PERF 03

1. The Class A take-off path extends from a standing start to a point in the take-off at which the aeroplane is__________ ft above the take-off surface.

2. The slope of the airborne part of the Class A take-off path must be __________ at each point. A) positive B) not less than horizontal

3. Regarding the net take-off flight path of a class A aircraft certified under CS25, below __________ ft there must be no change in thrust or configuration, except gear retraction and automatic propeller feathering

4. V2 must be achieved no later than the screen height of __________ ft.

5. The speed at which an engine fails, in time to be recognised by V1 is known as __________. A) VEF B) VE C) V2 D) V1

6. The maximum speed during the take-off at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g. apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the aeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance. This is a description of: A) V1 B) V2 C) VR D) VEF

7. The minimum speed during the take-off, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required height above the take-off surface within the take-off distance.This is a description of: A) V1 B) V2 C) V3 D) VR

8. VR is the speed: A) At which the PF applies pressure on the control column to raise the nose wheel off the ground. B) By which the aircraft's nose wheel must have lifted off the ground. C) By which the aircraft must have rotated. D) By which the aircraft's main wheels must be about to lift off the ground.

9. The important speeds during take-off, in ascending order, are: A) VEF < V1 ≤ VR < VLOF < V2 B) V1 < VEF < VR < VLOF < V2 C) VEF < VR < V1 < VLOF <V2 D) V1 < V2 < VR < VLOF

10. VMAX TYRE, must be __________ than VLOF. A) equal to or faster B) equal to or slower

11. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) High speed rejected take-offs sometimes result in tyre bursts or brake fires. B) V1 assumes that you make the decision to reject the take off promptly. C) V1 includes a reaction time allowance of 4 seconds for you to make the decision to reject the take off. D) If you carry out all RTO actions correctly at V1, the aircraft will always stop within the runway distance remaining.

12. Which of the following statements about a range of V1 speeds is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) For a range of V1 speeds to exist, your actual mass must be less than the RTOM. B) Use a higher V1 when you need to retain the option to reject the take-off for as long as possible. C) Use a higher V1 when the runway overrun is hazardous and the consequences would be very dangerous. D) For a range of V1 speeds to exist, your actual mass must be more than the RTOM.

13. The minimum control speed on or near ground is known as __________. A) VMCG B) VMC C) VEF D) V1

14. Which of the following are valid consequences of an incorrectly calculated V1? A) An incorrectly calculated V1 which is too high should give you sufficient TODA to continue but there may be insufficient ASDA for a rejected take-off. B) An incorrectly calculated V1 which is too low may mean that there is insufficient ASDA to continue, but sufficient TODA for a rejected take-off. C) An incorrectly calculated V1 which is too high may mean that there is insufficient TODA to continue, but sufficient ASDA for a rejected take-off. D) An incorrectly calculated V1 which is too low should give you sufficient TODA to continue, and sufficient ASDA for a rejected take-off but a reduced RTOM.

15. VR has a safety margin of:Mark 2 correct answer(s). A) At least 5% above VMC. B) Almost 10% above the stall. C) Almost 10% above VMC. D) 5% above the stall.

16. VR is __________ by air density. A) indirectly affected B) not affected

17. In high air density conditions, VR is limited by __________. A) VMC B) V1 C) VLOF D) VEFD

18. In low air density conditions VR may be limited by __________. A) VMU B) VEF C) VFR D) VMV

19. V2 must be: Mark 2 correct answers. A) Not be less than V2MIN (which allows a sufficient margin above VMC and the stall). B) Not be less than VR plus the speed increment attained between VLOF and 35 ft. C) Not be more than V2MIN. D) Not be more than VMCG.

20. Normally, for a twin engined aircraft, V2MIN may not be less than __________ x VMCA, and __________ x VSR A) 1.1; 1.13. B) 1.1; 1.1. C) 1.13; 1.13. D) 1.13; 1.1.

21. V2MIN is more likely to be limited by __________ at cold, low altitude airports and by __________ at hot, high altitude airports. A) VMC; VSR B) VMC; VMC C) VSR; VSR D) VSR; VMC

22. Extending flaps or reducing aircraft mass __________ the stall reference speed. A) decreases B) increases C) has no effect

23. The lowest CAS at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain directional control and straight flight with an angle of bank of not more than 5°.This is a definition of: A) VMC B) VMCG C) V2 D) V2MIN

24. The engine thrust and therefore the yawing moment are __________ when the air is dense. Consequently, VMC __________ with decreasing air density. A) greatest; decreases B) greatest; increases C) least; increases D) least; decreases

25. The minimum control speed for the take-off climb is: A) VMCA B) VMCG C) VMU D) V2MIN

26. Which of the following statements about the stall reference speed is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) VSR1 is the stall reference speed in a specified configuration. B) Extending flap reduces VSR1. C) Extending flap increases VSR1. D) VSR1 is the stall reference speed for the clean (flaps up) configuration.

27. The critical engine is the engine that, upon failing, results in thrust from the remaining engine(s) producing the __________ yawing moment. A) greatest B) least

28. The critical engine of a propeller-driven aeroplane is the engine whose propeller P-factor results in the __________ moment arm from the thrust line to the CG. A) longest B) shortest

29. The Class A performance calculations: A) Must take account of performance degradation in icing conditions when icing conditions are present. B) Assume no degradation of performance due to icing conditions.

30. The take-off flight path: A) Begins at 35 ft above the take-off surface at the end of the take-off distance. B) Begins at lift-off. C) Begins at the end of the runway. D) Begins at the start of the take-off roll.

31. When a manufacturer determines the demonstrated take-off performance for a new aircraft it must:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Demonstrate performance for each weight, altitude, and ambient temperature within the aeroplane’s operational limits. B) Demonstrate performance with the most unfavourable CG position for each configuration. C) Demonstrate performance with the CG position most representative of that configuration. D) Demonstrate performance at the 2 extremes of weight, altitude, and ambient temperature which define the boundaries of the aeroplane’s operational limits.

32. An unplanned-for increased take-off run and take-off distance and unsafe separation from obstacles could result from:Mark all correct answers. A) Rotating too slowly. B) Rotating at the correct rate but stopping short of the required pitch angle for the climb. C) Rotating late. D) Pitching too quickly during rotate.

33. If you rotate too quickly:Mark all correct answers. A) There is a risk of a tailstrike. B) Lift off may be too slow and may be insufficiently above VMCA and VMU for safe flight. C) The aircraft may not lift off. D) And succeed in getting airborne, there may be reduced margins above VMCA and the stall reference speed. E) The aeroplane will climb shallower than the planned angle. F) The aeroplane will climb steeper than the planned angle.

34. The screen height, for a class A aircraft, for take-off from a dry runway is __________ ft.

35. The screen height for take-off from a wet runway is __________ ft.

36. The commercial operations safety factor is __________% for the all-engine take-off distance requirement.

37. The purpose of V1 WET is to: A) Prevent an excessively restricted RLTOM. B) Increase the safety margins when the runway is wet. C) Compel the operator to reduce the take-off mass. D) Increase obstacle clearance in poor weather conditions.

38. The take-off distance required on a dry runway is the greater of TODN-1dry and __________ x TODN dry.

39. The TODR for a wet runway is the __________ of TODdry and TODN-1wet. A) greater B) lesser C) same as

40. The accelerate-stop distance on a dry runway is the __________ of the all-engine ASD and critical-engine-out ASD (ASDN-1). A) greater B) lesser C) same as

41. V1WET is __________ than V1 because of the reduced ability to __________ on the runway. A) lower; decelerate B) lower; accelerate C) higher; accelerate D) higher; decelerate

42. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The ASDR for a wet runway is the greater of ASD dry and ASDN and ASDN-1 for a dry runway. B) The factoring applied to take account of loss of TORA during alignment lengthens the ASDR. C) If an engine fails early in the take-off run, then the ASD will be shorter than the planned ASDR. D) If an engine fails close to V1 on a wet runway, the ASD will be longer than the ASD when rejecting a take-off with all engines operating. E) The factoring applied to take account of loss of TORA during alignment shortens the ASDA.

43. Which of the following assumptions are made, and distances summed, to calculate ASD N-1?Mark all correct answers. A) Accelerate the aircraft from a standing start with all engines operating to VEF for take-off from a dry runway. B) Allow the aircraft to accelerate from VEF to the highest speed reached during the rejected take-off. C) The pilot takes the first action to reject the take-off at the V1 from a dry runway. D) Come to a full stop without using reverse thrust on a dry runway from the highest speed reached. E) Add a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at the V1 speed. F) At V1 allow a distance equivalent to a time of 2 seconds for the pilot to initiate the RTO.

44. Which of the following assumptions are made, and distances summed, to calculate ASD N?Mark all correct answers. A) Accelerate the aircraft from a standing start with all engines operating to the highest speed reached during the rejected take-off. B) Assume that the pilot takes the first action to reject the take-off at the V1 for take-off from a dry runway. C) Come to a full stop on a dry runway. D) Add a distance equivalent to 2 seconds at the VEF speed.

45. Which of the following systems are used to minimise the stopping distance during a rejected take-off (if available)?Mark all correct answers. A) Reverse thrust. B) Auto braking. C) Spoilers. D) Anti-skid off (on a dry runway only).

46. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) If there is stop-way available, the RLTOM can be increased, provided that the V1 is increased. B) If there is clearway available, the RLTOM can be increased provided that the V1 is decreased. C) Unbalancing a field allows you to increase or decrease V1 to stay within other limiting speeds such as VMCG and VMBE. D) Balanced V1 is the speed corresponding to maximum TOM when the ASDR and TODR are balanced. E) A balanced field optimises the TOD for the distance available. F) In a balanced field, the ASDA equals the TORA.

47. Which of the following are valid factors affecting the FLLTOM?Mark all correct answers. A) The configuration of the aeroplane. B) The pressure altitude of the aerodrome. C) The ambient temperature at the aerodrome. D) The runway’s surface conditions. E) The runway’s slope.

48. __________ the amount of take-off flap increases RLTOM and __________ the climb (and obstacle) limited masses. A) increasing; reduces B) increasing; increases C) reducing; reduces D) reducing; increases

49. Which of the following are considered when determining the PLTOM?Mark 3 correct answers. A) RLTOM B) CLTOM C) Tyre Limited Mass. D) Obstacle Limited Take-off Mass (OLTOM). E) VMBE

50. The __________ is the lowest of the performance limited and structurally limited take-off masses. A) RTOM B) PLTOM

51. The maximum CAS at which the brakes can absorb all the energy from a take-off rejected at V1 is the v-speed known as __________. A) VMBE B) VTYRE C) V1Max

52. The maximum CAS at which the brakes can absorb all the energy from a take-off rejected at V1 is the v-speed known as VMBE.It must be __________. A) equal to or greater than V1 B) less than V1 C) greater than V1

53. Your take-off mass is most likely to be climb-limited at an airport with a __________ density altitude. A) high B) low

54. If you rotate too early: A) The take-off run and take-off distance increases. B) The take-off run reduces but the take-off distance increases. C) The take-off distance reduces but the take-off run increases.

55. Given: airfield pressure altitude of 4000 ft, temperature +37°C, field length available 5500 ft, 1% downslope, 10 kt tailwind, and Flaps 15° find the field length limiting mass. A) 42 400 kg. B) 42 000 kg. C) 50 000 kg. D) 47 000 kg.

56. Find the climb limited take-off mass for an airfield at a pressure altitude of 4000 ft, with an OAT of +37°C, when using Flaps 15°. A) 48 200 kg. B) 52 200 kg. C) 50 000 kg. D) 54 200 kg.

57. At what TOM would 225 mph tyres become limiting, at Flaps 15°, at an airfield pressure altitude of 4000 ft, an OAT of +37°C and 10 kt tailwind component? A) 70 450 kg. B) 73 600 kg. C) 80 200 kg. D) 79 550 kg.

58. Study the table. What is the maximum permissible take-off mass, and at what flap setting? [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 11. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 57 000 kg at Flap 15. B) 60 100 kg at Flap 5. C) 55 500 kg at Flap 5. D) 59 200 kg at Flap 10.

59. The RLTOM for flap 5°, 10° and 15° are 122 000 kg, 125 000 kg and 128 000 kg respectively. The CLTOM for Flap 5°, 10° and 15° are 132 000 kg, 130 000 kg and 128 000 kg respectively. Given a 10 kt tailwind (reduce by 600 kg per kt), what is the maximum take-off mass and at which flap setting? A) 122 000 kg/ Flap 15 B) 128 000 kg/ Flap 15 C) 131 000 kg/ Flap 10 D) 122 000 kg/ Flap 5

60. Given the following conditions, find VMBE.Pressure altitude 4000 ft. OAT +37°C, brake release mass 68 tons, 10 kt headwind, 1% downslope. A) 149 kt B) 151 kt C) 153 kt D) 152 kt

61. Refer to CAP 698 Section 4. What are the V speeds for the MRJT for a TOM of 50 000 kg, Flaps 5°, at a 4000 ft pressure altitude and OAT of +37°C, 15 kt tailwind, no runway slope? A) V1 128 kt VR 134 kt V2 141 kt. B) V1 132 kt VR 134 kt V2 141 kt. C) V1 130 kt VR 132 kt V2 142 kt. D) V1 126 kt VR 128 kt V2 138 kt.

62. What is the greatest mass that an MRJT can be, at the most critical point on the flight for obstacle clearance, if the OAT is ISA, with no icing conditions forecast and the highest obstacle within 5 nm either side of the planned track to the alternate aerodrome is 14 000 ft? A) 58 200 kg. B) 60 000 kg. C) 56 200 kg. D) 49 800 kg.

63. The NTOFP, determined from the data provided in the AFM, must clear all relevant obstacles by a vertical distance of 35 ft and by a horizontal distance of at least __________ m (for a wingspan exceeding 60 m) plus __________ x D A) 90; 0.125. B) 90; 1.25 C) 90; 12.5 D) 60; 0.125. E) 60; 1.25 F) 60; 12.5

64. Which of the following statements about the segments of the NTOFP is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The 1st segment ends when the gear is fully retracted. B) The 3rd segment begins when the aeroplane levels off to accelerate and retract flap. C) The 4th segment begins when the aeroplane is clean and has reached the final segment speed. D) The minimum height for the 3rd segment is 1500 ft. E) The 1st segment ends at 35 ft.

65. Gross gradients are reduced by safety factors of __________ % for 2-engined aeroplanes; __________ % for 3-engined aeroplanes; and __________ % for 4-engined aeroplanes. A) 0.8; 0.9; 1.0. B) 1.0; 1.1; 1.2. C) 0.8; 1.0; 1.2. D) 0.7; 08; 0.9.

66. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Climb performance must be demonstrated for each weight, altitude, and ambient temperature within the operational limits established for the aeroplane. B) Climb performance must be demonstrated with the most unfavourable centre of gravity for each configuration. C) Aircraft configuration, wind and pressure altitude can have an adverse effect on climb performance and thus obstacle clearance. D) The obstacle clearance limit can limit the aeroplane's maximum TOM.

67. Refer to the RTOM table provided. What are the V speeds and RTOM for Runway 23L at airport 'VB', using the T/O 1 configuration. QNH 1003, OAT +37°C, 10 kt tailwind, no runway slope, Packs on? [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 13. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 72 170 kg, V1 is 137 kt, VR is 138 kt, V2 is 143 kt. B) 73 100 kg, V1 is 137 kt, VR is 138 kt, V2 is 143 kt. C) 72 170 kg, V1 is 139 kt, VR is 139 kt, V2 is 143 kt. D) 72 170 kg, V1 is 138 kt, VR is 138 kt, V2 is 142 kt.

68. The MSLM is the most restrictive (lowest) of:Mark 3 correct answers. A) The climb limited landing mass. B) The runway limited landing mass. C) The structural maximum landing mass. D) The maximum ramp mass. E) The maximum zero fuel mass.

69. Which of these statements about flex thrust is/are true?Mark 2 correct answers. A) A reduced thrust take-off (flex) is achieved by entering into the FMC an assumed temperature that is higher than the ambient temperature. B) After the assumed temperature has been entered by the crew, the FMC reduces the maximum thrust set for take-off (N1 or EPR) accordingly. C) A reduced thrust take-off (flex) is achieved by entering into the FMC an assumed temperature that is lower than the ambient temperature. D) When the FMC is using an assumed temperature, maximum thrust cannot be set during take-off.

70. Which of these statements about de-rate is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) De-rate is a permanent (for that flight) reduction in the maximum thrust available from the engines. B) The maximum thrust limit imposed by de-rate can't be overridden during flight. C) Using flex or de-rate improves engine life and reduces engine maintenance costs. D) De-rate and flex both increase the TOD for given conditions.

71. A flex thrust take-off is not permitted:Mark all correct answers. A) On icy or very slippery runways. B) On contaminated runways. C) When the anti-skid is unserviceable. D) When reverse thrust is unserviceable. E) In conjunction with an increased V2 procedure.

72. Runway contamination:Mark all correct answers. A) Impairs acceleration on take-off. B) Can impair deceleration on landing. C) Can cause directional control problems. D) Prevents the use of de-rate.

73. Which of these statements about de-rate and flex thrust is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The advantage of using de-rate on a contaminated runway is a lower V1 speed which decreases your stopping distance in the event of a rejected take-off, then compared to the non de-rate case B) The disadvantage of using de-rate is that you have less thrust to counter impingement drag. C) flex thrust reduces the thrust available on take-off - though it can be overridden. D) De-rate results in lower minimum control speeds, allowing slower V1, VR and V2MIN speeds and a higher VMCG limited mass.

74. The increased V2 procedure (improved climb technique) improves a climb limited take-off mass by increasing V1, VR and V2.Using this procedure __________ weights exceeding Vtyres. A) does not permit B) permits

75. The increased V2 technique may be used when the runway length limiting mass __________ the climb or the obstacle limiting mass and the climb or obstacle mass is limiting the take-off mass. A) exceeds B) is less than C) is the same as

76. If the anti-skid is inoperative: Mark 2 correct answers. A) Braking effectiveness is reduced considerably. B) Maximum mass for a given runway length will be restricted for take-off and landing. C) Landing on a wet runway is prohibited. D) The reverse thrust system must be used during landing.

77. A runway is deemed to be contaminated when more than __________% of the runway surface area is covered by greater than __________ mm of water or its equivalent depth in slush or loose snow, or compacted snow or ice. A) 25; 3 B) 50; 3 C) 25; 5 D) 35; 3

78. A __________ runway is a runway in which the surface is covered with water, or equivalent, but less than that of a contaminated runway. A) wet B) damp

79. Good, medium to good, medium to poor' or 'poor' are descriptions used for __________ surface friction. A) estimated B) measured

80. A measured surface friction value of __________ equates to 'good'. Any value less than __________ equates to 'poor'. A) 0.4; 0.25 B) 0.4; 0.5 C) 0.5; 0.25 D) 0.5; 0.5

81. If wind limitations apply in case of contaminated runways, these limitations are to be found in: A) Part B of the Operations Manual — Limitations. B) Part B of the Operations Manual — Normal Procedures. C) Part B of the Operations Manual — Performance.

82. The procedures associated with take-off and landing on contaminated runways are to be found in: A) Part B of the Operations Manual — Normal Procedures. B) Part B of the Operations Manual — Limitations C) Part B of the Operations Manual — Performance.

83. The performance associated with contaminated runways is to be found in: A) Part B of the Operations Manual — Performance. B) Part B of the Operations Manual — Normal Procedures. C) Part B of the Operations Manual — Limitations

84. __________ hydroplaning occurs when the contamination under the tyres is not displaced fast enough to allow the tyre to make contact with the runway surface over its total footprint area. A) Dynamic B) Viscous C) Reverted Rubber D) Contaminated

85. __________ hydroplaning can result from an excessive build-up of rubber on the runway surface. The tyres hydroplane on the partially melted rubber lying on the runway surface. A) Viscous B) Reverted Rubber C) Dynamic D) Contaminated

86. __________ hydroplaning occurs when a wheel locks on a damp or wet runway. The superheated tyre generates high-pressure steam. This causes the surface rubber to revert to its uncured state, resulting in a hot fluid layer building up between the tyre and the runway surface. A) Reverted Rubber B) Viscous C) Dynamic D) Contaminated

87. The minimum dynamic hydroplaning speed for a rotating tyre is __________ √ P. For a locked-up tyre it is __________ √ P. A) 9; 7.7 B) 9.7; 7.7 C) 9.7; 7 D) 9; 7

88. The minimum dynamic hydroplaning speed for a rotating tyre is 9√ P. For a locked-up tyre it is 7.7 √ P.The higher value is most likely to be the most limiting __________. The lower value may be limiting __________. A) on take-off; during landing before wheel spin-up. B) on take-off; on take-off. C) during an RTO; during an RTO. D) during an RTO; on take-off.

89. Which of these statements is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) Software programmes installed on an EFB can be used to find the limiting masses for given conditions. B) EFB data can differ slightly from tabled data because the electronic databases contained in EFB software programmes contain greater data granularity. C) EFB is the term used to describe performance planning software. D) EFB data can usually be inserted directly into the FMC.

90. The optimum altitude __________ as aircraft mass reduces. A) increases. B) reduces. C) remains constant.

91. Flight at altitudes higher or lower than the optimum: A) May be beneficial if there is a more favourable wind at that altitude. B) May be beneficial if there is a more favourable temperature at that altitude. C) Invariably results in reduced maximum range. D) Has no effect on fuel flow.

92. Which of the following statements about high speed buffet is/are correct?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Flight at the optimum altitude may be impracticable due to the onset of high speed buffet. B) The buffet onset speed increases with reducing mass. C) High speed buffet onset depends on altitude, aircraft mass, CG position, and load factor. D) High speed buffet is caused by a turbulent and/or separated boundary layer. E) The buffet onset speed increases with bank angle. F) MMO is set to ensure that you don't encounter high-speed buffet.

93. When the aircraft descends, the margin between the high and low speed buffet progressively __________. A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains constant.

94. If your aeroplane can achieve a positive net gradient with one engine inoperative, then your minimum obstacle clearance is __________ ft within 5 nm of your intended track (provided you have sufficient navigation accuracy).

95. If your aeroplane can’t climb with one engine inoperative, then your minimum obstacle clearance is __________ ft within 5 nm of your intended track (provided you have sufficient navigation accuracy).

96. If the aeroplane’s navigational accuracy doesn’t meet the 95% containment requirement, then you must increase the margin either side of your intended track to __________ nm

97. The aeroplane must be able to have some climb performance (a positive gradient) by the time it reaches __________ ft above the intended landing aerodrome.

98. The optimum speed during drift-down is VMD or LRC depending on the circumstances. The optimum drift-down speed __________ with a reduction in the aeroplane's mass. A) reduces. B) increases. C) remains constant.

99. During driftdown, your rate of descent increases if you fly at any speed __________ the best L/D ratio. A) above or below B) below but not above C) above but not below

100. Which of these factors affect the net drift-down flight path:Mark all correct answers. A) Altitude: at high altitude the descent gradient is steeper. B) Temperature: high temperature reduces thrust increasing the descent gradient. C) Wind. A headwind increases the flight path gradient, a tailwind reduces it. D) Configuration: extending T/O flap reduces the decent gradient.

101. Using the BOB chart, determine the Mach number for the onset of high speed buffet aircraft with a mass of 60 tons, at FL 330, with CG at 10% MAC at 1.3 g. Note: 1 Imperial ton is approximately 1000 kg. A) 0.75 M B) 0.76 M C) 0.74 M D) 0.68 M

102. Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.25. An aircraft with a mass of 55 tons descends from FL 340 having suffered an engine failure. There is a 30 kt tailwind. Anti-ice is not required. The OAT is ISA -15ºC. What is the horizontal distance covered, the time taken and the fuel burned, to descend to 20 000 ft ?Note: 1 Imperial ton is approximately 1000 kg. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 144 nm; 24 min; 750 kg B) 120 nm; 25 min; 500 kg C) 144 sm; 24 min; 1000 kg D) 150 nm; 20 min; 400 kg E) 148 nm; 19 min; 750 kg

103. An increasing headwind during the descent __________ your descent profile. To descend at your intended rate, you need to __________ thrust. A) steepens; add. B) steepens; reduce. C) shallows; add. D) shallows; reduce.

104. Which of the following are valid factors affecting the length of the landing run?Mark all correct answers. A) Reverse Thrust. B) Anti-Skid. C) Ground Spoilers and/or lift dumpers. D) Auto-braking. E) Hydroplaning. F) Touchdown speed. G) Late touchdown.

105. Hot/high conditions __________ the maximum permissible landing mass. A) reduce. B) increase. C) has no effect.

106. For a 2-engined aircraft, the limiting mass for the approach climb is the maximum mass at which a gradient of __________ can be achieved.

107. Which of the following are the underlying assumptions for calculating the approach climb gradient?Mark all correct answers. A) The critical engine inoperative and the remaining engines at TOGA. B) The normal approach speed but no greater than 1.4 VSR. C) Landing gear retracted. D) Expected air density for the aerodrome altitude and ambient temperature expected at the time of landing. E) The aeroplane in the landing configuration.

108. When an aircraft manufacturer applies for approval for an aircraft type, it must demonstrate the type’s landing performance over the course of __________ landings in standard temperatures, at each weight, altitude and wind within the operational limits of the aeroplane.

109. The limiting mass for the landing climb is the maximum mass at which a gradient of __________% can be achieved.

110. Which of the following are the underlying assumptions for calculating the landing climb gradient?Mark all correct answers. A) All engines operating at the power available after 8 seconds from the initiation of movement of the thrust control from the minimum flight idle position to the TOGA position. B) The aircraft in the landing configuration. C) The landing gear is extended. D) Expected air density for the aerodrome altitude and ambient temperature expected at the time of landing. E) A VREF climb speed not less than 1.23 VSR0 (or VMCL).

111. The landing mass for the estimated time of landing must allow a full stop landing from __________ ft above the threshold.

112. If the runway is forecast to be wet at the estimated time of arrival, the landing distance must be increased by __________% unless a lower factor is specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual.

113. Turbojet aeroplanes, landing on a dry runway must plan to land within __________% of the LDA.

114. Turbo-propeller aeroplanes, landing on a dry runway must plan to land within __________% of the LDA.

115. For a contaminated runway, the LDA must be __________% of the dry landing distance or the determined contaminated landing distance. Whichever is the greater.

116. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the issues associated with a quick turnround?Mark all correct answers. A) During a quick turnround the brakes may not have had time to cool since the previous landing. You may have to delay departure until the brakes have cooled sufficiently to be able to cope with an RTO. B) During a quick turnround the brakes are likely to seize. C) Following a quick turnround, the hot brakes will be very fierce when applied, making the chance of a skid much more likely. D) The aeroplane can't be fuelled until the brakes are cold, this limits how quickly you can turnround.

117. Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.28. Determine the runway length limiting landing mass at an aerodrome with a pressure altitude of 2000 ft, with 7250 ft runway length available, wind calm, runway wet and flaps 40°, anti-skid operative. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 63 600 kg. B) 53 600 kg. C) 67 000 kg. D) 61 500 kg.

118. Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.28. Determine the minimum LDA for the following conditions: aircraft mass 55 000 kg; aerodrome pressure altitude 2000 ft; wet runway; Flap 40; wind component +20 kt; anti-skid inoperative, manual spoilers. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 8400 ft. B) 9050 ft. C) 5350 ft. D) 9700 ft.

119. Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.31 What is the minimum brake cooling time required after a rejected take off, given the following: aircraft mass 55 tons; take-off rejected (brakes-on) at 135 kt; aerodrome pressure altitude 1000 ft; OAT +35ºC. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 88 min. B) 32 min. C) 29 min. D) 31 min.

120. Refer to CAP 698 figure 4.31 What is the minimum brake cooling time after landing, given the following: landing mass 45 tons; brakes-on speed 130 kt; OAT +40ºC; MSL: wind calm; manual braking and no reverse thrust. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 62 min. B) 19 min. C) 58 min. D) 32 min.

121. Which of the following are valid factors which influence the actual landing distance? A) The mass of the aeroplane. B) Tailwind or headwind. C) Runway slope. D) Runway contamination. E) Crosswind.

122. A tailwind __________ the aeroplane’s ground speed. This increases the LDR. A) increases. B) decreases C) has no effect on.

123. A downslope __________ the landing distance. A) increases. B) decreases C) has no effect on.

124. Increased mass __________ the landing distance. A) increases. B) decreases C) has no effect on.

125. During your approach, ATC asks you to perform a circle-to-land manoeuvre due to an unexpectedly strong tailwind. After the downwind leg, you make the last turn to the final approach with a strong headwind. ln comparison to an approach in still air, you should (1) ____ thrust to stay on the correct glide path, as the headwind will cause the aircraft's glide angle to (2) ____

126. The reduction to be applied to the gross gradient (take-off climb) to obtain the net gradient for a twin-engined Class A aeroplane is:

127. Which factors might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA? 1) large flap angles. 2) small flap angles. 3) high air pressure. 4) low air pressure. 5) high aircraft weights. 6) low aircraft weights.

128. Select from the following list of conditions those that must prevail in the second segment of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane: 1. Undercarriage retracted 2. Undercarriage extended 3. Flaps up 4. Flaps in take-off position 5. All engines at take-off thrust 6. Operative engine(s) at take-off thrust 7. Climbing speed of V2 + 10 kt 8. Climbing speed of 1.3VS 9. Climbing speed of V2 10. Commencing height 35 ft.

129. Which combination of answers reflects the reason for using reduced thrust? 1. Save engine life. 2. Reduced fuel consumption. 3. V1 can be less than VMCG. 4. Noise abatement. 5. Allows contaminated runway operations. 6. PMC inoperative.

130. What is the factor for Class A aeroplanes, when determining the take-off distance and when considering a take-off from a dry runway with all engines operating?

131. For a Class A aeroplane what is the all engines take-off distance safety factor?

132. The relationship of the reference landing speed (VREF) to the reference stalling speed ln the landing configuration (VSR0) is that VREF may not be below:

133. For a turboprop-powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination and the aerodrome runway is expected to be 'wet'. The 'dry runway' landing distance, should not exceed how many metres:

134. Assume a take-off with a class A aeroplane on a wet runway. Which of the following values shows the corresponding screen height of the take-off distance?

135. For a Class A aircraft landing on a wet runway by how much must the landing distance be increased? Answer as a %.

136. During the drift-down following an engine failure, the vertical interval by which a Class A aeroplane must avoid all obstacles in the drift-down path is:

137. In the landing roll, when can the pilot apply the brakes? 1) When both main gears touch the ground. 2) When at least one main gear has contact with runway. 3) When both main gears are on the ground and provided that the nose gear can be lowered in a controlled manner permitting it to touch down safely. 4) When all wheels are on the ground.

138. The rate of climb of a class A aeroplane is 740 ft/min, TAS = 200 kt, headwind = 15 kt. What is the minimum gross gradient during the take-off climb?

139. Assume a take-off with a class A aeroplane on a dry runway. Which of the following values shows the corresponding screen height of the take-off distance?

140. Occasional movements by aircraft with an ACN of 50 should not adversely affect the pavement if the reported PCN is at least:

141. Assume a normal approach and landing with a class A airplane Which of the following values shows the corresponding screen height?

142. On a transatlantic flight, the captain asks the First Officer why a final step climb from FL340 to FL380 ten minutes before top of descent might not be an efficient use of the fuel. Select a possible explanation:

143. In relation to flight performance what does the term Cost Index define?

144. If the field-length-limited take-off mass and V1 were calculated using balanced field-lengths, the use of any additional clearway in the calculation would cause:

145. On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased by:

146. Regarding take-off distances and speeds for take-off, which of the following is correct?

147. In the event of a rejected take-off in Class A, when is it assumed that the first action should be taken to stop the aircraft?

148. When is the latest a pilot can take the first action to abort?

149. If V2 is increased what happens to CLTOM and the climb angle?

150. What classification is given to a multi-engine turbo-jet aircraft with less than 9 passenger seats and a weight less than 5700 kg?

151. What performance class is a multi-engine turbo-jet aeroplane with a maximum take off mass MTOM of 4750 kg and maximum operational passenger seating configuration MOPSC of 4 passengers?

152. You are about to take-off at Mykonos airport in Greece on a short runway 1905 m facing the sea in a large jet transport aircraft. For this take-off, you are not limited by the climb gradient, which of the following allowable take-off configurations is best to obtain the maximum runway length limited TOM? Configuration 1: 1 stage of slats and flaps Configuration 2: 2 stages of slats and flaps Configuration 3: 2 stages of slats and 3 stages of flaps

153. If the flap setting is changed from 10° to 20°, V2MIN will:

154. What is the effect on EAS, CAS and TAS for an aeroplane which climbs with a constant Mach speed below the tropopause?

155. Cruise altitude can be increased progressively during the flight due to the:

156. A pilot is planning a landing where the landing mass is greater then the maximum quick turnaround mass. Select the correct statement that the pilot should follow:

157. You are flying to a destination with limited fuel services and a short runway. To minimise fuel uplift requirements at the destination you plan to land with the maximum amount of fuel possible. What factor might limit your landing mass?

158. Which 2 scenarios will reduce quick turnaround mass?

159. A runway is covered over the total length with 5 mm depth of wet ice. ln terms of runway contamination, "wet ice" is:

160. Balanced V1 is selected:

161. Compared with a balanced field with no stopway or clearway, the use of a stopway in the take-off calculations allows an:

162. An aeroplane receives a late descent clearance from ATC due to opposite traffic, with all factors being equal and constant. Choose the correct statement. The pilot may:

163. Take-off on a runway with standing water, with a depth of 0.5 cm, compared to a dry runway, field length limited mass will:

164. When compared to a clean configuration, how does flap setting usually affect the Runway Length limited Take-Off Mass and the Climb limited Take-Off Mass? The Runway Length limited Take-Off Mass:

165. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the obstacle limited take- off mass for a Performance Class A aeroplane?

166. Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited Take-off Mass for Performance Class A aeroplane, is correct?

167. In the OPS regulations, a runway is considered damp when:

168. What are the factors that affect the drift-down flight path during a descent with OEI?

169. For jet-propelled aeroplanes, the maximum endurance speed corresponds with the:

170. Where are the procedures associated with take-off and landing on contaminated runways found?

171. In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:

172. When carrying out the increased V2 take-off procedure what is the effect on the screen height?

173. Which of the following is not used by aircraft manufacturers to establish dry landing distances?

174. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplanes as:

175. Field length is balanced when:

176. Which procedure is likely to involve V1 being reduced?

177. Which factors affect the level off altitude in a drift down procedure?

178. During take-off on a limiting runway, if a dry V1 was used instead of a wet V1 due to wet runway conditions the result would be:

179. Due to a pilot mistake, if on a particular flight the value of V1 used on take-off exceeds the correct value of V1, and an engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1 then:

180. The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:

181. On take-off from an unbalanced field you have an available range of V1s. If a higher V1 is selected from the range then:

182. Which statement is true when calculating take-off data for a Class A aeroplane and if the reverse thrust is inoperative?

183. The requirements of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane assume:

184. For a Class A aircraft the net take-off flight path is subdivided into various segments. Which of the following statements is correct?

185. For a Class A aircraft the net take-off flight path is subdivided into various segments. Which of the following statements is correct?

186. What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take- off?

187. A balanced field is contaminated with compacted snow, what effect will it have on the TODA and ASDR?

188. What is the climb requirement in the 3rd take off segment?

189. A balanced field is contaminated with compacted snow what effect will it have on the TODA and ASDA?

190. What is the purpose of the crossover altitude, for an aircraft during the climb?

191. What is the purpose of the crossover altitude, for an aircraft during the descent?

192. In the event of an engine failure take off, what is the purpose of the 2 second interval rule?

193. With a downward sloping runway:

194. Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in Performance Class A. Following an engine failure before __________ and allowing for a pilot reaction time of __________ a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a stop within the__________ .

195. The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:

196. Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?

197. In accordance to EASA CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2 MIN?

198. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.7. Given: TOM: 60 000 kg PA: 6000 ft OAT: -10°C Slope: 2% down Tailwind: 5 kt PMC: OFF VMBE is: [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

199. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.23. Given: Aircraft mass: 52 000 kg Temperature: ISA +20°C Engine Anti-Ice: ON Air Conditioning (AC): OFF Using the data above determine the net level off altitude. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

200. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Given: Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing Mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kts Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kts [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

201. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.23. Given: Obstacle pressure altitude: 16 000 ft Required obstacle clearance: 2000 ft Engine Anti-Ice: ON Air Conditioning (A/C): AUTO Temperature (OAT): ISA+10°C With reference to the above given values and by using the attached graph, which maximum mass can be used to clear the obstacle with one engine inoperative (OEI)? [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

202. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.28. What is the field length limiting mass for the below conditions? Flaps: 15° Wind: 20 kt headwind Runway condition: dry Pressure altitude: 3000 ft Field length available: 5505 ft Anti-Skid: operative. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

203. [CAP 698] With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.29. Determine the landing climb limit for the MRJT given: OAT: ISA +30°C PA: 4000 ft A/C: AUTO Flaps: 40° Icing: no icing below +8°C during flight [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

204. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.29. Determine the landing climb limit for the MRJT given: OAT: ISA +30°C PA: 4000 ft A/C: AUTO Flaps: 40° Icing: no icing below +8°C during flight [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

205. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.31. Using the environmental data below and the attached figure, calculate the required brake cooling period for the rejected take-off. Take-off mass: 57 500 kg Elevation: 1400 ft OAT: -10°C Wind: calm Speed at fault: 90 kt Abort speed: 100 kt (Max braking and reverse thrust used). [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

206. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.4. For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°) are certified. Using the attached chart, what is the maximum allowed Take-off Mass, given the following conditions: Airport PA: 7000 ft OAT: -10°C Field length available: 2400 m Slope: Level Wind: Calm PMC: ON A/C: AUTO [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

207. With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.30. Given: Aerodrome Pressure altitude: 3000 ft Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +30°F Runway slope: 1.5% down Wind: 10 kt head Flaps: 40° Using the data above, determine the Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

208. [CAP 698] With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.28. Given: Airport PA: 1800 ft Runway: dry Field length: 1600 m Headwind: 20 kt Flaps: 30°_Automatic spoilers and anti-skid: operative Find the field length limit mass: [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

209. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.28. Given: Airport PA: 1800 ft Runway: dry Field length: 1600 m Headwind: 20 kt Flaps: 30° Automatic spoilers and anti-skid: operative Find the field length limit mass: [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

210. [graph]Reference CAP 698 Figure 4.23. Given the following Information, calculate the highest aircraft mass that allows a safe net level-off altitude. MSA: 12 000 ft Anti-ice: OFF A/C: AUTO (HIGH) ISA deviation: +15°C [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

211. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.23. Given: MSA: 12 000 ft Anti-ice: OFF A/C: AUTO (HIGH) ISA deviation: +15°C Calculate the mass at net level altitude. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

212. [graph]Reference CAP 698 Figure 4.7. Planned take-off mass is 64 000 kg Pressure altitude 4000 ft OAT +10°C. V1 - 151, 155, 161. Runway slope is -1% and tailwind 5 kt. What is the maximum permitted take-off mass? [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

213. [CAP 698]With reference to the attached image. Given: Runway: 23L Runway condition: wet Wind: 140° / 14 kt OAT: 10°C QNH: 1008 hPa Engine anti-ice: ON Packs: OFF Take-off position: VB Using the chart provided, determine the RTOM given the above conditions without interpolation. (You may use the closest published data inputs for your calculations).

214. Reference CAP 698 Figure 4.31. The flight crew of an MRJT plan to touchdown with the braking configuration: Autobrake 2, Normal Reverse #2 Detent. However, on touchdown, the thrust reverser fail light illuminates and the Commander cancels the reverse thrust and selects Autobrake 3 instead, to gain some extra braking. From the runway the aeroplane has to taxi 1.5 miles to the assigned terminal gate. Given the following performance data, how much energy has been absorbed per brake unit, and what is the minimum brake cooling time after this landing? Estimated landing mass: 100 000 lb VREF: 123 kt Corrections to VREF: (VREF - 3kt) Corrections to VREF for wind component: minus 50% of a headwind or plus 150% for a tailwind Headwind component: 4 kt Pressure Altitude: 5000ft OAT:-10°C Add one million foot pounds for each taxi mile to obtain total brake energy. [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

215. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.7. Given the following information, what is the Maximum Take-Off Mass (MTOM) eventually limited by VMBE for the MRJT aeroplane? Airfield Elevation: 1998 ft Slope: 0.2% upslope QNH: 1013.25 hPa OAT: 38°C V1: 145 kt Tailwind: 5 kt [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

216. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.31. Using the environmental data below and the attached figure, calculate whether a brake cooling period is required following a rejected take-off: Takeoff mass: 61 300 kg Elevation: 2000 ft OAT: +34°C Wind: calm Abort speed: 80 kt [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

217. [graph]Reference 698 CAP Figure 4. 7. Determine the brake release weight, given: V1: 149 kts Pressure altitude: 1487 ft OAT: +19°C Runway Slope: 0.5 % UP Wind: 10 kt headwind [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

218. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.6. Given: Pressure Altitude: 85 ft OAT: +8°C Tailwind Component: 8 kt PMC: OFF Flaps: 5° Find the FLAPS TYRE SPEED LIMIT MASS for your aircraft which is fitted with 225 mph tyres... [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

219. Reference CAP 698 Figure 4.31. The pilot of an MRJT aeroplane after recognising a generator failure during the take-off roll, he/she decides to reject the take-off and taxi off the runway to hold on a taxiway. Resetting the generator after 10 minutes, he/she realizes that it functions properly, so the flight can resume. Given the following information, what is the minimum cooling time before the next take-off, assuming that the taxi distance is negligible? Take-off mass: 57 500 kg Speed when fault occurred: 90 kt Speed when rejection commenced: 100 kt Retardation: Maximum braking and reverse thrust Wind: light and variable Elevation: 1400 ft QNH: 1013.25 hPa [graph]OAT:-10°C [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

220. Reference CAP 698 Figure 4.4. Given the following: Runway 02, TORA 6400 ft, 1 % upslope, obstacle after departure, maximum 5° flaps allowed. Runway 20, TORA 6400 ft, 1 % downslope, departure over the sea, maximum 15° flaps allowed. Wind: 020° /5 kt. The actual TOM is 58 800 kg, which is 600 kg beyond the limit for runway 02. [graph]Which of the following options is the best choice, from both a safety and commercial standpoint? [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]

221. [CAP 698]With reference to CAP 698 Figure 4.5. Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart? [Referenz erforderlich: die in der Frage genannte CAP-Abbildung separat verwenden. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.]