. __________ bearings can absorb only the side loads on a shaft (including its weight force). A) Roller B) Ball

97. Thrust loads created by each spool are transmitted to the airframe via __________ bearings. A) ball B) roller

98. The oil used to lubricate and cool the bearings is mostly confined within the __________. A) bearing chambers B) bearing shell C) bearing duct

99. Pressurised __________ prevent oil from escaping out of the bearing chambers. A) labyrinth seals B) diaphragms

100. __________ pumps suck used oil from the bearing chamber sumps into the oil return lines. A) Scavenge B) Manifold drain

101. The LP pump is part of __________. A) the aircraft's fuel system B) the engine's fuel system

102. Which of the following are genuine, valid types of fuel control system:1 - FADEC2 - Electrical fuel metering unit controlled by a hydromechanical controller.3 - MEC controlled by a Power Management Unit.4 - Power Management Unit controlled by a MEC.5 - Hydromechanical Fuel Control Unit (FCU). A) 1 3 5 B) 1 2 4 C) 1 5 D) 1 2 3 4 5

103. The danger of excessively cold fuel is that: A) It is prone to waxing. B) It contains a lot of water. C) It is unable to burn. D) It clogs up the combustor.

104. If both FADEC channels are lost: A) The engine will shut down. B) The engine will continue to run, but many of the automatic protections will be lost. C) The engine will revert to 104% RPM to allow you to land safely ASAP. D) There will be no difference in operation thanks to the hydro-mechanical back-up system.

105. Which of the following are valid parameters typically used by a FADEC unit:1 - Bleed valve position2 - Engine pressures and temperatures.3 - Ambient pressures and temperatures.4 - Thrust lever angle.5 - Engine master switch selection.6 - Fan speed.7 - Core speed.8 - EGT. A) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 B) 1 2 5 6 7 8 C) 3 4 6 7 8 D) 1 3 4 6 7 8

106. Which one of these statements is correct? A) On some twin-spool engines, a PMU is used to refine the thrust lever demands sent to the MEC to adjust N2 to achieved the desired N1. B) On some twin-spool engines, a PMU is used because a MEC is only able to directly control N1. C) On some twin-spool engines, a PMU is provided in case of failure of the MEC. D) On some twin-spool engines, a PMU is used to refine the thrust lever demands sent to the MEC to adjust N1 to achieved the desired N2.

107. The fuel is filtered __________ the HP pump. A) before and after B) before C) after

108. PRSOV stands for: __________. A) pressure regulating shut-off valve B) primary regulating shut-off valve

109. The PRSOV is either operated manually by __________ or automatically by the FADEC system. A) a mechanical lever B) the engine start switch

110. The FCU is controlled by __________ to the thrust lever. A) a mechanical linkage B) an electrical link

111. On a non FADEC system, the gas turbine engine is manually shut-down by closing the __________. A) HP cock (PRSOV) B) the LP cock C) the spar valve D) the manifold valve

112. Take-off thrust __________. A) is time limited. B) is not available when flex thrust is used. C) can be used indefinitely. D) is not available when a de-rate has been selected.

113. Select the appropriate answer(s)On a turbofan engine, power is usually set with reference to the following two parameters: 1 - N22 - N33 - N14 - EPR A) 3 4 B) 1 4 C) 2 4

114. Which of the following methods describe valid gas turbine ground starting systems:1 - Starting using an electric starter-motor.2 - Starting using the natural windmilling of the fan. 3 - Starting using a pneumatic starter motor driven by compressed air from another running engine.4 - Starting using a pneumatic starter motor driven by compressed air supplied by the APU.5 - Starting using a pneumatic starter motor driven by compressed air from an external pressure source.6 - Starting using an hydraulic motor known as the Power Transfer Unit (PTU). A) 1 3 4 5 B) 1 2 4 5 C) 1 3 4 6 D) 2 4 6

115. Which of these statements is correct: A) A gas turbine engine may be re-started in flight with or without the assistance of the APU. B) A gas turbine engine cannot be re-lit in flight unless it is equipped with an electric starter motor. C) A gas turbine on an all-electric aircraft cannot be started in flight using the windmilling technique. D) When using an APU, re-light at any altitude is possible.

116. Select the correct statement(s) below relating to gas turbine handling and operation:1 - Thrust lever movements should be gentle.2 - De-rate is set by the ground engineers before flight. Flex thrust is set by the crew, via the CDU.3 - The correct technique for turning on the ground near personnel and equipment is to apply power to get the aircraft moving, close the thrust lever then initiate the turn.4 - When applying power on take-off, the engines should normally be spooled-up to an intermediate setting before take-off power is applied.5 - At ground idle, the velocity of the exhaust gas is too low to cause injury to personnel. A) 1 3 4 B) 1 2 3 C) 1 3 4 5 D) 1 4

117. Maximum climb power __________ time limited. A) is B) is not

118. __________ requires you to use a different set of performance tables for your take-off calculations. A) De-rate B) Flex thrust

119. __________ is a temporary limitation on maximum thrust, set by entering an assumed temperature which is higher than ambient. A) Flex thrust B) De-rate

120. EPR is the ratio of __________ to __________ A) outlet pressure; inlet pressure B) inlet pressure; outlet pressure

121. On a turbofan engine, high levels of vibration are __________. A) abnormal B) normal

122. The technique of looking at engine parameters such as vibration level, oil pressure and oil temperature and noting their change over time is known as __________ monitoring or (analysis). A) trend B) performance

123. During a normal engine start, the engine eventually accelerates to, and stabilises at, __________. A) ground idle B) flight idle

124. Ground idle is a __________ RPM than flight idle. A) lower B) higher

125. Study this screenshot of an FMS CDU. Select the correct answer from the choices below: A) This FMS offers 2 de-rate options and one up-rate option. B) This FMS configuration offers 4 de-rate options. C) This FMS configuration offers 1 de-rate option - the one at the top of the list. D) The available de-rate using the least thrust is 27k.

126. Specific fuel consumption for a turbojet engine is the mass of fuel burned per (1) _____ divided by the (2) _____ produced.

127. The average stage compression ratio of a centrifugal compressor is approximately:

128. Which of these statements about a reaction turbine is correct or incorrect? 1. The pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes. 2 The pressure rises across the rotor blades.

129. Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a gas turbine are correct? 1. The process in a gas turbine engine is continuous 2. Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant volume.

130. On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide 1. Electricity. 2. Air for main engine starting. 3. Hydraulic pressure. 4. Air for air conditioning. The correct statements is/are:

131. A turbofan engine with a bypass air mass flow of 200 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 20 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:

132. The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the: 1. Thrust reverser pneumatic motors. 2. AC generator through its constant speed drive (CSD). 3. Oil pumps. 4. Hydraulic pumps. 5. High pressure fuel pumps. The correct statements are:

133. The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the: 1. Tacho-generator N1. 2. Tacho-generator N2. 3. Thrust reverser pneumatic motors. 4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD). 5. Oil pumps. 6. Hydraulic pumps. 7. High pressure fuel pumps. The correct statements are:

134. Put the items listed below in the correct order to give the typical start sequence of a turbine engine on the ground: 1. High pressure fuel ON 2. Self-sustaining speed 3. Light-up 4. Start selected 5. Ignition ON 6. Starter circuit cancelled

135. The average stage compression ratio of a centrifugal compressor is approximately:

136. A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1000 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 889 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:

137. The 'constant speed propeller' has:

138. One of the advantages of an annular combustion chamber in a gas turbine engine is:

139. The electronic engine control of a FADEC gas turbine engine checks:

140. A 'hung start' is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be caused by:

141. The effect of ram air on the operation of a gas turbine engine is:

142. The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:

143. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine engine will increase with a:

144. The by-pass air in a turbo fan engine has the effect of a lower specific fuel consumption by causing an overall:

145. The bypass air in a turbo fan engine has the effect of a lower specific fuel consumption by causing an overall:

146. On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator and its associated control lever enable:

147. In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...

148. The primary function of a constant speed drive in an AC generating system is to:

149. The shear neck is a device fitted to prevent:

150. The volume of the scavenge pump(s) in an engine lubrication system is greater than that of the pressure pump(s) in order to:

151. A high cylinder head temperature (CHT) typically indicates:

152. What information is provided by cockpit indications as regards starting and operating the APU?

153. Some components of a turbine engine are required to operate at their maximum temperature. What are the components which are exposed to the greatest thermal loads?

154. What may happen during a continuous climb with a mixture setting fully rich?

155. Variations in mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of:

156. When excessively leaning the mixture for a better fuel economy, but still on the rich side of the peak EGT, which of the following engine parameter(s) may exceed their normal operating ranges?

157. Excessive pressure in the cylinders of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, can be caused by the combination of:

158. In addition to fire detection/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic controls for starting, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against:

159. Specific fuel consumption for a turbo-prop engine can be expressed in kg per:

160. Where is EGT typically measured?

161. Regarding a jet engine, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Maximum thrust decreases as the pressure altitude increases. II. Specific fuel consumption is inversely proportional to pressure altitude, at constant TAS.

162. Regarding a jet engine, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Maximum thrust decreases as the pressure altitude increases. II. Specific fuel consumption is inversely proportional to pressure altitude, at constant TAS.

163. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The speed decreases in flow direction. II. The total pressure decreases in flow direction.

164. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The dynamic pressure decreases in flow direction. II. The static temperature decreases in flow direction.

165. Which of these statements about a reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes. Il. The pressure drops across the rotor blades.

166. Which of these statements about an impulse turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes. Il. The pressure rises across the rotor blades.

167. In very cold weather, a slightly higher than normal engine oil pressure during start-up:

168. ln a twin spool free turbine engine, the energy delivered by the free turbine stages:

169. The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:

170. The function of the propeller drive gearbox is to cause the propeller to rotate at an RPM:

171. A pressure relief valve in an oil system that does not seat correctly could result in:

172. A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments This results in a:

173. Specific fuel consumption is defined as the:

174. In the airflow through a single-spool axial flow turbo-jet engine, the axial velocity of the air is greatest:

175. How do the gas parameters change within the stator of a compressor stage? The temperature increases, the:

176. In a theoretical gas turbine cycle, combustion takes place at constant:

177. The primary reason for venting an engine oil tank is to:

178. In the alpha and beta ranges respectively the governed elements of turboprop propeller controls are as follows:

179. Engine auxiliary gearboxes:

180. The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between the:

181. Most high-bypass (unmixed) turbofan engines are equipped with a cold exhaust reverser (fan reverser) only in order to:

182. For a subsonic airflow, in a divergent duct the:

183. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which:

184. As altitude increases, if the mixture is not leaned:

185. On a fan engine which parameters are most commonly used to set and monitor turbine engine thrust or power?

186. When applying carburettor heating:

187. The axial compressor of a gas turbine engine usually has more stages than its driving turbine because:

188. The EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio) is:

189. The purpose of a chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that:

190. In an engine having a free turbine:

191. How is a typical gas turbine engine fire detection system tested?

192. Why is the jet engine exhaust convergent?

193. What is the principle advantage of using propeller reduction gears?

194. The purpose of gas turbine engine trending is:

195. Aircraft engines equipped with FADEC have redundancy built in with regards to data input and control output. This is to ensure:

196. The purpose of magnetic chip detectors is to:

197. Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop aircraft. During deceleration:

198. What is the purpose of Cowl flaps?

199. For a turbine engine, the self-sustaining speed relates to the minimum RPM at which the engine:

200. If the manifold pressure is increased, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller:

201. What is the the principle of a ram-air turbine?