INST 02

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 1. Which of the following statements about the Earth's magnetic field is/are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) By convention, the Earth's magnetic field emerges from the Magnetic South pole and descends into the Magnetic North pole. B) The North and South magnetic poles are not opposite each other. C) The magnetic poles move a few miles a week.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 2. Which of the following statements about magnetic variation is correct? Magnetic variation… A) Is the result of the magnetic poles not being at the true poles; it varies depending on your location on the Earth's surface. B) Is the change in the magnetic field over time at any given location on the Earth, caused by the movement of molten metal in the Earth's core. C) Is the difference between the alignment of gridlines on a map and the true lines of longitude. D) Is a measure of the difference in magnetic heading between 2 places resulting from local effects such as magnetotonic rock formations.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 3. Magnetic dip… A) Varies with latitude. It's greatest close to the magnetic poles where the magnetic field moves towards the vertical. B) Is the reduction in the strength of the Earth's magnetic field associated with solar wind events. C) Is greatest at the equator and weakest at the true poles. D) Causes variation to decrease in the northern hemisphere and increase in the southern hemisphere.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 4. The __________ pole of a magnet is attracted to the Magnetic South pole. A) North B) South

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 5. The north pole of a magnet repels the __________ pole of another magnet nearby, and attracts the __________ pole. A) North; South B) North; North C) South; North D) South; South

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 6. A simple magnetic compass aligns itself with the __________ and __________ (Z component) of the Earth's magnetic field. A) horizontal; vertical B) vertical; horizontal

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 7. The angle between the magnetic field lines and the horizontal is known as __________. A) dip B) drift C) declination

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 8. Close to the __________ poles dip can be great enough to cause the compass to stop working. A) magnetic B) true C) magnetic and true

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 9. Which of the following statements about the direct-reading compass (DRC) is/are correct? Mark 2 correct answers. A) The DRC is accurate in straight, level, unaccelerated flight. B) The DRC is a good back-up instrument because it needs no electrical power. C) The DRC is the preferred primary compass in light aircraft. D) The DRC is reliable and very accurate.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 10. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes elements of the pre-flight check you must do on a direct-reading compass? Mark all correct answers. A) Check for signs of fluid leak from the casing. B) Check that there are no bubbles and that the fluid isn't discoloured. C) Check that the casing is intact and secure. D) Ensure the light is working. E) Press and hold the test button for 10 seconds; the heading should move to North.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 11. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Northern hemisphere, heading East, decelerating. A) Over-read B) Accurate C) Under-read D) Freeze

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 12. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Northern hemisphere, heading North, accelerating. A) Accurate B) Over-read C) Under-read D) Freeze

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 13. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Southern hemisphere, heading West, accelerating. A) Under-read B) Over-read C) Accurate D) Freeze

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 14. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Northern hemisphere, turning left through North-East. A) Over-read B) Under-read C) Accurate D) Freeze

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 15. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Southern hemisphere, turning right through South-East. A) Under-read B) Accurate C) Over-read D) Freeze

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 16. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: In climb with pitch angle of 25º. A) Freeze B) Over-read C) Accurate D) Under-read

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 17. Turning errors in a direct-reading compass can be mitigated by using __________. A) a stopwatch B) an attitude indicator C) compensating magnets

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 18. A Rate 1 turn is __________ degrees per __________. A) 3; second B) 1; second C) 3; minute D) 1; 30 seconds

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 19. Which of the following statements about aircraft magnetism is/are correct? Mark 4 correct answers. A) Aircraft components comprise soft and hard magnetic materials. Their magnetism varies with the direction and attitude of the aircraft. B) Electromagnetism is caused by almost all electrical equipment. C) The combined soft, hard (permanent) and electromagnetic fields of the aircraft can be considered as one simple bar magnet for the purposes of deviation. D) Electrical equipment generates electromagnetism whether or not it is switched on. E) Compass deviation is smallest when the aircraft's magnetic field is at 90° to the Earth's magnetic field.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 20. Which of the following statement(s) about compass deviation cards is/are correct? Mark 4 correct answers. A) The deviation card is produced during a compass swing. B) Correction '+1' means add 1° to the compass indication to find magnetic heading. C) Correction '1W' or 'W1" is equivalent to '-1". D) Correction '+1' means add 1° to magnetic heading to find the compass heading to steer. E) Once you've noted the deviation for your initial heading you can use it for all other headings.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 21. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Only present when current is flowing. A) Electro B) Soft C) Hard D) Aero

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 22. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Depends on attitude and location. A) Soft B) Electro C) Hard D) Aero

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 23. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Known as permanent magnetism. A) Hard B) Electro C) Soft D) Aero

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 24. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Proportional to the number of coils and to the current flow. A) Electro B) Soft C) Hard D) Aero

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 25. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Greatly enhanced by a soft iron core. A) Electro B) Soft C) Hard D) Aero

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 26. Compass deviations are minimised by __________ the compass. This is done with electrical components and engines all __________ . A) swinging; on B) swinging; off C) hanging; on D) hanging; off

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 27. Compass errors are accurately measured on various headings, and then minimised by adjusting __________ within the compass. A) magnets B) electromagnets C) buttons

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 28. When adjusting the magnets for compass errors you introduce an almost equal and opposite magnetic field to that of the __________ . A) aircraft B) Earth

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 29. After compass errors have been minimised, a card is displayed on or near the compass which records any residual __________. A) deviation B) acceleration C) swinging D) deficit

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 30. A gyroscope is a device comprising a __________ mounted so that it can spin rapidly about its axis. A) solid disc B) solid gimbal C) motor D) sphere

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 31. A rapidly spinning gyro tends to maintain its orientation in inertial space. This property of gyroscopes is called __________. A) rigidity B) precession C) gimballing D) induction

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 32. Gyroscopic rigidity depends on the gyroscope rotor's: A) Mass distribution, rotational speed and mass. B) Sensed point of application of force and the distance its mass is from the spin axis. C) Mass, density and diameter. D) Mass distribution, material and power source.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 33. Select all correct statements about wander: A) Some random wander is present in all gyros. B) Earth rotation wander is not real wander. C) Latitude compensation is real wander. D) Transport wander is apparent wander E) Transport wander occurs when a gyro moves North or South but not East or West. F) Transport wander reduces with increased latitude.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 34. Gyros in aircraft instruments may be driven by: Mark 2 correct answers. A) Electric motors. B) Air, using a vacuum pump. C) Filtered high pressure air. D) Electromagnetic induction.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 35. Determine which are the true and false statements below. Real wander involves a change in the orientation of the gyroscope relative to inertial space. A) True B) False

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 36. Determine which are the true and false statements below. Real wander requires a change in the orientation of the gyroscope relative to the Earth. A) False B) True

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 37. Determine which are the true and false statements below. Apparent wander results from a change in the orientation of the surroundings relative to the gyro. A) True B) False

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 38. Determine which are the true and false statements below. Earth rotation wander is apparent wander. A) True B) False

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 39. Determine which are the true and false statements below. Transport wander is inversely proportional to rotor RPM. A) False B) True

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 40. Determine which are the true and false statements below. Transport wander results from movement across converging lines of longitude. A) True B) False

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 41. A gyro with 2 gimbals has __________ axes of freedom and __________ degrees of freedom. A) 3; 2 B) 2; 1 C) 2; 2 D) 3; 3

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 42. A gyro with 1 gimbal has __________ axes of freedom and __________ degree of freedom. A) 2; 1 B) 2; 2 C) 1; 2 D) 1; 1

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 43. When a force is applied to the rotor of a gyro, the rotor moves as if the force was applied __________ degrees, in the direction of __________, from where it was applied. A) 90; rotation B) 180; rotation C) 45; rotation D) 90; force

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 44. The (electro-mechanical) HSI comprises which of the following? A) ILS glideslope and localiser indications. B) A directional gyro. C) A compass rose display. D) A radio magnetic indicator needle. E) A rate gyro.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 45. Directional gyros drift over time because of: Mark 3 correct answers. A) Earth rotation drift, which is apparent drift. B) Transport drift, which is apparent drift. C) Transport drift caused by the gyro erecting to the aircraft's attitude. D) Manoeuvre error, which causes apparent drift.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 46. In which direction of travel is total drift greatest in a directional gyro? A) East. B) North. C) South. D) West.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 47. How is a directional gyro aligned to the correct heading? A) Press and hold in the knob on the face of the DI while turning it until the compass and DI show the same heading. B) Press the knob on the instrument to start the auto-align process. C) Turn the knob until the heading agrees with the direct-reading compass and then turn on the power supply. D) Just before take-off press the align button on the standby compass.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 48. Directional gyros are __________ tied. A) horizontally B) vertically C) magnetic north

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 49. Directional gyros provide a __________ reference. A) heading B) attitude C) altitude

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 50. Directional gyros are principally exploited for its property of __________. A) rigidity B) precession C) procession

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 51. Manoeuvre causes directional gyro drift because the gyro starts erecting towards the aircraft's __________ during manoeuvres. A) attitude B) heading C) altitude

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 52. If during manoeuvre the limits of the __________ are reached, any further pitch or roll disturbs the gyro. A) gimbals B) casing C) axes

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 53. Which of the following statement(s) about the remote indicating compass is/are correct: Mark 3 correct answers. A) Detector coil output is used to supply a precession motor to align the gyro. B) The gyro is kept aligned with Magnetic North. C) The flux valve outputs AC to stator windings in the display unit. D) The compass card is biased away from the gyro to account for gyro drift. E) The flux valve senses the Earth's magnetic field and sends a signal direct to a precession motor. F) The compass card is positioned by a stepper-motor until rotor output is perpendicular to flux valve output.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 54. Which of the following statement(s) about flux valves is/are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) 3 horns wound with coils detect magnetic changes. The coils output a weak AC signal according to the angle at which the horns are to Earth's magnetic field. B) A similar arrangement of windings inside the compass case reproduces the detected magnetic field. C) The windings inside the compass are known as the stator.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 55. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It converts a weak AC into a signal capable of driving a small motor. A) Precession Amplifier B) Stator. C) Flux Valve. D) Gyro Unit. E) Detector Coil.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 56. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It uses 3 coils to create an alternating field matching the locally sensed magnetic field. A) Stator. B) Precession Amplifier C) Flux Valve. D) Gyro Unit. E) Detector Coil.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 57. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It is located in a wingtip or tailplane, as far as possible from the aircraft's electrical components. A) Flux Valve. B) Precession Amplifier C) Stator. D) Gyro Unit. E) Detector Coil.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 58. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It provides a heading reference for the compass card and other aircraft systems. A) Gyro Unit. B) Precession Amplifier C) Stator. D) Flux Valve. E) Detector Coil.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 59. Identify which component is described below from the following list: When at right angles to the stator field it has no output. A) Detector Coil. B) Precession Amplifier C) Stator. D) Flux Valve. E) Gyro Unit.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 60. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Needs an electrical supply to function. A) Remote indicating B) Direct-reading C) Neither D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 61. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Has the lowest weight and volume. A) Direct-reading B) Remote indicating C) Neither D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 62. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Suffers from deviation error owing to aircraft magnetism which is corrected using a deviation card. A) Direct-reading B) Remote indicating C) Neither D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 63. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Is completely immune from turning error. A) Neither B) Remote indicating C) Direct-reading D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 64. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Has substantial error caused by accelerations. A) Direct-reading B) Remote indicating C) Neither D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 65. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Suffers from jamming at some attitudes. A) Direct-reading B) Remote indicating C) Neither D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 66. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Has the most accurate and stable indications. A) Remote indicating B) Direct-reading C) Neither D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 67. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Can share heading information with other aircraft systems. A) Remote indicating B) Direct-reading C) Neither D) Both.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 68. Before flight, the __________ switch, often labelled __________ is used to align the compass. A) synchronising; CCW/CW B) synchronising; ALIGN/ATT C) erecting; CCW/CW D) erecting; ALIGN/ATT

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 69. Synchronising must be done after extensive __________. A) manoeuvring B) instrument flying C) cross-country

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 70. Typical attitude indicator displays have: A) Brown for ground and blue for sky, with index marks typically every 5° in pitch, and every 10° in roll, up to at least 30°. B) A black background with a white line to indicate the horizon and a 'W'-shaped aircraft symbol. C) Blue for sky and green for ground, with pitch indications every 10° and roll indications every 15°. D) Brown earth and blue sky, yellow FD bars or V-index, and white ILS indications.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 71. A standard pneumatic gyro AI is affected by acceleration, showing an erroneous indication of: A) Pitch up and roll right. B) Pitch up and roll left. C) Pitch down and roll left. D) Pitch down and roll right.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 72. A standard pneumatic gyro AI is affected by deceleration, showing an erroneous indication of: A) Pitch down and roll left. B) Pitch up and roll left. C) Pitch up and roll right. D) Pitch down and roll right.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 73. An AI gyro has __________ degrees of freedom. A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 0

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 74. The aircraft's AI shows the aircraft's attitude in respect to ________ and ______. A) pitch, roll B) pitch, yaw C) roll, turn D) yaw, roll

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 75. Electrically-driven AI acceleration errors are __________ than the errors experienced by a pneumatically-driven AI. A) smaller B) larger C) the same as

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 76. Which of the following statements about the rate-of-turn and balance (slip) indicator is/are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) It allows a predictable radius of turn to be flown. B) The instrument helps you to fly balanced Rate 1 turns. C) The instrument indicates straight, balanced flight when the needle and ball are both centred. D) It is the only reliable instrument when flying a coordinated turn.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 77. A Rate 1 turn: A) Takes 2 minutes to turn through 360°. B) Takes 2 minutes to turn through 180°. C) Takes 1 minute to turn through 360°. D) Takes 3 minutes to turn through 180°.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 78. The balance (slip) indicator: Mark all correct answers. A) Is used to apply the correct amount of rudder for the current bank angle. B) Shows the ball hard right if a left turn is carried out with rudder alone. C) Indicates that more left rudder, or less right rudder, is needed if the ball is deflected left. D) Shows the ball hard left if a left turn is carried out with rudder alone.

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 79. The turn coordinator: Mark all correct answers. A) Has index marks against the wingtips for level flight and Rate 1 turns. B) Uses an aircraft symbol and always has a warning 'No Pitch Indication'. C) Is exactly the same as a turn and slip indicator. D) Indicates either bank angle or turn rate (when bank angle is very small). E) Indicates either turn rate or bank angle (when turn rates are very small).

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 80. For increased rate of turn with same TAS, bank angle must: A) Increase B) Decrease C) Remain unchanged D) Reduce

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 81. For increased TAS and same rate of turn, bank angle must: A) Increase B) Decrease C) Remain unchanged D) Reduce

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 82. For same bank angle and increased TAS, rate of turn will: A) Decrease B) Increase C) Remain unchanged

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 83. For increased TAS and same rate of turn, lift and 'g' must: A) Increase B) Decrease C) Remain unchanged

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 84. An aircraft is flying a true track of 360° from 5° south to 5° north. What is the average apparent wander rate?

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 85. The properties of a gyroscope are: 1 - rigidity in space 2 - rigidly on earth 3 - precession 4 - Schuler oscillations The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 86. How many gyros are in an AHRS (attitude and heading reference system)?

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 87. Due to the rotation of the Earth, the apparent drift of a horizontal free gyroscope at a latitude of 30°N is:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 88. The rotational speed of an air-driven gyro is normally:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 89. Considering an air driven artificial horizon, when an aircraft decelerates on ground during the landing, the result is:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 90. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 91. What does the turn indicator display?

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 92. Without any external action, the axis of a free gyroscope is fixed with reference to:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 93. During flight, the ball of a slip indicator is central. What does this indicate? That the:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 94. The indication of the directional gyro is valid only for a limited period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are rotation of the Earth and:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 95. The latitude at which the apparent wander of a directional gyro is equal to 0 is:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 96. In an AHRS, what does the three-axis magnetometer provide?

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 97. In a vacuum operated attitude indicator, automatic erection of the gyro is performed by:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 98. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn consists of measuring the:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 99. The inclination of the Earth's magnetic field at the magnetic equator is equal to:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 100. During pre-flight check, serviceability of a direct reading standby compass Indication can be compared preferably with: 1) runway direction during line-up. 2) main compass indication. 3) test VOR indication. 4) an ADF bearing. 5) an Airborne Weather Radar bearing. e combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 101. In the northern hemisphere, an aircraft takesoff on a runway with an alignment of 045° . During the take-off run, the compass indicates:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 102. The direction "magnetic north" at a position on the Earth is the:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 103. With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be a decrease in the:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 104. The purpose of the Flux Valve is to:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 105. Which of the following statements about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct?

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 106. At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take-off on heading West, a direct reading compass:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 107. The location of the Earth's magnetic poles:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 108. Concerning magnetic compasses, deviation is:

A-INST1-PT02.A.pdf | 109. What is a magnetic meridian of the Earth's magnetic field?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. The angle between the magnetic field lines and the horizontal is known as __________.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. A simple magnetic compass aligns itself with the __________ and __________ (Z component) of the Earth's magnetic field.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. Which of the following statements about magnetic variation is correct? Magnetic variation…

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. Close to the __________ poles dip can be great enough to cause the compass to stop working.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. The __________ pole of a magnet is attracted to the Magnetic South pole.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. The north pole of a magnet repels the __________ pole of another magnet nearby, and attracts the __________ pole.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. Magnetic dip…

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. Which of the following statements about the Earth's magnetic field is/are correct? Mark all correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. Turning errors in a direct-reading compass can be mitigated by using __________.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Northern hemisphere, heading North, accelerating.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: In climb with pitch angle of 25º.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Northern hemisphere, heading East, decelerating.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Northern hemisphere, turning left through North-East.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Southern hemisphere, heading West, accelerating.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. Select which of these errors would be expected from a direct-reading compass in situation described below: Southern hemisphere, turning right through South-East.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes elements of the pre-flight check you must do on a direct-reading compass? Mark all correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 9. Which of the following statements about the direct-reading compass (DRC) is/are correct? Mark 2 correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. A Rate 1 turn is __________ degrees per __________.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. When adjusting the magnets for compass errors you introduce an almost equal and opposite magnetic field to that of the __________ .

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. After compass errors have been minimised, a card is displayed on or near the compass which records any residual __________.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Only present when current is flowing.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Proportional to the number of coils and to the current flow.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Greatly enhanced by a soft iron core.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Known as permanent magnetism.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. Compass errors are accurately measured on various headings, and then minimised by adjusting __________ within the compass.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 9. Select the type of magnetism associated with each statement: Depends on attitude and location.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 10. Compass deviations are minimised by __________ the compass. This is done with electrical components and engines all __________ .

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 11. Which of the following statements about aircraft magnetism is/are correct? Mark 4 correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 12. Which of the following statement(s) about compass deviation cards is/are correct? Mark 4 correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. A gyro with 1 gimbal has __________ axes of freedom and __________ degree of freedom.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. A gyro with 2 gimbals has __________ axes of freedom and __________ degrees of freedom.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. When a force is applied to the rotor of a gyro, the rotor moves as if the force was applied __________ degrees, in the direction of __________, from where it was applied.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. Gyroscopic rigidity depends on the gyroscope rotor's:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. A rapidly spinning gyro tends to maintain its orientation in inertial space. This property of gyroscopes is called __________.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. A gyroscope is a device comprising a __________ mounted so that it can spin rapidly about its axis.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. Gyros in aircraft instruments may be driven by: Mark 2 correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. Select all correct statements about wander:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. Manoeuvre causes directional gyro drift because the gyro starts erecting towards the aircraft's __________ during manoeuvres.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. In which direction of travel is total drift greatest in a directional gyro?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. If during manoeuvre the limits of the __________ are reached, any further pitch or roll disturbs the gyro.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. Directional gyros provide a __________ reference.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. Directional gyros are __________ tied.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. How is a directional gyro aligned to the correct heading?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. Directional gyros are principally exploited for its property of __________.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. The HSI comprises: Mark all correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 9. Directional gyros drift over time because of: Mark 3 correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. Identify which component is described below from the following list: When at right angles to the stator field it has no output.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Has the lowest weight and volume.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Suffers from deviation error owing to aircraft magnetism which is corrected using a deviation card.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Has substantial error caused by accelerations.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Suffers from jamming at some attitudes.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It is located in a wingtip or tailplane, as far as possible from the aircraft's electrical components.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It provides a heading reference for the compass card and other aircraft systems.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. Synchronising must be done after extensive __________.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 9. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Is completely immune from turning error.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 10. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It converts a weak AC into a signal capable of driving a small motor.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 11. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Needs an electrical supply to function.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 12. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Has the most accurate and stable indications.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 13. Select which type of compass is described by each statement from the following list: Can share heading information with other aircraft systems.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 14. Identify which component is described below from the following list: It uses 3 coils to create an alternating field matching the locally sensed magnetic field.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 15. Before flight, the __________ switch, often labelled __________ is used to align the compass.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 16. Which of the following statement(s) about flux valves is/are correct? Mark all correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 17. Which of the following statement(s) about the remote indicating compass is/are correct: Mark 3 correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. An AI gyro has __________ degrees of freedom.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. Typical attitude indicator displays have:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. A standard pneumatic gyro AI is affected by deceleration, showing an erroneous indication of:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. A standard pneumatic gyro AI is affected by acceleration, showing an erroneous indication of:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. The aircraft's AI shows the aircraft's attitude in respect to ________ and ______.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. Electrically-driven AI acceleration errors are __________ than the errors experienced by a pneumatically-driven AI.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. For same bank angle and increased TAS, rate of turn will:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. For increased rate of turn with same TAS, bank angle must:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. For increased TAS and same rate of turn, bank angle must:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. For increased TAS and same rate of turn, lift and 'g' must:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. A Rate 1 turn:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. The turn coordinator: Mark all correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. Which of the following statements about the rate-of-turn and balance (slip) indicator is/are correct? Mark all correct answers.

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. The inclination of the Earth's magnetic field at the magnetic equator is equal to:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. During pre-flight check, serviceability of a direct reading standby compass indication can be compared preferably with: 1 - runway direction during line-up 2 - main compass indication 3 - test VOR indication 4 - an ADF bearing 5 - an Airborne Weather Radar

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. An aircraft takes off in the northern hemisphere from a runway with an alignment of 045°. During a rolling take-off, the magnetic compass indicates:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. In the northern hemisphere, an aircraft takesoff on a runway with an alignment of 045° . During the take-off run, the compass indicates:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. The direction "magnetic north" at a position on the Earth is the:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be a decrease in the:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 9. The purpose of the Flux Valve is to:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 10. Which of the following statements about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 11. At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take-off on heading West, a direct reading compass:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 12. The location of the Earth's magnetic poles:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 13. Concerning magnetic compasses, deviation is:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 14. The horizontal component of magnetic force lines

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 1. An aircraft is flying a true track of 360° from 5° south to 5° north. What is the average apparent wander rate?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 2. The basic properties of a gyroscope are: 1. Rigidity in space. 2. Nutation. 3. Gyroscopic precession. 4. Gyroscopic drift. The combination of all the correct statements is:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 3. The properties of a gyroscope are: 1 - rigidity in space 2 - rigidly on earth 3 - precession 4 - Schuler oscillations The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 4. How many gyros are in an AHRS (attitude and heading reference system)?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 5. The rotational speed of an air-driven gyro is normally:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 6. Considering an air driven artificial horizon, when an aircraft decelerates on ground during the landing, the result is:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 7. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 8. What does the turn indicator display?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 9. Without any external action, the axis of a free gyroscope is fixed with reference to:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 10. During flight, the ball of a slip indicator is central. What does this indicate? That the:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 11. The indication of the directional gyro is valid only for a limited period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are rotation of the Earth and:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 12. The latitude at which the apparent wander of a directional gyro is equal to 0 is:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 13. In an AHRS, what does the three-axis magnetometer provide?

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 14. In a vacuum operated attitude indicator, automatic erection of the gyro is performed by:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 15. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn consists of measuring the:

A-INST1-PT02.A-INSTRUMENTATION.pdf | 16. Due to the rotation of the Earth, the apparent drift of a horizontal free gyroscope at a latitude of 30°N is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 1. The primary purpose of the AFCS is to: A) Reduce pilot workload and aircraft fatigue, and increase passenger comfort B) Automate all phases of flight, including the take-off. C) Optimise the fuel efficiency of the flight by using gentle control inputs. D) Provide the crew with the correct flight parameters for each flight phase (speed, attitude, heading etc).

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 2. The primary purpose of a flight director system is to… A) Provide rate guidance to reduce pilot workload, increase accuracy and smoothness of flying, and reduce aircraft fatigue. B) Provide pitch and roll attitudes to the AP. C) Fly the aircraft automatically using a closed-loop system. D) Provide a backup attitude guidance system only when the AP is switched off.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 3. Which of the following statements accurately describe the operation of the FD system?Mark all correct answers. A) Cross-bars indicate the direction and qualitative size of the control inputs needed. B) V-bars indicate the direction and qualitative size of the control inputs needed. C) V-bars must be centred on the aircraft's cross-bars. D) Cross-bars indicate the pitch and roll attitudes required.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 4. Which of the following statement(s) about FD and AP systems is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Use of FDs without AP is common for manual flying practice. Good monitoring by the other pilot is essential. B) Both receive the same signals and use the same algorithms to calculate the control inputs required. C) APs control the aircraft while FDs pass instructions to the pilot. D) FDs provide a useful means of cross-checking the performance of the AP. E) Use of the AP without FDs is unusual in all but the most basic systems which simply hold attitudes. F) FDs are usually turned off when the AP is in use. G) If the AP is not engaged, then following the FD commands is optional.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 5. Which of the following statements accurately describe the work-sharing arrangements between the pilots when in manual flight:Mark all correct answers. A) The PM confirms that the PF is following the FD, that modes are in accordance with clearances and are safe. B) In normal flight states the PF must follow the FD if it is on. C) The PF asks for the FD to be switched off if suitable modes are not apparent, or in situations when FD guidance is detrimental. D) The PF calls for mode selections; these are made by the PM. E) Only the PF checks the modes indicated on the FMA, calling-out modes as required by type-specific procedures.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 6. Which of the following statements about the AP and FD is/are correct? A) Modes are identical for the FD and the AP and are selected using the same MCP (FCU) controls. B) More modes are available for the FD (e.g. smooth climb) because the sensitivity of the AP is limited. C) AP modes are mostly the same as FD modes except during initial descent from cruise altitude. D) The increased sensitivity of the FD modes means that the FD bars are usually slightly deflected when the AP is engaged.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 7. Mode changes are annunciated on the FMA. Some mode changes have additional visual or aural cues when: A) The mode change presents a risk of clearances not being followed. B) The mode change is commanded by an ATSU using ADS-C. C) The mode change is one which isn't normally annunciated on an FMA. D) The mode change is unexpected.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 8. Which of the following statement(s) about FMAs is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) Lateral, vertical and thrust modes are separated into separate columns. B) The FMAs are normally located at the top of the PFD DUs. C) Engaged modes are shown on the FMA, armed modes are whatever is selected on the MCP (FCU). D) The PF's FMA is the active FMA used by both crew.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 9. The 2 functions of an AFCS are:Aircraft __________, stabilising the aircraft around its centre of gravity.Aircraft __________, along the aircraft's flight path. A) control; guidance B) control; control C) guidance; control D) guidance; guidance

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 10. Work-sharing when in manual and automatic flight...Select the correct mode of flight for each statement:The PM makes mode and parameter selections. A) Manual B) Both C) Automatic

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 11. Work-sharing when in manual and automatic flight...Select the correct mode of flight for each statement:The PF makes mode and parameter selections. A) Automatic B) Manual C) Both

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 12. Work-sharing when in manual and automatic flight...Select the correct mode of flight for each statement:Both pilots check the modes on their respective FMAs A) Both B) Manual C) Automatic

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 13. Work-sharing when in manual and automatic flight...Select the correct mode of flight for each statement:Both pilots monitor AP function using the FD. A) Automatic B) Manual C) Both

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 14. Flight director (FD) indications:Select the correct position of the command bar in each statement:Turning right with 25 degrees of bank at the correct rate of turn. A) Central B) Up C) Down D) Right E) Left

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 15. Flight director (FD) indications:Select the correct position of the command bar in each statement:Maintaining 500 fpm climb with 700 fpm set in MCP VS window. . A) Up B) Central C) Down D) Right E) Left

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 16. Flight director (FD) indications:Select the correct position of the command bar in each statement:In flight level change, 300 kt climb with 15 degrees pitch up, MCP set speed 320 kt. A) Down B) Central C) Up D) Right E) Left

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 17. Flight director (FD) indications:Select the correct position of the command bar in each statement:In left turn with 25 degrees of bank passing heading 005. The set heading is 360. A) Right B) Central C) Up D) Down E) Left

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 18. When using AP or FD:Data being used must be checked via the FMS CDU/MCDU and modes must be checked via the __________. A) FMA B) ND C) HIS

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 19. When using AP or FD:If FD guidance is incorrect it should be __________. A) turned off B) left on but ignored

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 20. When using AP or FD:You can only properly determine which modes are engaged or armed by looking at the indications on the __________. A) FMA B) CDU C) FMS

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 21. FMA modes arming/engaging/reverting:Select the correct action for this statement:Mode change accompanied by an aural alert. A) Reversion B) Engaged C) Armed

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 22. FMA modes arming/engaging/reverting:Select the correct action for this statement:Mode appears in large font on the top row of the FMA. A) Engaged B) Reversion C) Armed

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 23. FMA modes arming/engaging/reverting:Select the correct action for this statement:Mode in small font (Boeing) and a different colour. A) Armed B) Reversion C) Engaged

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 24. FMA modes arming/engaging/reverting:Select the correct action for this statement:Mode is on the second row of the FMA. A) Armed B) Reversion C) Engaged

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 25. FMA modes arming/engaging/reverting:Select the correct action for this statement:Mode has a box around it for a period of time. A) Engaged B) Reversion C) Armed

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 26. FMA modes arming/engaging/reverting:Select the correct action for this statement:A mode disengages and a basic mode replaces it by default. A) Reversion B) Engaged C) Armed

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 27. Autopilot control laws: A) Ensure that autopilot outputs are appropriate for the aircraft's speed and configuration. B) Ensure that the pilot's control inputs always have priority over autopilot control inputs. C) Are laid out in CS25 Sect 4.3.3 and specify the size and design of control surfaces used on large aircraft. D) Ensure that pitch modes always have priority over roll modes when the flaps are UP.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 28. Which of the following is NOT true? A) Landing gear and flap positions have no effect on autopilot output signal magnitude. B) The magnitude of autopilot output signals diminishes with increasing speed. C) Autopilot output pitch signals vary with flap setting to account for the associated changes in longitudinal stability. D) The magnitude of autopilot output signals increase with decreasing airspeed.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 29. Which of the following statement(s) about autopilot configurations is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) If the primary flight controls are static you must monitor the AP's control inputs using the PFD and other means. B) The control column/wheel moves with the control surfaces when the AP is engaged. C) On some configurations the primary flight controls may be static when the AP is engaged. D) All primary flight controls are static when the AP is engaged.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 30. Which of the following statement(s) about AP engagement and disengagement is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Manual trim with the AP engaged will lead to AP disconnection and an out-of-trim condition. B) Synchronisation ensures that, when the AP is engaged, there is no sudden movement of the control surfaces or change in aircraft attitude. C) The aircraft should be in trim before AP engagement to avoid 'snatching' caused by an out-of-trim condition. D) The aircraft will normally be in trim when the AP is disengaged. E) Synchronisation ensures that the APs across a fleet of aircraft behave identically. F) The AP can always engage, even when the aircraft is badly out of trim.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 31. Which of the following statements about CWS are true?Mark 3 correct answers. A) With CWS operating, control feel and response may differ to that experienced in manual flight. B) CWS is an AP mode permitting manual manoeuvring of the aircraft via the AP computer and actuators. C) CWS cannot be used on the final approach. D) CWS is available is all phases of flight. E) With CWS operating, the AP controls the flight path. F) With CWS operating, flight path and performance protections remain available.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 32. Which of the following statements about touch control steering (TCS) are accurate?Mark all correct answers. A) The AP servos reconnect with the control surfaces when the TCS button is released. B) The AP remains engaged but the actuators are disconnected from the flight controls while the TCS button is pressed. C) Pressing the TCS button allows manual control of the aircraft with normal feel and response.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 33. More than one AP can be engaged: A) After the APP button has been pressed to arm or engage LOC and G/S modes - this facilitates fail-operational autoland. B) Only on an ILS, FLS or LPV approach. C) Only when APP mode is engaged and the radio altitude is less than 1000 ft. D) Not below 1500 ft on departure or below 1000 ft on approach.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 34. Which statement(s) about mode reversion is/are correct? Mode reversion:Mark all correct answers. A) Occurs when a parameter is changed during the capture phase - e.g. change of set altitude during ALT ACQ/ALT*. B) Is an automatic change of AP/FD modes. C) Occurs when there is no suitable data for an engaged mode - e.g. a route discontinuity in LNAV/NAV mode. D) Does not occur if mismanagement of a mode results in AP envelope protection engaging - e.g. excessive V/S resulting in loss of speed control.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 35. Which of the following is/are valid examples of the dangers of mismanaging AP modes:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Selecting VOR/LOC or APP outside the protected area of the facility leading to capture of 'side lobes', resulting in an unstable approach. B) Setting an excessive V/S or FPA resulting in uncontrolled loss or gain of speed. C) Using LVL CHG hold for a height difference greater than 10 000 ft, leading to ALT LOCK. D) Failure to disengage LAND mode by 20 ft RA causing the aircraft to pitch up automatically in ground effect.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 36. Failure of aircraft systems, or incorrect data can lead to: A) AP disengagement with warning, or incorrect AP operation. Prompt and appropriate intervention is essential. B) AP disengagement becoming impossible without using the AP power supply circuit breaker (CB). C) AP parameter reset or mode change becoming impossible. AP disconnection using the MCP/FCU switches is necessary. D) Automatic reversion to LNAV/NVAV modes.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 37. AP disconnection:Mark all correct answers. A) Other disconnection methods are not the normal means, and so the warning can only be cancelled by pressing the glareshield warning light. B) Should normally be done using the disconnect button on the control wheel. C) Is accompanied by a visual and aural warning because manual control is necessary. D) A second press of the control wheel disconnect switch cancels the warnings associated with AP disconnection. E) A second press of the MCP/FCU AP switch cancels the warnings associated with disconnection.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 38. Which of the following are elements of a closed-loop control system?Mark all correct answers. A) A signal processor to provide a measured output signal according to set criteria or laws. B) Input signals (e.g. a heading selector) to provide a means for the pilot to communicate instructions to the system. C) An error detector to determine the direction and magnitude of the difference between the desired state and the current state. D) Feedback signals (e.g. current heading) sent to an error detector. E) Actuators to provide feedback.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 39. Closed-loop control systems can enter a state of self-induced oscillation if: A) The system overcompensates for deviations from the desired state. B) The feedback loop has very low latency. C) The amplitude of the system output signals is too low. D) The flight control actuators aren't properly tuned to be counter-resonant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 40. Which of the following conditions describes a self-induced oscillation (PIO)? A) Control inputs result in stable or unstable deviations from the desired state. B) The air speed continues to decrease after a pitch-down control input. C) Any small deviation in pitch causes the aircraft to 'porpoise'. D) Deviations from the desired state which rapidly decrease in magnitude.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 41. Which of the following accurately describes autopilot modes?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Altitude (ALT) hold mode captures and maintains the altitude set in the MCP. When the ALT HOLD button is pressed it captures and maintains current altitude. B) V/S mode captures and maintains the vertical speed set in the MCP/FCU. C) LVL CHG (Boeing) or Open climb/Open descent (Airbus) controls air speed using pitch. It signals the A/T to give idle or climb thrust. D) FPA captures and maintains the designated final approach angle associated with an ILS. E) The Airbus Speed Reference System controls speed with A/T.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 42. Which of the following statements about a THS is/are correct?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Engine thrust level must be considered when dealing with a THS runaway. B) A THS is powerful enough to overcome elevator control authority. C) A THS runaway is a serious emergency requiring immediate action to electrically isolate the system. D) Because the THS doesn't trim by changing the deflection of the elevators, full control authority is retained at all times. E) Aircraft with THS are normally designed with large enough elevators to overcome a THS runaway.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 43. Single axis autopilot permits control in __________ only. A) roll B) pitch C) yaw D) bank

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 44. Dual axis autopilot permits control in roll and __________. A) pitch. B) yaw. C) bank. D) speed.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 45. Three axis autopilot permits control in __________. A) roll, pitch and yaw. B) roll, pitch and bank. C) roll, pitch and speed.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 46. Select the correct AP/FD mode state for this statement:Not all modes can be in this state. A) Armed B) Engaged

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 47. Select the correct AP/FD mode state for this statement:The mode controls the aircraft. A) Engaged B) Armed

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 48. Select the correct AP/FD mode state for this statement:Modes enter this state when selected only if certain criteria are met. A) Armed B) Engaged

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 49. Select the correct AP/FD mode state for this statement:Modes enter this state automatically if certain criteria are met. A) Engaged B) Armed

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 50. Select the AP mode phase relating to this statement:The aircraft follows a predefined rate of change of trajectory to achieve the new parameter. A) Capture Phase B) Initial Phase C) Holding Phase

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 51. Select the AP mode phase relating to this statement:The aircraft's attitude is changed to change trajectory to achieve a new parameter. A) Initial Phase B) Capture Phase C) Holding Phase

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 52. Select the AP mode phase relating to this statement:The aircraft's trajectory is based on the rate of closure and difference between the original parameter and the new parameter. A) Initial Phase B) Capture Phase C) Holding Phase

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 53. Select the AP mode phase relating to this statement:The aircraft maintains the set parameter until a new parameter is set. A) Holding Phase B) Capture Phase C) Initial Phase

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 54. Select the AP mode phase relating to this statement:This phase is sometimes also known as the tracking phase. A) Holding Phase B) Capture Phase C) Initial Phase

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 55. Is this statement about the trim system true or false?Trimming relieves the loads on the control system. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 56. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?There is always a trim system for each axis. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 57. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?Trim indicators show the position of trim tabs and/or the horizontal stabiliser. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 58. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?The horizontal stabiliser must be in the 'green band' for landing. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 59. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?The horizontal stabiliser must be in the green band for take-off to ensure sufficient elevator authority. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 60. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?Automatic pitch trim (auto- trim) senses the loads in the elevator control circuit and adjusts to remove this load. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 61. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?In fly-by-wire (FBW) aircraft, auto-trim functions during automatic and manual flight. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 62. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?In FBW aircraft, auto-trim operates at half speed when there is a risk of overspeed or underspeed. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 63. Is this statements about the trim system true or false?Manual trimming overrides auto-trim. This may cause the AP to disengage. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 64. __________ loop control systems use feedback from an action or state to compare the actual state with the intended state. A) Closed B) Open C) Centre D) Engaged

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 65. __________ loop control systems have no feedback loop. A) Open B) Closed C) Centre D) Engaged

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 66. __________ loop systems are the norm in aircraft AFCS. A) Closed B) Open C) Centre D) Engaged

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 67. Self-induced oscillations most commonly involve deviations in __________. A) pitch B) roll C) yaw D) bank

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 68. When engaged, go-around mode maintains the aircraft's __________. It controls speed by adjusting __________. A) track; pitch B) track; thrust C) heading; pitch D) heading; thrust

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 69. VNAV (or in Airbus aircraft: CLB/DES) captures and maintains the vertical flight path __________ A) programmed in the FMC B) selected on the UP DN thumbwheel

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 70. An autothrust system reduces pilot workload and… A) Either improves airspeed stability, or maintains predetermined thrust in changing environmental conditions. B) Maintains air speed under all changes of environmental conditions and autoflight modes. C) Maintains maximum thrust under all conditions, as shown on the FMA D) Improves thrust stability in vertical speed mode, and airspeed stability in level change. E) Improves situational awareness.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 71. Energy awareness… A) Can be lowered if you don't carefully monitor your speed and thrust setting. B) Is always improved by using autothrust. C) Is never adequate with A/T engaged; manual thrust control is always safer. D) Is unaffected by A/T because the noise of the engines provides adequate cues.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 72. The automatic flight control system (AFCS) controls airspeed by: A) Either by varying engine thrust or by varying the aircraft's pitch attitude. B) Only by varying engine thrust. C) Either by varying engine thrust or by varying aircraft's pitch attitude, depending on the aircraft type. D) By varying engine thrust, except when in TOGA mode.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 73. Which of the following is/are potential implications for speed control when the A/T controls speed and the AP/FD pitch channel has a fixed pitch target?Mark 3 correct answers. A) A steadily increasing OAT eventually results in not enough thrust to maintain the air speed. B) The air speed may decay, even with climb thrust set. C) The air speed may increase, even with idle thrust set. D) The air speed may decay if too high a rate of descent is set.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 74. Which of the following is/are potential implications for speed control when the A/T has a fixed thrust target and the AP/FD mode controls speed?Mark all correct answers. A) The air speed is set too low in the descent, causing little or no descent rate while aircraft decelerates, which can take a long time. (Can lead to difficulty complying with altitude constraints ahead). B) Low (or no) rate of climb while accelerating, which can take a long time. C) High pitch attitude in the climb because the speed is set too low, making cabin service difficult or impossible. D) The air speed is set too high in the descent, leading to excessive vertical speed and potential for GPWS warnings.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 75. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Has a time limit, typically 5 minutes, extended to 10 following an engine failure. A) TOGA B) Speed C) Thrust D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 76. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Thrust is modulated as required to achieve and maintain the parameter set in the FMS or on the MCP. A) Speed B) TOGA C) Thrust D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 77. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Sequences modes during autoland. A) Retard/Idle B) TOGA C) Speed D) Thrust E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 78. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Associated with AP/FD modes which control airspeed with pitch. A) Thrust B) TOGA C) Speed D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 79. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Associated with AP/FD modes which maintain trajectory. A) Speed B) TOGA C) Thrust D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 80. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:N1 or EPR passed from the FMS is the target. A) Thrust B) TOGA C) Speed D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 81. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Maximum thrust for the ambient conditions is set. A) TOGA B) Speed C) Thrust D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 82. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Sequences modes when a descent is started. A) Retard/Arm B) TOGA C) Speed D) Thrust E) Retard/Idle F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 83. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Used on go- around. A) TOGA B) Speed C) Thrust D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 84. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Maximum thrust without time limit is the target. A) MCT B) TOGA C) Speed D) Thrust E) Retard/Idle F) Retard/Arm

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 85. Which autothrust modes/sub-modes are described by this statement:Its sub mode is indicated above the engine instruments. A) Thrust B) TOGA C) Speed D) Retard/Idle E) Retard/Arm F) MCT

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 86. There are 2 main variants of autothrust installation.Modes are selected only on the MCP or TOGA switches. The thrust levers __________ with A/T commands. Mode selections can be made using the thrust levers. The levers __________ with A/T commands. A) move; remain static B) move; move C) remain static; remain static D) remain static; move

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 87. Identify if this statement regarding A/T during flight in wind shear or turbulence are true of false:Air speed fluctuations can cause the A/T to overcompensate, leading to speed oscillations. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 88. Identify if this statement regarding A/T during flight in wind shear or turbulence are true of false:The A/T should be left engaged, no matter how big the turbulence- induced fluctuations become. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 89. Identify if this statement regarding A/T during flight in wind shear or turbulence are true of false:Manual thrust control is always necessary to correct turbulence- induced oscillation. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 90. Identify if this statement regarding A/T during flight in wind shear or turbulence are true of false:Air speed and trend vectors are a good aid to setting manual thrust. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 91. Identify if this statement regarding A/T during flight in wind shear or turbulence are true of false:Manual thrust adjustments should not be too aggressive. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 92. Which of the following statement(s) about using A/T modes with AP vertical modes is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) When the AP/FD mode controls speed, A/T is set to thrust mode. B) When the AP/FD mode controls trajectory, A/T is set to speed mode. C) When the AP/FD mode controls trajectory, A/T is set to thrust mode. D) When the AP/FD mode controls speed, A/T is set to speed mode.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 93. The purpose of an autoland system is to: A) Allow landing in visibility too low for a manual landing. B) Allow landing with no minimum visibility. C) Reduce aircraft wear through smoother landings and gentler braking. D) Allow landing in higher crosswinds.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 94. Which of the following is required equipment for an autoland system?Mark 4 correct answers. A) Radio altimeter(s) to trigger mode arming and engagement at the correct points on the approach, and to indicate radio altitude to the crew. B) Two or three autopilots to control the aircraft. C) ILS receivers to sense and indicate deviation from the ideal approach course and glidepath. D) Autothrust to control the air speed. E) A middle marker to indicate when to flare. F) An autopilot to control the aircraft.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 95. Which is the correct sequence of events for a CAT IIIB autoland? A) LOC engaged, G/S engaged, 1500 FT RA, LAND3, FLARE armed, FLARE engaged, A/T RETARD. B) LOC engaged, G/S armed, G/S engaged, LAND2, 1500 FT RA, FLARE armed, FLARE engaged, A/T RETARD. C) LOC and G/S armed, LOC engaged, G/S engaged, LAND3, 1500 FT RA, FLARE armed, A/T RETARD, FLARE engaged. D) G/S engaged, LOC engaged, 1500 FT RA, LAND3, FLARE armed, FLARE engaged, A/T RETARD.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 96. Pilots must monitor the FMAs during a CAT III approach to ensure: A) Modes are armed and engaged by the trigger radio heights or other parameters. B) FLARE mode does not arm above 500 FT RA. C) A/T RETARD mode engages before FLARE mode engages. D) A/T RETARD mode doesn't arm before LAND3 extinguishes.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 97. As PM, in the event of a go-around from a CAT III approach you should:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Check raw data to ensure go-around thrust is set, the aircraft pitches up, and wings are level. B) Check the FMAs to ensure the required A/T, pitch and roll modes are engaged. C) Make no calls until the aircraft reaches acceleration altitude to avoid distracting the PF. D) Monitor raw data only because it's the PF's responsibility to monitor the FMA.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 98. During an autoland you should check FMAs to confirm or ensure that:Mark 5 correct answers. A) The PF disconnects the AP before attempting to vacate the runway. B) FLARE engages at the correct Radio altitude. C) If FLARE does not engage by the required RA, go-around without delay. D) ROLL-OUT mode engages on touchdown. E) If ROLL-OUT mode does not engage, the PF controls the aircraft manually along the runway centreline. F) If FLARE does engage at the correct radio height, allow 5 seconds for slow engagement, and then call "No 'Flare'. G) The A/T RETARD mode sets idle thrust and then ARMS by about 27 FT RA.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 99. Which of the following are mandatory legal requirements for autoland?Mark 2 correct answers. A) The airport's LVPs are in force. B) The aircraft technical status (landing capability) is suitable. C) The captain is LVO trained and current. The FO need not be. D) An additional 30 min holding fuel is on board at the start of the approach.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 100. If an autoland capability downgrade occurs before alert height: A) It will be annunciated. Go-around if RVR is too low for reversion. If RVR permits, continue the approach using a lower approach category with a higher DH. B) It will not be annunciated. C) It will be annunciated. Go-around if RVR is too high for reversion. If RVR permits reversion continue using a higher approach category with a lower DH. D) You may continue the autoland approach with only 1 channel because the risk of a further failure, in the short time remaining, is deemed minimal.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 101. If autoland downgrade occurs after alert height: A) It will not be annunciated, but a further downgrade, preventing autoland, causes AP disconnection and requires an immediate go-around. B) It will be annunciated because an immediate go-around is required. C) It will be annunciated. Continue only if visual references permit a manual landing. D) It will not be annunciated but you must initiate an immediate go-around.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 102. Which of the following failures will trigger a warning below alert height?Mark 4 correct answers. A) Radio altimeter failure. B) All APs disengage. C) Loss of part or all of ILS signal or receivers. D) Excessive ILS deviation. E) Any AP disengages. F) Autobrake failure.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 103. A fail-operational hybrid system is: A) A fail-passive automatic landing system with a secondary independent guidance system such as a HUD to allow manual landing if the primary system fails. B) A fail-operational secondary with a fail-passive primary automatic landing system supplemented by CVS and SVS. C) A fail-passive automatic landing system with a secondary automatic landing system in case the primary system fails. D) A fail-operational automatic landing system supplemented with SVS, CVS and HUD.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 104. Select the correct system type relating to each characteristic:FPALS: Fail Passive Automatic Landing System.FOALS: Fail Operation Automatic Landing System.FOHLS: Fail Operational Hybrid Landing System.Requires a HUD, EVS and/or CVS. A) FOHLS B) FOALS C) FPALS

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 105. Select the correct system type relating to each characteristic:FPALS: Fail Passive Automatic Landing System.FOALS: Fail Operation Automatic Landing System.FOHLS: Fail Operational Hybrid Landing System.There must be no out-of-trim condition following the failure of an autopilot. A) FPALS B) FOALS C) FOHLS

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 106. Select the correct system type relating to each characteristic:FPALS: Fail Passive Automatic Landing System.FOALS: Fail Operation Automatic Landing System.FOHLS: Fail Operational Hybrid Landing System.The system can still carry out an automatic landing following the failure of an autopilot. A) FOALS B) FOHLS C) FPALS

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 107. Select the correct system type relating to each characteristic:FPALS: Fail Passive Automatic Landing System.FOALS: Fail Operation Automatic Landing System.FOHLS: Fail Operational Hybrid Landing System.There must be no deviation from the intended flight path following the failure of an autopilot. A) FPALS B) FOALS C) FOHLS

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 108. Select the correct system type relating to each characteristic:FPALS: Fail Passive Automatic Landing System.FOALS: Fail Operation Automatic Landing System.FOHLS: Fail Operational Hybrid Landing System.Comprises a Fail-Passive automatic landing system and a secondary independent guidance system enabling the pilot to complete a manual landing after the failure of the primary system. A) FOHLS B) FOALS C) FPALS

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 109. Alert height is the point on approach after which downgrades from fail- __________ to fail-__________ are not annunciated. A) operational; passive B) passive; passive C) operational; operational D) passive; operational

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 110. Failure of systems not directly involved in the autoland process __________ influence the ability to perform an autoland. They __________ affect your minima/DH for the approach. A) may; may B) may; do not C) do not; may D) do not; do not

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 111. LAND3' implies __________ APs engaged or __________ multi-channel AP(s) engaged. This gives a __________ autoland capability. A) 3; 2; fail-operational B) 3; 2; fail-passive C) 2; 2; fail-passive D) 2; 2; fail-operational

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 112. LAND2' implies __________APs engaged giving a __________ autoland capability. A) 2; fail-passive B) 2; fail-operational C) 1; fail-passive D) 1; fail-operational

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 113. CMD' or 'SINGLE CH' or 'NO AUTOLAND' implies __________ AP engaged giving __________ autoland capability. A) 1; no B) 1; fail-passive C) 1; fail-operational

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 114. The purpose of the Dutch-roll filter is to: A) Filter yaw input signals to prevent the yaw damper from resisting the pilots' or autopilot's rudder control inputs, while responding to the higher frequency Dutch Roll oscillations. B) Ensure the yaw damper system reacts to all manual or automatic inputs as well as Dutch Roll oscillations. C) Ensure the yaw damper only reacts to the pilot's or autopilot's rudder inputs, while filtering out Dutch Roll oscillations. D) Send low frequency signals into the yaw damper computer.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 115. The purpose of a yaw damper is to counteract the __________ aerodynamic __________ known as dutch-roll. A) cyclical; oscillations B) linear; stagnations C) vertical; stagnations D) cyclical; accelerations

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 116. Is this a characteristics of a yaw damper or of other rudder control systems:High frequency. A) Yaw Damper B) Rudder control

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 117. Is this a characteristics of a yaw damper or of other rudder control systems:Low frequency. A) Rudder control B) Yaw Damper

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 118. Is this a characteristics of a yaw damper or of other rudder control systems:Small magnitude. A) Yaw Damper B) Rudder control

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 119. Is this a characteristics of a yaw damper or of other rudder control systems:Large magnitude. A) Rudder control B) Yaw Damper

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 120. Alerting systems must provide alerts which:Mark all correct answers. A) Are removed when the condition no longer exists. B) Are obvious. C) Make the crew aware of a non-normal situation. D) Remain until the end of the flight as a reminder.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 121. Which one of the following is a valid description of the requirements for warnings, cautions and advisories? A) Warnings and cautions must be in direct line-of-sight when seated. Typically attention-getter lights on the glareshield are provided. B) Warnings must be in direct line-of-sight when seated. Typically attention-getter lights are mounted on the forward overhead panel. C) Warnings, cautions and advisories must have attention-getter lights on the glareshield: red for warnings, amber for cautions and any other colour for advisory alerts. D) Most modern aircraft now only use captions on EICAS or EWD: red for warnings, amber for cautions, and white for advisories.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 122. Select the level of alert matching each description:Immediate awareness and response required. A) Warning B) Caution C) Advisory D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 123. Select the level of alert matching each description:Awareness required, subsequent response may be necessary. A) Advisory B) Warning C) Caution D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 124. Select the level of alert matching each description:Immediate awareness and later response required. A) Caution B) Warning C) Advisory D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 125. Select the level of alert matching each description:Amber or yellow alert lights, captions and messages. A) Caution B) Warning C) Advisory D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 126. Select the level of alert matching each description:Any colour except red, amber, yellow or green alert lights, captions and messages. A) Advisory B) Warning C) Caution D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 127. Select the level of alert matching each description:Red alert lights, captions and messages. A) Warning B) Caution C) Advisory D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 128. Select the level of alert matching each description:Continuous aural alert until the warning light is pressed. A) Warning B) Caution C) Advisory D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 129. Select the level of alert matching each description:Short aural alert. A) Caution B) Advisory C) Warning D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 130. Select the level of alert matching each description:No aural alert required. A) Advisory B) Caution C) Warning D) Instant

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 131. The following is an example of a warnings, cautions or advisory:Single hydraulic or electrical fault. A) Caution B) Warning C) Advisory

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 132. The following is an example of a warnings, cautions or advisory:Fire. A) Warning B) Caution C) Advisory

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 133. The following is an example of a warnings, cautions or advisory:Engine vibration. A) Advisory B) Warning C) Caution

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 134. The following is an example of a warnings, cautions or advisory:Unreliable airspeed. A) Warning B) Caution C) Advisory

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 135. The following is an example of a warnings, cautions or advisory:Cabin depressurisation. A) Warning B) Caution C) Advisory

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 136. The following is an example of a warnings, cautions or advisory:Slightly low oil pressure or hydraulic quantity. A) Advisory B) Warning C) Caution

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 137. The following is an example of a warnings, cautions or advisory:Engine failure. A) Caution B) Warning C) Advisory

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 138. Flight envelope protection (FEP) systems: A) Actively resist the aircraft leaving the normal flight envelope. B) Actively prevent the aircraft from exceeding any aerodynamic limit. C) Passively resist bank or roll exceeding set fixed values. D) Actively resist the aircraft approaching any safety margin.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 139. Typical FEP systems use the following inputs:Mark all correct answers. A) Airspeed/Mach No. B) AoA. C) Flap position. D) Slats position. E) Landing gear position. F) GNSS-derived ground speed. G) Vertical speed.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 140. Stall protection systems function by:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Autothrust turns on and engages, and TOGA power is set (Airbus). B) Pushing the control column forward to lower the pitch attitude (conventional aircraft and Boeing FBW). C) Limiting the AoA to a value a below the stall AoA (Airbus). D) Vibrating the control column to provide a sensory warning to the crew. E) Amber caution lights and verbal 'Angle of Attack' aural warning.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 141. Overspeed protection:Mark all correct answers. A) Airbus aircraft pitch up regardless of control input until the speed stabilises at the activation threshold. B) Prevents forward trimming when the air speed is excessive. It also ceases to trim automatically. C) Increases positive static stability, causing a pitch up with any further speed increase. D) Boeing aircraft uses A/T overspeed mode to reduce thrust as speed increases past VMO/MMO.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 142. Stall warning systems often incorporate a stall protection function. Such systems comprise:Mark all correct answers. A) A stick pusher (stall protection). B) A stall warning module (normally software). C) A flight warning system (FWS) interface. D) A stick shaker. E) A pitch input inverter.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 143. Aircraft manufacturers set the stall warning speed: A) A safe margin above the actual stalling speed of the aircraft. B) 10 kt above the speed at which the aircraft will stall. C) 10 kt below the speed at which the aircraft will stall. D) A safe margin below the actual stalling speed of the aircraft.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 144. Which of the following statements about stall protection systems is/are correct?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Some FBW aircraft automatically apply full thrust. B) Many conventional aircraft use a stick-pusher which physically moves the control column forward. C) FBW aircraft can use complex protection methods, such as angle of attack protection. D) The simplest form of stall protection is active pitch invasion. E) All aircraft over 5700 kg have stick-pushers.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 145. Which of the following statements about stall warning and protection is/are true? A) Stall warning systems simply provide warnings; stall protection systems actively resist the aircraft entering a stall. B) Stall protection systems are used on FBW aircraft whereas stall warning systems are used on conventional aircraft. C) Stall warning systems do not prevent a stall, whereas stall protection systems make stalling impossible. D) Stall warning systems always have stick pushers, whereas stall protection systems use advanced computer algorithms.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 146. Altitude alert systems warn of: A) The approach to, or departure from, the altitude set on the MCP. B) The approach to the altitude set in the FMC. C) Departure from the altitude set in the MCP, provided that no AP is engaged. D) Departure from the altitude set in the MCP, provided that no vertical mode is armed or engaged.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 147. Which of the following statements about take-off configuration warning systems, and the parameters monitored, is/are correct?Mark 3 correct answers. A) You can test the aircraft's configuration by pressing a test button. This does not trigger a warning, but instead displays a message. B) All parameters critical for a safe take-off are checked. C) If the aircraft is improperly configured, the configuration warning is activated when the thrust levers are moved forward of the normal range used for taxying. D) A configuration warning is cancelled by pressing the red attention-getter warning light on the glareshield. E) All parameters which may affect a safe take-off are checked.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 148. Depending on aircraft type, altitude alerts may comprise:Mark all correct answers. A) An audio tone. B) A box around the set altitude on the PFD altitude tape. C) A box around the current altitude on the PFD altitude tape. D) A box around the set altitude on the MCP.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 149. Identify which FEP functions are exclusive to FBW aircraft.Pitch Limitation. A) Fly-By-Wire Only B) All Systems

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 150. Identify which FEP functions are exclusive to FBW aircraft.Stall Protection. A) All Systems B) Fly-By-Wire Only

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 151. Identify which FEP functions are exclusive to FBW aircraft.Overspeed Protection. A) All Systems B) Fly-By-Wire Only

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 152. Identify which FEP functions are exclusive to FBW aircraft.Bank Limitation. A) Fly-By-Wire Only B) All Systems

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 153. Identify which FEP functions are exclusive to FBW aircraft.'G' Limitation. A) Fly-By-Wire Only B) All Systems

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 154. Stall warning systems __________. A) warn of the approach to the stall B) warn and protect from the stall

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 155. Stall warnings may comprise: aerodynamic buffet, warning lights, buzzers or messages, and a __________ __________. A) stick shaker B) stick pusher

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 156. Identify the true and false statements about overspeed warning.The overspeed warning on a conventional ASI is the VMO/MMO pointer. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 157. Identify the true and false statements about overspeed warning.The VMO/MMO pointer is a large red and white 'barber's pole' indicating the lower of VMO and MMO against the airspeed scale. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 158. Identify the true and false statements about overspeed warning.For large aircraft, an aural warning must be associated with the overspeed warning if a barber's pole is used. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 159. Identify the true and false statements about overspeed warning.For large EFIS aircraft, an aural warning associated with overspeed warning is required. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 160. Identify the true and false statements about overspeed warning.EFIS aircraft represent overspeed using a red and black, or red and white, 'barber's pole' on the speed tape at and above VMO/MMO. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 161. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:Pitch trim not in the normal range, or not in agreement with FMS or sensed CG. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 162. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:The flaps/slats not in the normal range for take-off. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 163. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:The flaps/slats are not in agreement with the setting in the FMS. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 164. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:The speedbrake is stowed. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 165. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:The park brake is set. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 166. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:The brakes are excessively worn. A) False B) True

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 167. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:Take-off speed is not set in the FMS. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 168. Depending on aircraft type, the following parameters cause a take-off configuration warning to activate:Any aircraft door is unsecured. A) True B) False

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 169. The computer of the autopilot system uses, among others, input signals from the: 1. ADC. 2. Attitude reference system. 3. ILS receiver. 4. Mode control panel. The combination of all of the correct statements is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 170. Consider the automatic landing or autoland of an aeroplane. Which of the following items usually has/have a more restrictive limitation compared to a normal, manual landing? 1. Headwind / crosswind. 2. Pressure altitude. 3. Runway contamination. Select an answer with all the correct statements.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 171. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the: 1. Difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high. 2. Rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high. 3. Temperature is low. 4. Pressure altitude is high. The combination of all the correct statements is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 172. The computer of the autopilot system uses, among others, input signals from the: 1. Attitude reference system. 2. Mode annunciator panel. 3. ADC. 4. Mode control panel. The combination of all the correct statements is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 173. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the aeroplane stabilization are: 1. Pitch attitude holding. 2. Indicated airspeed or Mach number holding. 3. Horizontal wing holding. 4. Displayed heading or inertial track holding. 5. VOR axis tracking. The combination of the correct statements is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 174. When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around: 1. The auto throttle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-Around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust. 2. The autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane. 3. The autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag. 4. The pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane. 5. The pilot retracts the landing Gear.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 175. A fail-operational hybrid landing system is fitted to an aircraft. What does this consist of?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 176. Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 177. A flight Director (FD) indicates a roll to the right. The pilot manually steers in the direction of the command. During the roll, the FD Indication:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 178. When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 179. What are the main inputs to the autopilot/autoflight?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 180. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between an armed mode and an engaged mode in an autopilot system?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 181. The autopilot is engaged with no modes selected. What is the autopilot providing?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 182. The autopilot is disengaged. What kind of warning will the flight crew get?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 183. Considering vertical modes of the flight guidance system. What is the appropriate description of the following two vertical modes? Vertical speed (V/S) Flight-Path Angle (FPA)

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 184. The flight director computer continuously:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 185. According to the CS 25 complete the folowing definition with the correct statement. Where the pilot has the ability to make inputs to the automatic pilot by movement of the normal control wheel, the corresponding mode is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 186. The guidance functions of an autopilot consist of:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 187. The guidance functions of an autopilot consist of:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 188. When can more than one autopilot be engaged at the same time in an aircraft?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 189. The autotrim function in a non-fly by wire aircraft:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 190. The AFDS will automatically disengage from the LNAV mode if:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 191. The pilot of a modern, large turbojet aeroplane sets the vertical speed mode of the autopilot to carry out a climb. What must he/she be particularly careful of?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 192. The Flight Mode Annunciator:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 193. An AOC supplies the autopilot with false speed information. What happens to the precision and stability of this autopilot?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 194. LOC ARMED lights up on the Flight Mode Annunciator. This means:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 195. What does the autopilot roll-out mode control do during an autoland?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 196. The Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) is displayed on the:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 197. In a heading capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 198. Mode 'Localizer ARM' active on Flight Director means:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 199. When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the cone of confusion over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 200. What is the purpose of the TCS (Touch Control Steering)?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 201. What happens if, during an automatic approach and landing, the radio altimeter fails?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 202. During cruise with full automation engaged and the autothrottle in speed mode. How is speed control achieved?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 203. You are the pilot flying of an aeroplane established on an ILS to perform an Autoland. Your aircraft is equipped with two autopilots, which are both engaged, and the Autoland capability of the aeroplane is fail operational. Passing 2000 ft ONE IRS fails, with the only technical consequence being a downgraded landing capability. Given the information below, what are the consequences of this failure and what should you do? Approach minima: 0 ft Alert height: 100 ft

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 204. The FLARE mode does not indicate during a CAT Ill approach. The pilot has the required visual references. In accordance with the regulations, how can the approach be completed?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 205. During a final approach, the flight director is engaged in the G/S mode (tracking the ILS Glide Slope). If the horizontal command bar is deviating upward, it means that:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 206. A flight control system ls fail-passive if, in the event of a failure:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 207. On an EFIS equipped aircraft, the FMA is typically located on the:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 208. Upon capturing the localizer, the amber/yellow/blue localizer (LOC) light on an ADI:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 209. On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 210. The flight guidance system has different modes. Considering the autopilot/flight director, which of the following describes one feature of the go-around mode? When selected, the go-around mode engages and the aeroplane climbs:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 211. Can an autopilot and flight director be active at the same time?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 212. Approaching top of descent, the destination aerodrome ATIS includes RVRs around 200 m, with Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) in force. The Commander's windscreen heat failed, with an annunciated alert, in the cruise. Does it affect the autoland?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 213. Flight Envelope Protection systems of an aircraft with conventional flight controls (non fly-by-wire) can include: 1. Stall protection. 2. Overbank protection. 3. Overspeed protection. 4. Overpitch protection.

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 214. The flight envelope protection system prevents the aircraft from exceeding the limits of the following parameters (among others): 1. N1 2. Angle of attack 3. Speed 4. Pitch attitude 5. Flight level The combination that of all correct statements is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 215. The Yaw Damper system: 1. Counters any wrong pilot action on the rudder pedals. 2. Counters Dutch roll. 3. Is active only when autopilot is engaged. The combination of all the correct statements is:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 216. An aeroplane has a yaw damper that is unserviceable, and by the MEL is restricted to fly only at or below FL170. What is the potential problem that the yaw damper is intended to prevent from happening at high altitudes?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 217. The Yaw Damper system is designed to increase the damping ratio of:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 218. A yaw damper:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 219. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim system:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 220. When the autopilot ls engaged, the role of the automatic pitch trim is to:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 221. You are flying an aircraft at FL350 with the autopilot engaged in VNAV and LNAV modes. What are the consequences of an auto-trim failure in these conditions?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 222. What is the green band/area on a pitch trim indicator?

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 223. The yaw damper system controls:

A-INST2-PT02.A.pdf | 224. How does the yaw damper detect dutch roll?