MET 01

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct (mark all correct answers)? A) Over the equator the tropopause is at about 16-18 km altitude. B) The troposphere contains almost all the water vapour and weather pertinent to aviation. C) The troposphere has the greatest horizontal variation of temperature, density, pressure and stability. D) Over the poles the tropopause is at about 8-10 km altitude.

2. Which of the following is a valid explanation for the lack of visible weather in the stratosphere? A) The isothermic or inversion conditions in the stratosphere create a physical barrier to further vertical development of cloud. B) The complete absence of water vapour in the stratosphere means that weather can't form. C) Very strong winds at the tropopause (jet streams) prevent clouds from rising higher. D) The relatively hot air of the stratosphere (heated by insolation) traps the relatively cold air of the troposphere.

3. Which of the following statements about the stratosphere is/are correct (mark all correct answers)? A) Flight in the stratosphere is desirable because there is less weather and less windshear. B) Flight in the stratosphere is desirable because engine efficiency is greater. C) Flight in the stratosphere is desirable because there is less weather. However, there is usually more turbulence. D) Flight in the stratosphere is undesirable, which is why aircraft tend to fly no higher than the tropopause.

4. The atmosphere comprises 78% __________, 21% __________ and 1% of other gases. A) nitrogen; oxygen B) oxygen; nitrogen C) carbon dioxide; oxygen D) nitrogen; carbon dioxide

5. The atmosphere is divided into layers according to how the __________ varies with height. A) temperature B) pressure C) density

6. The lapse rate within and between layers __________ constant and uniform. A) is not B) is C) may be

7. Up to a height of about 20 km, 1 of the 2 principal layers in the atmosphere is the __________ where temperature __________ with height. A) troposphere; decreases B) troposphere; increases C) tropopause; decreases D) tropopause; increases

8. Up to a height of about 20 km, 1 of the 2 principal layers in the atmosphere is the __________ where temperature __________ with height. A) stratosphere; is approximately constant B) stratosphere; increases C) stratopause; is approximately constant D) stratopause; decreases

9. In the troposphere the temperature lapse rate is approximately __________°C per 1000 ft. The average height of the tropopause is about __________ km. A) 2; 11 B) 3; 11 C) 2; 11000 D) 3;11 000

10. A stark temperature change between the major air masses causes the tropopause to change height rapidly. This mainly happens between the Hadley, Ferrel and Polar __________ and is known as a __________. A) cells; break or 'fold' B) cells; inversion C) jet streams; break or 'fold' D) surfaces; front

11. In the Siberian __________ the tropopause exists at about FL 220. A) winter B) summer C) spring

12. In the __________ over SE Asia, the tropopause can be as high as FL 600. A) summer B) winter C) spring

13. The atmospheric layer above the troposphere, where temperature is constant with height up to about __________ km, is called the __________. A) 20; stratosphere B) 50; stratosphere C) 20; stratopause D) 50; stratopause

14. At high altitudes a powerful oxidant called __________ must be removed from the cabin air. A) ozone B) cosmic radiation C) solar radiation

15. In the ISA, between 11 km and 20 km altitude, the temperature lapse rate is __________. A) isothermal B) exothermal C) endothermal D) isometric

16. The primary heat source for the atmosphere is: A) Terrestrial radiation from the Earth to the air. B) Incoming solar radiation. C) Cosmic radiation. D) Terrestrial radiation from the air to the Earth.

17. The strength of solar radiation is reduced by the atmosphere due to: A) Reflection. B) Scattering. C) Absorption D) Conduction. E) Convection. F) Repulsion.

18. The 'greenhouse effect' describes how: A) Energy is added to the atmosphere because water vapour, CO₂ and methane absorb long wave terrestrial radiation. B) Energy is added to the atmosphere because water vapour, CO₂ and methane absorb long wave solar radiation. C) Energy is trapped in the atmosphere because of the layer of ozone at the tropopause. D) Energy is added to the atmosphere because water vapour, CO₂ and methane allow more solar radiation to penetrate the atmosphere.

19. The wide variation of temperature lapse rates in the troposphere is primarily caused by: A) Changes in surface temperature and air mass movement. B) The reduction in air density with height. C) ISA conditions. D) Global warming.

20. The Earth's surface cools at night because: A) The earth continues to radiate heat so there is a net loss of energy. B) There is no incoming solar radiation. C) The atmospheric air is colder at night because there is no solar radiation. D) It radiates heat to the atmosphere and eventually out to space. E) It is windier at night.

21. Inversions can cause: A) Windshear. B) Turbulence. C) A low layer of poor visibility. D) Fog. E) High wind speeds. F) Large cumulus type clouds.

22. Air temperature is a measure of __________ energy. A) kinetic B) potential C) static

23. The primary mechanism for heat transfer within the atmosphere is __________ caused by the horizontal variation in air __________. A) air movement; density B) solar radiation; density C) diurnal variation; density D) air movement; volume E) solar radiation; volume F) diurnal variation; volume G) air movement; speed H) solar radiation; speed I) diurnal variation; speed

24. Solar radiation has a __________ wavelength than terrestrial radiation. A) shorter B) longer C) the same

25. The very lowest part of the atmosphere is in direct contact with the Earth's surface. It changes temperature from day to night by the process of __________. A) conduction B) convection C) advection D) radiation

26. The primary means of transferring energy vertically through the atmosphere is __________. A) convection B) conduction C) advection D) radiation

27. The horizontal transfer of energy in the atmosphere is called __________. A) advection B) convection C) conduction D) radiation

28. Turbulence __________ the transfer of heat energy between atmospheric layers. A) promotes B) restricts C) has no effect on

29. ____________________ is absorbed or released whenever water in the atmosphere changes its state (for example, from liquid to ice). A) Latent heat B) Kinetic energy C) Molecular energy D) Potential energy E) Latent energy

30. Isothermal layers and inversions __________ the vertical motion of the air. A) inhibit B) promote C) has no effect on

31. Identify the type of inversion with the appropriate descriptor:Common in high pressure areas, where the descending dry air warms faster than the static environmental air. A) Subsidence B) Frontal C) Friction Layer D) Valley

32. Identify the type of inversion with the appropriate descriptor:Warm less dense air flows up and over cooler, denser air. A) Frontal B) Subsidence C) Friction Layer D) Valley

33. Identify the type of inversion with the appropriate descriptor:Created by turbulent mixing modifying the surface layer lapse rate. A) Friction Layer B) Subsidence C) Frontal D) Valley

34. Identify the type of inversion with the appropriate descriptor:Formed at night when colder, denser air sinks, displacing warmer air aloft. A) Valley B) Subsidence C) Frontal D) Friction Layer

35. A battery-powered telemetry instrument carried into the atmosphere by a weather balloon which measures various atmospheric parameters and transmits them by radio to a ground receiver is called a __________. A) radiosonde B) radio satellite C) transponder D) meteosat

36. A line of equal temperature, or a region of constant temperature with height, is called an __________. A) isotherm B) isobar C) inversion

37. Which of the following statements about the horizontal motion of the air is/are correct? A) The horizontal pressure gradient is a pressure vector resulting from the difference in pressure along the horizontal plane. B) Near the Earth's surface, the horizontal pressure gradient creates a pressure gradient force which is directed from higher to lower pressure. C) The closer the isobar spacing, the greater the pressure gradient force and therefore the faster the windspeed. D) ‘Surface wind’ is the wind blowing at 1 m (3.3ft) agl.

38. Sea level __________ pressure is the result of the weight force of the mass of the atmosphere bearing down on it. A) static B) dynamic C) air

39. The SI unit of atmospheric pressure used in aviation is the _____. A) hectopascal (hPa) B) inches of mercury (inHg) C) millibar (mb) D) pounds per square inch (psi) E) I edited the question slightly

40. The US still uses the imperial unit __________ . A) inches of mercury (inHg) B) hectopascal (hPa) C) millibar (mb) D) pounds per square inch (psi)

41. The pressure measuring device which uses a flexible, partially evacuated metal capsule, is called an __________ barometer. A) anaeroid B) mercury C) barograph

42. Lines of equal (constant) pressure on a pressure map are called __________. A) isobars B) isotherm C) isographs

43. Identify this pressure feature by its description:A region where the atmospheric pressure at the surface is greater than its surrounding environment. A) Anticyclone B) Ridge C) Low Pressure D) Trough

44. Identify this pressure feature by its description:An extension of a high, characterised by a protrusion of isobars away from the centre of the high. A) Ridge B) Anticyclone C) Low Pressure D) Trough

45. Identify this pressure feature by its description:An area in which the atmospheric pressure is less than its surroundings. A) Low Pressure B) Anticyclone C) Ridge D) Trough

46. Identify this pressure feature by its description:An extension of a low, characterised by a protrusion of isobars away from the centre of the low. A) Trough B) Anticyclone C) Ridge D) Low Pressure

47. Pressure decreases with height at a __________ rate. A) decreasing B) constant C) increasing

48. __________ is the barometric pressure at an observation point, reduced to MSL using the observed temperature at the surface and assuming an isothermal layer from the point to MSL. A) QFF B) QNH C) QFE D) QDH

49. On traditional mean sea level pressure (MSLP) synoptic charts the plotted __________ use these values. A) isobars B) isohypse C) isphases D) isotherm

50. The geostrophic wind scale quantifies the relationship between isobar spacing and the __________ __________ __________. A) pressure gradient force. B) geostrophic gradient force. C) isobaric gradient force. D) geostrophic coriolis force.

51. Which of the following statements about density and pressure is/are correct. A) Density is proportional to pressure. As pressure increases, the density increases. B) Density is inversely proportional to temperature. As temperature increases, density decreases. C) Density decreases rapidly at lower levels and slowly at higher levels. D) Density decreases with height at an increasing rate.

52. Identify the correct statement relating density and moisture. A) The density of moist air is less than the density of dry air because water vapour has a lower mass than oxygen and nitrogen. B) The density of air doesn't depend on its moisture content, it depends only on its temperature. C) The density of moist air is greater than the density of dry air because water is heavier than air. D) In humid air, the heavier oxygen and nitrogen displaces the lighter water vapour.

53. Air density is approximately 50% of MSL at __________ 000 ft and 25% of MSL at __________ 000 ft. A) 22; 40 B) 40; 22 C) 30; 50 D) 10; 20

54. When air converges at high level and diverges at the surface: A) The mass of air in the column increases because the air can't leave the column as quickly at the bottom as it enters at the top. B) The mass of air in the column increases because the volume of air in the column becomes steadily greater. C) The mass of air in the column increases because the volume of air in the column becomes steadily greater. D) The mass of air heats as it descends, reducing its density and thus reducing the overall mass of the air column.

55. Which of the following statements about anticyclones is/are correct (mark all correct answers)? A) Warm anticyclones form because of high level convergence. B) Warm anticyclones generally form in the subtropical high pressure belt. C) Cold anticyclones form over the poles and over large continents in winter. D) Warm anticyclones produce warm surface temperatures which trigger cumulus formation. E) Cold anticyclones form because of divergence at the surface.

56. Air in a high pressure area (mark all correct answers): A) Compresses and warms as it descends. B) Inhibits the formation of clouds. C) Compresses and cools as it descends. D) Produces warm and sunny conditions in all seasons.

57. A trough line is marked as a black line on low level significant weather charts and surface pressure charts because: A) It signifies a line of convergence/convective weather which might otherwise not be apparent from the isobar pattern. B) It is a useful area for navigation thanks to the relatively calm, clear skies it produces. C) It signifies an area of abnormally high wind speeds. D) It isn't a sufficiently significant feature to warrant being drawn with isobars.

58. 3 principal types of high pressure zones occur at mid-latitudes: A) The cold temporary anticyclone, the warm high and the cold high. B) The cold temporary cyclone, the warm high and the cold high. C) Depressions, highs and anticyclones. D) Subsidence, convergence and cold highs over the seas.

59. High pressure regions on charts can be identified by: A) Widely spaced isobars whose values are decreasing with distance from the core. B) Closely spaced isobars whose values are decreasing with distance from the core. C) Isobars marked with light line weights (rather than the heavy line weights used for lows). D) Widely spaced isobars whose values are increasing with distance from the core.

60. High level __________ promotes subsidence (sinking air) air which then __________ near the surface. A) convergence; diverges B) convergence; converges C) divergence; diverges D) divergence; converges

61. Subsiding air warms at the DALR of 3°C per 1000 ft which is __________ than the average ELR. A) faster B) slower C) the same as

62. Subsiding air creates a column of relatively warmer air which decreases the average ELR and __________ atmospheric stability. This __________ cloud formation. A) increases; prevents B) increases; promotes C) decreases; prevents D) decreases; promotes

63. __________ anticyclones are large-scale patterns that are nearly stationary and which prevent the normal west to east flow. A) Blocking B) Cold C) Warm D) Intense

64. An omega block is an extreme version of a blocking high. This feature remains stationary __________ period. A) for a prolonged B) short, very intense

65. An elongated or extended region of relatively low atmospheric pressure, often associated with fronts is known as an isobaric __________. A) trough B) ridge

66. An isobaric trough results in __________ weather because there is pronounced surface __________. A) significant; convergence B) significant; divergence C) little; convergence D) little; divergence

67. The transition altitude for the day is 4500 ft. The QNH on this summer day is 1030 hPa. At the transition altitude you change the altimeter to the SPS. It now reads: A) 3990 ft B) FL 45. C) 3490 ft D) 5010 ft

68. What will the altimeter be indicating if the aircraft’s true altitude is 10 000 ft when the OAT is -30°C at a pressure altitude of 10 000 ft? A) 11 000 ft. B) 10 000 ft. C) 9000 ft. D) 12 000 ft.

69. Which of the following statements about altimeter indications errors is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) When flying from an area of high temperature to an area of low temperature the altimeter is likely to over-read. B) In a strong wind, an altimeter is likely to show an erroneously high altitude when flying over the top of a hill. C) An altimeter always shows an erroneously high altitude when flying over the tops of hills. D) When flying from an area of high temperature to an area of low temperature the altimeter is likely to under-read.

70. Identify the term from its definition:The barometric pressure at the aerodrome reference point/runway threshold. It is the altimeter setting to obtain height above the reference point/threshold. A) QFE B) QNH C) Height D) Altitude

71. Identify the term from its definition:The calculated barometric pressure at MSL, derived by observing the current pressure at an aerodrome and correcting for elevation using ISA. A) QNH B) QFE C) Altitude D) Height

72. Identify the term from its definition:The vertical distance above the ground. A) Height B) QFE C) QNH D) Altitude

73. Identify the term from its definition:The vertical distance above mean sea level. A) Altitude B) QFE C) QNH D) Height

74. A flight level is a __________ altitude expressed in hundreds of feet. A) pressure B) density

75. The vertical position of an aircraft at, or below, the transition altitude is normally expressed as a(n) __________. A) altitude B) flight level C) height

76. The vertical position of an aircraft at, or above, the transition level is normally expressed as a(n) __________ __________. A) flight level B) altitude C) height

77. When descending through the transition layer, vertical position is expressed a(n) __________. A) altitude B) flight level C) height

78. After climbing though the transition altitude vertical position is expressed as a(n) __________ __________. A) flight level B) altitude C) height

79. Cold air compacts isobaric pressure levels. The true vertical distance between each flight level __________. A) reduces B) increases C) stays the same

80. Cold air compacts isobaric pressure levels. The true distance between any given flight level and the surface __________. A) reduces B) increases C) stays the same

81. In warm air the true distance between flight levels __________. A) increases B) reduces C) stays the same

82. Flight towards an area of low temperature causes the indicated altitude to be __________ than the true altitude. This error is __________. A) higher; unsafe B) lower; unsafe C) higher; safe D) lower; safe

83. Which of the following statements is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) Cold air can hold less water vapour than warm air. B) Reducing the temperature of a parcel of air is likely to bring it closer to its dew point. C) Adding water vapour to a parcel of cold air is likely to bring it closer to its dew point. D) Reducing the temperature of a parcel of cold air will reduce its relative humidity (RH).

84. The temperature is +6°C the dewpoint is +3°C. (mark all correct answers) A) At 19:00 on a winter's evening this is likely to be a problem. B) 2 hours after dawn on a spring day this probably won't be a problem. C) The RH is less than 100%. D) The air is beyond its saturation point.

85. Which of these statements is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) Evaporation can occur only when the air is unsaturated. B) Condensation creates visible liquid water. C) Condensation cannot occur without condensation nuclei. D) Water vapour requires a surface for it to make the phase change to a liquid. E) Water below 0°C invariably freezes.

86. Which of the following statements is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) Latent heat is absorbed from the surroundings during melting. B) Latent heat is released to the surroundings during freezing. C) Nuclei are not necessary for sublimation, but they are required for deposition. D) Latent heat is absorbed from the surroundings during evaporation. E) Latent heat is released to the surroundings during condensation.

87. Supercooled condensation droplets will probably freeze: A) If they come into contact with a cold surface. B) If they are heated quickly. C) Once their temperature drops below -10°C. D) Never, once their temperature has fallen below about -45°C.

88. A percentage figure comparing the amount of water vapour actually present in the air and the maximum amount it can possibly hold is known as the __________; __________. A) relative; humidity B) relative; point C) dew; humidity D) dew; point

89. When a parcel of air contains the maximum amount of water vapour that is possible to hold at the current temperature and pressure (RH 100%) the air is said to be __________. A) saturated B) relatively full C) absolute

90. During the day, as the ambient temperature increases, the relative humidity __________. A) decreases B) increases C) stays the same

91. A parcel of air has been cooled to the point where its relative humidity is 100%, further cooling will result in __________. A) condensation B) evaporation C) sublimation D) freezing

92. Identify the terms from the definition:The phase change from water vapour to liquid water. A) Condensation B) Evaporation C) Sublimation D) Freezing

93. Identify the terms from the definition:The phase change from liquid water to water vapour. A) Evaporation B) Condensation C) Sublimation D) Freezing

94. Identify the terms from the definition:The phase change from solid ice to water vapour. A) Sublimation B) Condensation C) Evaporation D) Freezing

95. Identify the terms from the definition:The phase change of water from liquid to solid. A) Freezing B) Condensation C) Evaporation D) Sublimation

96. Liquid water existing at a temperature below its freezing point is said to be __________. A) supercooled B) ice C) chilled

97. Solar radiation helps to provide sufficient energy for __________. A) sublimation B) deposition C) sublimation and deposition

98. Which of the following statements is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) As unsaturated air rises, its relative humidity increases. As unsaturated air descends, its relative humidity decreases. B) Saturated air which is forced to rise eventually causes condensation. Latent heat is released to the air so it cools more slowly than unsaturated air. C) Saturated air which is forced to descend causes evaporation. Latent heat is absorbed from the air and so it warms more slowly than unsaturated air. D) Saturated air cools or warms at a variable amount. The average is 1.8°C per 1000 ft (0.6°C per 100 m). This is the saturated adiabatic lapse rate (SALR).

99. Unsaturated air compresses and warms when it is forced to __________. A) descend B) rise C) float

100. 3°/1000 ft is the __________. A) DALR B) SALR C) lapse rate

101. If the ELR is greater than both the DALR and SALR, then the atmosphere is __________. A) absolutely unstable B) absolutely stable C) conditionally stable D) unconditionally stable

102. If the ELR is less than both the DALR and SALR then the atmosphere is __________. A) absolutely stable B) absolutely unstable C) conditionally stable D) unconditionally stable

103. If the ELR lies between the DALR and SALR then the atmosphere is __________ stable. A) conditionally B) unconditionally C) absolutely D) completely

104. In stable atmospheric conditions, a rising parcel of air cools __________ than its surrounds. Because it's now colder than its surroundings, it will tend to __________. A) faster; rise further B) faster; sink back down C) slower; rise further D) slower; sink back down

105. In conditions of conditional stability, stability is determined by whether the air is saturated or not. If saturated, then the air is __________, if unsaturated (dry) then the air is __________. A) unstable; stable B) unstable; unstable C) stable; stable D) stable; unstable

106. When a parcel of displaced air has the same lapse rate as the ELR, the atmospheric conditions are __________. A) neutrally stable B) conditionally stable C) unconditionally stable D) absolutely stable

107. Assign the appropriate type of stability to the description of event:Warm air advection over a cooler surface. A) Increased stability. B) Increased instability. C) Absolute stability D) Lapse rate

108. Assign the appropriate type of stability to the description of event:Cold air advection over a warmer surface. A) Increased instability. B) Increased stability. C) Absolute stability D) Lapse rate

109. Assign the appropriate type of stability to the description of event:A strong atmospheric inversion. A) Absolute stability B) Increased stability. C) Increased instability. D) Lapse rate

110. Which of the following values corresponds to a NE-wind?

111. Which of the following statements are conditions that must be in place in order for mountain waves to form?

112. What is the interval over which the wind speed is reported for METARs and SPECIs?

113. The typical height of the vertical area affected by sea breeze in mid-latitudes is approximately:

114. Which of the following values corresponds to a SW-wind?

115. What is the approximate height of the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?

116. In which of the following circumstances would the formation of a low-level jet stream in the evening be most likely?

117. The wind which results from warming on the side of a mountain valley is known as:

118. In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows:

119. When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface wind to:

120. In relation to the wind speed and direction at the top of the friction layer, which change in wind will a pilot normally experience during descent to the surface over land in the northern hemisphere?

121. An 'ANABATIC' wind is a wind which:

122. In a land and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:

123. Up to which flight level could the effects of mountain waves be expected to be encountered?

124. Convergence over a uniform surface is caused by:

125. A 'sea breeze' blows:

126. The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being the same):

127. In cases of the venturi effect, the actual altitude of the aircraft is lower than the indicated altitude.

128. When flying in mountainous terrain and assuming ISA temperatures and strong winds, which of the following is correct?

129. Which of the following is true of a 'land breeze'?

130. What is “Surface wind”?

131. Which type wind flows down slope becoming warmer and drier?

132. The wind which results from air cooling on the side of a mountain valley is known as:

133. In the proximity of the polar jet stream, where do wind shear and clear air turbulence (CAT) occur?

134. The most frequent wind direction in a valley near the ground, caused by thermal effects is towards the:

135. CAT can be described as turbulence:

136. The ‘sea breeze’ is a wind from the sea:

137. The 'sea breeze' is a wind from the sea:

138. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?

139. Mountain waves should be expected:

140. A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be regarded as:

141. The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on:

142. Conditions most favourable for the formation of a low-level frictional turbulence are:

143. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:

144. With regard to temperature, which of the following is correct for the polar climates?

145. The location of which jet stream is largely dependent on the position of weather fronts?

146. You are on an approach to an airfield, descending through the friction layer. The wind changes from a headwind to a slight right crosswind.

147. How far and how high up can mountain waves reach originating from the Rocky Mountains (USA)?

148. What is correct regarding an anabatic wind? It can be described as a wind that blows:

149. At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind

150. It is the early afternoon on a sunny day in summer, and you are flying over the west coast of the Netherlands. If there is a non-frontal environment with a slack pressure gradient, the wind direction at the surface is likely to be:

151. What is the temperature at 20 000 ft in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

152. If you are flying at FL300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?

153. What is the ISA temperature value at FL330?

154. Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:

155. A temperature of 15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?

156. If you are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is 10 °C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?

157. In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is:

158. Which of these statements about the tropopause are correct or incorrect? 1– In the real atmosphere the tropopause is a continuous surface. 2– The height of the tropopause in the ISA is 11 km.

159. An outside air temperature of -35 °C is measured while cruising at FL200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?

160. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15 000 ft AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15°C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?

161. In the ICAO standard atmosphere, which of the following alternatives indicates the correct vertical temperature distribution in the lowest 11 km?

162. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?

163. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of:

164. Given: Pressure altitude: 3000 ft indicated altitude: 2500 ft Temperature : ISA +21°C What is the true altitude?

165. Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60°N during the winter, the mean height of the Tropopause is approximately:

166. In a region where the transition altitude is 3000 feet, the QNH is reported as 980 hPa. What is the approximate reading expected on the altimeter when the pilot changes the subscale setting during a climb through the transition altitude? (Assume 27 ft per 1 hPa)

167. In relation to the total mass of the atmosphere, the mass of the atmosphere between mean sea level and a height of 5500 m is:

168. Which of the following combinations of pressure and temperature is correct in the ICAO standard atmosphere?

169. Transition level: FL190 Transition altitude: 18 000 ft Airfield elevation: 323 ft QNH 1023 hPa A flight crew who faces an emergency at cruise level decides to turn back to the departure aerodrome. Due to the dynamic situation, the crew forgets to set local QNH. What will be the altitude after landing? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 ft).

170. Which of the following instruments can be used for measuring the atmospheric humidity: 1. A hygrometer. 2. A pair of wet and dry thermometers. 3. A psychrometer.

171. Define a 'HIGH.

172. Define a 'LOW'

173. As altitude increases, the weight of the atmosphere above you will:

174. You are planning an IFR flight eastbound and find that the highest obstacle along the route has an elevation of 5400 ft. The ISA deviation is -20°C and QNH 990. What is the lowest usable flight level on this flight?

175. An operator wants to fly a new route over a mountainous area with the highest nearby obstacle at 12 500 ft. According to a historical report, the average temperature in the region is ISA -25°C. The QNH is 980 hPa, from a station at sea level. What is the lowest usable flight level the operator can select with a clearance margin of 2000 ft?

176. Which FL corresponds with the 500 hPa pressure level?

177. The observed temperature at the surface (sea level) is +11°C. This can be described as:

178. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?

179. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the temperature at the tropopause?

180. Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

181. Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

182. When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:

183. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10 °C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?

184. The troposphere is the:

185. A polar low is a:

186. The region of the atmosphere which is normally stable and has few clouds is known as the:

187. Choose the correct statement regarding the transfer of heat in the atmosphere:

188. Although the large-scale structure of atmospheric circulation varies from year to year (e.g. El Niño/La Niña events), the basic structure remains fairly constant because it is determined by:

189. An aircraft flies from London to South France and experiences a strong wind from the left. Which of the following is correct?