POF 03

1. As alpha increases towards the critical angle: the CP moves __________; the adverse pressure gradient becomes __________; the CL __________ and drag __________. A) forward; stronger; increases; increases. B) rearwards; stronger; increases; increases. C) rearwards; stronger; decreases; decreases. D) forward; weaker; increases; increases.

2. The primary cause of the decrease in lift beyond the critical angle is: A) Upper surface flow separation caused by the adverse pressure gradient. B) Upper surface flow separation caused by the increase in drag. C) Upper surface flow separation caused by the transition from laminar to turbulent flow. D) Upper surface flow separation caused by the forward movement of the CP.

3. Which 3 of the following statements are correct: A) When it stalls, a swept wing aircraft usually generates buffet. B) On a swept wing, the CP continues to move forward as alpha increases beyond the critical angle. C) Lift is maximum at the stalling angle. D) When the aircraft stalls, no lift is produced. E) Lift and drag reduce rapidly above the critical angle. F) All aircraft have a pronounced nose-down pitching moment at the stall. G) A swept-wing aircraft always pitches up at the stall.

4. As alpha increases, the forward stagnation point moves, at first, __________ on the leading edge and then rearwards along the lower surface of the wing. A) lower B) higher

5. Which of the following statements is most correct. A) The critical angle (alphaCRIT) is the highest achievable angle of attack before the wing stalls. B) The critical angle (alphaCRIT) varies with TAS. C) The critical angle (alphaCRIT) is the angle of attack at which the wing stalls. D) The critical angle (alphaCRIT) is the lowest achievable speed before the wing stalls.

6. Heavy buffet, felt through the airframe and/or through the controls, is caused by __________ __________ usually impinging on the tailplane/horizontal stabiliser. A) flow separation B) flow reattachment

7. A highly tapered or swept-back wing stalls at the __________ first. The stall then progresses towards the __________. A) tip; root. B) tip; tip. C) root; tip. D) root; root.

8. Which of the following statements are correct: A) A moderately tapered wings stalls in the mid section first. The stall then progresses towards the tips and roots. B) A rectangular wing stalls from the wing root to the wing tip. C) An elliptical wing stalls simultaneously across the planform. D) A swept wing stalls at the roots first and the stall then progresses to the tips.

9. The design feature where the wing's angle of incidence is progressively reduced towards the tip is called __________. This reduces the tendency of the tips to stall first. A) washout B) taper C) sweep

10. A __________ provides a physical barrier reducing span wise flow towards the tips. A) wing fence B) nacelle strake

11. A vortilon generates a blocking vortex which acts as a barrier to span wise flow towards the tips. A similar effect can be produced by incorporating a __________ wing leading edge. A) saw tooth B) sharp

12. The purpose of small vortex generators on the upper surface of the wing is to: A) Re-energise the boundary layer to delay separation at high angles of attack. B) Maintain a laminar flow across more of the wing chord. C) Prevent a tip stall from progressing from tip to root. D) Reduce the span wise flow.

13. The purpose of engine nacelle strakes is to:Mark all correct answers. A) Delay the onset of flow separation in the area of the wing behind the nacelle. B) Create a vortex at high alpha which re-energises the boundary layer. C) Locally reduce the upwash at the wing leading edge. D) Ensure stable intake conditions at high alpha.

14. At high angles of attack the aircraft may roll in the opposite direction from the one commanded by aileron input. A) Because of the increased camber produced by the down-going aileron. B) Because of adverse aileron yaw. C) Because of the increased camber produced by the up-going aileron. D) Because of the asymmetric drag produced by the up-going aileron.

15. When at, or very near, the critical angle, which of the following may provoke a stall or autorotation?Mark all correct answers. A) Pitching up. B) Making aileron inputs. C) Yawing. D) Pitching down.

16. A forward CG __________ the stalling speed because of the extra lift the wings must produce. A) increases B) decreases C) reduces

17. High thrust settings at high angles of attack __________ the stalling speed. A) can reduce B) have no effect on C) can increase

18. Which 4 of the following factors are the main reasons that can increase an aircraft's stalling speed? A) Forward CG. B) High sweep angle. C) High aircraft mass. D) Ice contamination of the wings. E) Low aircraft mass. F) A low load factor.

19. If an aircraft is made to pitch nose-up (positively), without stalling, the load factor will __________. A) increase B) decrease C) reduce

20. Load factor __________ in a turn and, thus, stalling speed __________ in a turn. A) increases; increases. B) decreases; increases. C) increases; decreases. D) decreases; decreases.

21. At high load factors the stalling speed increases. Hard turns or hard pulls to get out of a dive can cause the aircraft to stall well above the 1g (straight and level) stalling speed. This is known as __________ stall. A) an accelerated B) a high speed

22. At zero g the load factor is zero. The aircraft _____ stall. A) cannot B) can C) will

23. The basic stalling speed of your aircraft is given as 75 kt. At 2g the stalling speed will be: A) 106 kt. B) 150 kt. C) 88 kt. D) 111 kt.

24. The basic stalling speed of your aircraft is given as 67 kt. At 45° of bank the stalling speed will be: A) 80 kt B) 85 kt C) 90 kt D) 95 kt

25. Without passengers, your aircraft's mass, at its current fuel weight and with you on board, is 2000 kg. At this mass the basic stalling speed is 68 kt. You add 4 passengers, weighing a total of 500 kg. Your basic stalling speed is now: A) 76 kt B) 85 kt C) 70 kt D) 68 kt

26. What is the basic stalling speed (Vs1g) of a twin-engined aircraft, given the following data: Wing area = 16 m². Mass = 2000 kg. ρ = 0.7 kg/m³. CLMAX clean = 1.3. A) 52 m/s B) 53 kt C) 101 m/s D) 78 kt

27. Which 5 of the following statements about stalling are correct? A) A deep stall or super stall is more likely with a T-tail configuration. B) Swept wing stall is more hazardous than straight wing stall because there may be no well-defined transition between the unstalled and stalled conditions. C) Swept wing stall is more hazardous than straight wing stall because the aircraft may pitch up into the stall. D) The stalling speed in a level turn is always higher than the stalling speed in straight and level flight. E) A stall can occur at any speed, attitude or altitude. F) In an accelerated stall, the stall occurs before the critical angle is exceeded. G) A stall can occur at any angle of attack, attitude or altitude.

28. Which of the following statements about spinning are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The aircraft cannot spin unless it is stalled. B) In an incipient spin the aircraft is autorotating. C) In an incipient spin the nose attitude is high. D) In a fully developed spin the nose attitude is usually low. E) Autorotation only occurs during a developed spin.

29. In a/an __________ spin the usual recovery action is to centralise the controls. (Though this may vary from type to type). A) incipient B) fully developed C) clear D) rational

30. Which 3 of the following are common signs of a fully developed spin. A) A low nose attitude. B) The aircraft is rolling yawing and pitching up. C) There is a high rate of descent. D) There is a large amount of positive g. E) There is very little buffet.

31. Close the power lever.Apply full opposite rudder.Move the controls column centrally forward till the buffet stops.Ease out of the ensuing dive.Is a description of the typical recovery actions for a __________ spin. A) fully developed B) incipient C) clear D) rational

32. A forward CG tends to make the spin __________. An aft CG tends to make the spin __________. A) steeper; flatter B) steeper; steeper. C) flatter; flatter. D) flatter; steeper. E) steeper; steeper.

33. As you approach the stall, the flight controls become __________ effective. The aircraft responds slowly and sluggishly to your commands. __________ flight controls feel light (easier to operate) as you approach the stall. A) less; Manual. B) less; Powered. C) more; Powered. D) more; Manual.

34. Light buffet is felt as you approach the stall.The nose attitude is abnormally high. There is heavy buffet as you enter the stall. The nose drops sharply and a wing may drop. These symptoms describe the __________ wing stall. A) straight B) swept C) asymmetric D) washout

35. Which 2 of the following statements are correct? A) The only reliable method of recovering from a fully-developed stall is to unstall the wings. B) Heavy buffet and a high rate of descent are symptoms of straight and swept wing stall. C) An aircraft can only stall with a high nose attitude. D) An aircraft can only stall at low speed. E) If the nose is already low, pushing the stick forward will not unstall the wings.

36. Stall warning is necessary because monitoring __________ alone is not an adequate countermeasure against stalling. A) airspeed B) angle of attack

37. Artificial stall warning systems must be fitted to aircraft which do not have: A) Sufficient aerodynamic warnings. B) An angle of attack indicator. C) An airspeed indicator. D) A buffet indicator.

38. A __________ uses the movement of the leading edge stagnation point to provide warning of a stall. A) flapper switch B) AoA vane

39. One of the devices which can be used to sense the angle of the relative airflow is the: A) Angle of attack vane. B) Angle of incidence probe. C) Stick pusher vane. D) Pitot probe.

40. An angle-of-attack __________ compares the difference in dynamic pressure between 2 inclined ports to provide warning of high angle of attack. A) probe B) vane C) actuator

41. A stick pusher is a stall __________ device. A) prevention B) warning C) vane

42. A power-on stall often occurs at a __________ nose attitude than a power-off stall. A) higher B) lower C) the same D) reduced

43. If the aircraft stalls when the power is set to idle, it __________ possible to recover from the stall without applying power. A) is B) is not C) is never

44. Which 2 of the following statements about stall recovery in the turn are correct? A) In a climbing turn, lower the nose till the warnings stop, then level the wings. B) In a descending turn, lower the nose till the warnings stop, then level the wings. C) In a climbing turn, lower the nose below the horizon and then level the wings. D) In a descending turn, there is no need to lower the nose further, simply level the wings.

45. __________ is the stall speed, or minimum steady flight speed, for which the aircraft is still controllable in a specific configuration. A) VS1 B) VS0 C) VSR D) VS1G

46. __________ is the stall speed or minimum flight speed in the landing configuration. A) VS0 B) VS1 C) VSR D) VS1G

47. __________ is a CAS defined by the manufacturer which may not be less than the 1g stall speed. A) VSR B) VS1 C) VS1G D) VS0

48. __________ is the speed at which an aircraft stalls in level, unaccelerated, flight. A) VS1G B) VS0 C) VSR D) VS1

49. Transport aircraft use take-off and landing speeds based on a margin above the stall reference speed because swept-wing aircraft __________ a clearly defined stall onset and have very undesirable stall characteristics. A) don't have B) have

50. EASA CS 25 for CAT aircraft require that:Take-off and landing speeds are based on a margin above __________. A) VSR B) VREF C) SVR D) VS0

51. EASA CS 25 for CAT aircraft require that:VSR may not be less than __________. A) VS1g/VS0 B) VS1g+10 kt

52. EASA CS 25 for CAT aircraft require that:The minimum speed at 35 ft after take-off must not be less than __________ x VSR1

53. EASA CS 25 for CAT aircraft require that:The reference landing speed VREF must not be less than __________ x VS0.

54. EASA CS 25 for CAT aircraft require that:For all aircraft without a stick-pusher, the stall warning must activate at a speed of at least __________ kt and __________% above the relevant stall speed, and remain operating until the aircraft’s speed has increased above this limit. A) 5; 5. B) 10; 5. C) 5; 10. D) 10; 10.

55. The stall is recognised by continuous stall warning plus at least 1 of the following:Mark all correct answers. A) Inability to arrest the rate of descent. B) Lack of pitch authority. C) Uncommanded pitch down and uncommanded roll. D) Low speed.

56. The term 'stall warning’ encompasses any or all of the following:Mark 6 correct answers. A) Activation of the stick shaker. B) Aerodynamic buffet. C) Reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness. D) Reduced elevator (pitch) authority. E) Visual or aural cues and warnings. F) Inability to maintain altitude or arrest a rate of descent. G) Low speed. H) High nose attitude I) Low nose attitude

57. Ground effect occurs within __________ wingspan(s) of the surface. Its effect strengthens markedly as you get closer to the surface.

58. High-wing designs are __________ prone to ground effect. A) less B) more C) always

59. The primary cause of ground effect is: A) The blocking by the ground of the circulation of the tip vortices. B) The changing direction of the relative airflow. C) The reduction in parasite drag. D) The effect of jet or propeller flow impacting the ground.

60. On entering ground effect:Induced drag __________.Lift __________. A) decreases; increases. B) increases; stays the same. C) decreases; reduces. D) stays the same; increases.

61. On entering ground effect:The critical angle __________.The nose may pitch __________. A) reduces; down. B) reduces; up. C) increases; down. D) stays the same; down.

62. On entering ground effect:The ASI may __________. A) underread. B) overread. C) become erratic.

63. The principal threat of ground effect is: A) Stalling close to the ground. B) Early round-out (flare). C) Late round-out (flare). D) Increased float, the risk of ballooning and extended landing distance.

64. On leaving ground-effect during the take-off __________. A) the opposite effects to entering ground effect may be experienced. B) no ground-effect changes are experienced.

65. Given that A shows the curve for a clean aerofoil:Mark all correct answers. A) B shows the curve for a plain flap. B) C shows that using this device reduces the approach speed for a given mass. C) C shows the curve for a split flap. D) B shows that CLMax and alphaCRIT have increased. E) B shows the curve for a slotted flap.

66. Which of the following statements about trailing edge devices is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Flap reduces the landing distance because the aircraft can land at a lower speed. B) Take-off distance is reduced because the wing has a greater lifting capability at any given speed. C) Flap permits a steeper approach because of the increased drag. D) The pitch attitude on the approach is reduced because the wing's CL at all angles of attack, up to the critical angle, has increased. E) For a given airspeed, to maintain the same amount of lift force when flap is lowered, the angle of attack must be reduced. F) Flap reduces landing speed because it increases the critical angle.

67. Lowering TE flap can cause the CP to move __________. A) aft B) forwards

68. This leading edge device is an example of a: A) Krueger flap. B) Slotted flap. C) Slotted fowler flap. D) Slat.

69. Study the diagram and mark all correct answer(s):Mark all correct answers. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 13. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A is an example of a variable camber leading edge device. B) C is an example of a slot. C) B is an example of a slat. D) B is an example of a slot. E) A is an example of a Krueger leading edge device.

70. When fitted, leading edge devices are __________ extended before or at the same time as trailing edge devices. They __________ the wing's camber and don't change the position of the CP. A) always; increase. B) sometimes; increase. C) sometimes; reduce. D) always; reduce.

71. Study the diagram. Given that A represents the CL alpha curve for a clean wing:Mark 2 correct answers. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 13. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A depicts a cambered wing. B) B depicts the effect of slats. C) A depicts a symmetrical wing. D) B depicts the effect of trailing edge flap. E) C depicts the effect of slats.

72. The purpose of the slot is to __________. A) delay flow separation. B) maintain a laminar flow across the entire upper surface. C) reattach the upper surface flow.

73. The roll caused by asymmetric flap extension __________ controllable with aileron. A) is often not B) is usually C) is always

74. Flap-setting errors, such as mis-selection and premature/late extension or retraction of flaps will result in: A) Increased take-off and landing distances and speeds. B) Reduced climb performance and shallower descents. C) Dangerously reduced margin above the stall. D) Decreased take-off distance due to the reduction in drag. E) Increased climb performance due to the reduction in drag.

75. Slats offset the __________ in the stalling angle caused by trailing edge flap. They also increase CLMAX. A) reduction B) increase

76. __________ mechanically reenergise the boundary layer to improve CLMAX and increase the critical angle. A) Vortex generators B) Wing fences C) Saw-tooth leading edges

77. Elevator, rudder and aileron are __________-changing devices. __________ can also change the direction of the total reaction. A) camber; Elevator and rudder B) area; Elevator and rudder C) camber; all three D) area; all three

78. A __________ balance adds an area of control surface in front of a hinge to reduce the hinge moment. A) horn B) internal C) spring

79. An __________ balance uses local static pressure differences to provide an opposing hinge moment. A) internal B) external

80. A __________ __________ tab moves in the opposite direction from the control surface, thus assisting its movement and so reducing the loads felt at the control column. A) balance B) anti-balance C) servo D) spring

81. An __________ tab moves in the same sense as the control surface, thus opposing its movement. Provides greater force feedback to the pilot at higher IAS. A) anti-balance B) balance C) servo D) spring

82. A __________ tab linked directly to the flying controls, deflects to move the main control surface. This reduces the force required at the control column to move the control. A) servo B) anti-balance C) balance D) spring

83. A spring tab is a type of servo tab. The spring __________ movement of the servo tab until higher IAS is reached. At low IAS the controls operate the main control surface. At higher IAS the controls operate the servo tab. A) prevents B) permits

84. This system is known as a: A) Balance tab. B) Spring tab. C) Servo tab. D) Internal balance.

85. The system is known as a: A) Anti-balance tab. B) Spring tab. C) Balance tab. D) Internal balance.

86. This system is known as a: A) Servo tab. B) Anti-balance tab. C) Spring tab. D) Internal balance.

87. This system is known as a: A) Spring balance. B) Anti-balance tab. C) Balance tab. D) Pressure balance.

88. This system is known as: A) An Internal balance. B) A pressure balance C) A horn balance. D) A spring balance.

89. Power-assisted controls provide __________ of the force required to operate the control surface. __________ hinge moment force is fed back to the pilot. A) some; Some. B) all; Some. C) some; No. D) all; No.

90. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Fully powered controls provide no feel to the pilot. Artificial feel is required to give the pilot a sense of the control forces at different IAS. B) Power-assisted and fully powered pitch controls trim the aircraft by deflecting the elevator. They don’t use trim tabs. C) Fully-powered controls provide all the power required to move the control surfaces. D) Artificial feel can be provided by simple mechanical springs.

91. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The angle of attack of an all-flying stabilator is controlled by the pilot's control column. B) The trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) uses a conventional elevator for pitch control. C) The only function of the trim jack on a THS is to change the angle of incidence of the THS, (this may also change the angle of attack). D) The angle of attack of a THS is primarily controlled by an electrical trim jack.

92. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The angle of incidence of the THS can be adjusted directly by the autoflight system. B) A T-tail is less affected by the wing's downwash. C) Downwash from the wing reduces the angle of attack of a low-mounted tailplane. D) A fixed tailplane may be mounted at a slightly negative angle of incidence to adjust for downwash from the wing.

93. The primary effect of rudder is __________. The secondary effect is sideslip then __________. A) yaw; roll. B) roll; yaw. C) roll; pitch D) yaw; pitch.

94. The primary effect of aileron is __________. The secondary effect is __________. A) roll; yaw. B) yaw; sideslip. C) yaw; roll. D) roll; pitch.

95. The primary effect of elevator is __________. The secondary effect is __________. A) pitch; none. B) pitch; lift. C) air speed; none. D) air speed; lift.

96. If the rudder is held deflected, yaw __________. A) eventually decreases to zero. B) continues to increase at a steady rate. C) remains constant.

97. If the ailerons are held deflected, roll __________. A) continues at a steady rate. B) steadily reduces to zero. C) continues to increase.

98. Rudder, ailerons and elevators are all types of __________-changing devices. A) camber B) area

99. Differential and frise ailerons are methods designed to counteract __________ __________ __________. A) adverse aileron yaw B) excessive control forces

100. The up-going aileron deflects through a larger angle than the down-going one, producing more form drag. This is a description of __________ ailerons. A) differential B) frise C) incremental D) sequential

101. When the aileron is deflected upwards, its leading edge protrudes into the airstream to increase form drag. This is a description of __________ ailerons. A) frise B) differential C) incremental D) sequential

102. The purpose of the rudder travel limiter is to: A) Limit rudder deflection above a certain IAS to limit the maximum forces felt by the fin. B) Limit rudder deflection to a pre-set yaw rate. C) Limit rudder deflection above a certain angle of bank to limit the maximum forces felt by the fin. D) Limit rudder deflection during the final approach.

103. Beyond a certain IAS outboard ailerons are locked-out to:Mark all correct answers. A) Prevent over control in roll. B) Prevent the crew from exceeding the wing's structural limitations. C) Limit the risk of aileron reversal. D) Improve roll control at low speed.

104. A __________ combines the functions of flap and aileron. A) flaperon B) elevon

105. Which of the following statements about roll control is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) On some CAT aircraft the outboard ailerons are not used for roll control at high speed. B) The purpose of the mixer unit is to automatically generate a small rudder movement when the ailerons are moved. C) The secondary effect of roll is yaw. D) The purpose of aileron droop is to increase CLMAX at high speed.

106. Which of the following are practical examples of, and acceptable techniques for, using the secondary effects of aileron and rudder.Mark all correct answers. A) Generating sideslip to kill excess height during a forced landing. B) Reducing the amount of drift that needs to be applied on a cross-wind approach, by using the wing-down technique. C) Reducing the amount of rudder required to counteract the effect of a failed engine. D) Increasing the rate of turn for a given angle of bank. E) Rolling to a desired angle of bank. F) Picking up wing drop at the stall.

107. Speed brakes increase __________ drag and cause further drag by generating __________. A) parasite; turbulence. B) induced; turbulence. C) parasite; a high angle of attack. D) induced; a high angle of attack.

108. Valid uses for speed brakes include:Mark all correct answers. A) Reducing airspeed rapidly. B) Increasing the angle of descent. C) Increasing the rate of descent. D) Controlling the airspeed in a descent. E) Reducing drag by lowering VMD.

109. Which of the following statements about ground spoilers is/are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) The purpose of ground spoilers is to dump lift after landing. B) Ground spoilers, when deployed, may improve the effectiveness of wheel braking. C) Ground spoilers and speed brakes may be the same physical device which extends by different amounts depending on the function. D) Ground spoilers significantly reduce the landing run by increasing drag.

110. Study the diagram. Identify the correct statement(s).Mark 3 correct answers. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 21. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) B is the drag polar for spoilers deployed. B) If D is spoilers deployed, then C is the CL/alpha for a clean wing. C) Spoilers reduce CLMAX. D) B is the CL/alpha for spoilers deployed. E) D is the CL/alpha for a symmetrical wing.

111. Study the diagram carefully, then identify the correct statement. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 21. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) The aircraft is in equilibrium and may or may not be in trim. B) The aircraft is not in equilibrium. C) The aircraft is in equilibrium and, therefore, in trim. D) The aircraft is in trim but not in equilibrium.

112. __________ trim tabs mounted on the wing, fin or tailplane cancel out ‘permanent’ (but not transient) out-of-trim forces caused by airframe deformation. They do it by generating a small correcting aerodynamic force. A) Fixed B) Adjustable

113. Adjustable (moveable) trim tabs can be driven __________. A) electrically or manually. B) electrically. C) manually.

114. Which of the following statements about trimming systems are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Trims tabs create balancing moments by generating aerodynamic force. B) Movement of the CP will require the aircraft to be retrimmed. C) Adjustable trims tabs may need to be adjusted many times in a flight. D) Trim tabs are not normally used to adjust the attitude of an aircraft. E) A THS is required on large aircraft because conventional trim tabs are unable to generate sufficient pitch moments.

115. The effective range of movement of the elevator __________ restricted when a THS is used for trimming in pitch. A THS produces __________ drag than a similar sized conventional tailplane with elevator trimming. A) is not; less. B) is not; more. C) is; more. D) is; less.

116. The principal threat from a THS is that, if incorrectly set, it can critically reduce __________ authority. A) elevator. B) pitch. C) manual.

117. To ensure a consistent, reliable and predictable rate of rotation on take-off: A) The THS angle of incidence must be adjusted according to the aircraft's CG position. B) The THS angle of incidence must be set to zero. C) The THS angle of attack must be adjusted according to the aircraft's CG position. D) The THS elevator angle must be adjusted according to the aircraft's CG position.

118. An incorrectly set THS can cause:Mark all correct answers. A) An excessively rapid pitch-up on take-off, leading to a tail-strike. B) A reduced rate of rotation on take-off, leading to a dangerously increased take-off roll. C) Critical loss of elevator authority in flight. D) Fin stall in a crosswind take-off.

119. If a THS runaway is detected by the crew, the 2 most important immediate actions are: A) To counter the pitching moments and hold the aircraft in a sensible attitude. B) To electrically isolate the THS as soon as possible to prevent it from reaching full deflection. C) To decrease airspeed to increase the effectiveness of the THS. D) To increase airspeed to give more effectiveness to the elevator.

120. Following a nose-down THS runaway: A) Pitch authority may be severely limited. B) The range of elevator movement will be severely limited. C) The elevator will be aerodynamically less effective. D) Increase the thrust (on an aircraft with underslung engines) to restore pitch authority.

121. If the CG position is beyond its __________ limit, a lot of up-elevator will be required just to remain level. You may have insufficient elevator authority during the landing flare. A) forward. B) aft. C) airborne.

122. If the CG position is beyond its __________ limit, the aircraft will be unstable and you may not have enough elevator pitch authority to recover from a nose-up condition. A) aft. B) forward. C) airborne.

123. Study the arrangement of forces in this diagram. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 24. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) This aircraft is out of trim. You need to trim nose-up. B) This aircraft is in trim. C) This aircraft is out of trim. You need to trim nose-down.

124. Study the scenario shown in this diagram. Then choose the action most likely to immediately improve the situation. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 24. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) Reduce thrust. B) Reduce speed. C) Increase speed. D) Extend flap.

125. Which of these arrangements of forces represents straight, level and unaccelerated flight? A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D.

126. In straight, level and unaccelerated flight L=__________ and T=__________. A) W; D. B) D; W.

127. In this diagram the centre of pressure is marked with the letter __________ and the centre of gravity is marked with the letter __________. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 25. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) B; A. B) A; B. C) A; A. D) B; B.

128. The forces perpendicular to the climb are: components of weight and components of __________. A) lift B) drag

129. W cos y gives the component of weight acting __________ the flight path. A) perpendicular to. B) along. C) in the opposite direction along.

130. A prolonged climb at a constant rate of climb and thrust will result in a steadily decreasing __________. A) IAS B) alpha

131. In level flight, when the CP and CG are in their usual positions, there is a residual __________ pitching moment which must be counterbalanced by a force produced by the tailplane. This requires the wings to create __________ lift resulting in trim drag. A) nose-down; more. B) nose-up; more. C) nose-down; less. D) nose-up; less.

132. Study these arrangements of forces for an aircraft in level flight. Given that the aircraft is in equilibrium, which of the following statements are true?Mark all correct answers. A) All 3 diagrams depict steady, level and unaccelerated flight. B) The pitching moment in A is nose-down. C) The arrangement of forces in B are typical for a CAT aircraft with underslung engines. D) The T/D couple in C creates a nose-up pitching moment.

133. The forces parallel to the flight path in a power-on descent are __________, drag and a component of __________. A) thrust; weight. B) lift; weight.

134. The forces perpendicular to the flight path in a descent are __________ and a component of __________. A) lift; weight. B) thrust; weight.

135. Study these diagrams and then identify which of the following statements are correct.Mark all correct answers. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 27. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) None of these conditions indicate total engine failure. B) To maintain a stable speed in the descent, aircraft C must select a lower nose attitude. C) Aircraft A is speed-stable in the descent. D) Aircraft B is speed-stable in the descent.

136. The shallowest glide angle is achieved when the aircraft is gliding: A) At the speed which equates to the best L/D ratio. B) At the speed which equates to 4° alpha. C) At the slowest IAS possible without stalling. D) At a ratio of 20:1.

137. The best L/D ratio occurs at __________. The shallowest glide is achieved by flying at the speed which equates to this value. A) VMD B) VREF

138. The forces acting on an aircraft in the glide are:Mark all correct answers. A) Lift. B) Weight. C) Drag. D) Thrust.

139. A single-engine light aircraft experiences engine failure at 6000 ft above ground level. It has an L/D ratio of 12:1. How many nautical miles can the aircraft glide before it reaches the surface? A) 11.8 nm. B) 11.8 km. C) 5 nm. D) 12 nm.

140. A single-engine light aircraft experiences engine failure. The pilot wishes to maximise the amount of airborne time she has to attempt one or more restarts. Best glide speed for her aircraft is 65 kt. What speed should she fly at? A) 50 kt B) 114 kt C) 60 kt D) 65 kt.

141. 2 aircraft of different masses are otherwise identical. One has a mass of 2200 kg, the other has a mass of 3000 kg. Both are attempting to glide for maximum range. Mark 2 correct answers. A) In still-air conditions, both aircraft have the same gliding range and the same glide angle. B) The heavier aircraft will have the longest gliding range in a headwind. C) The lighter aircraft will have the longest gliding range in still-air conditions. D) The heavier aircraft will have the longest gliding range in still-air conditions. E) Both aircraft have the same gliding range in still-air conditions but the heavier aircraft will glide at a steeper angle. F) In still-air conditions, both aircraft have the same gliding range, the same glide angle and the same gliding time.

142. Devices which increase drag, such as flaps and landing gear, __________ the L/D ratio and so reduce gliding range. A) reduce. B) increase. C) have no effect on.

143. A headwind during the glide __________ gliding range and has __________ effect on endurance. A) reduces; no. B) increases; an adverse. C) reduces; a beneficial. D) increases; no.

144. A tailwind during the glide __________ gliding range and has __________ effect on endurance. A) increases; no. B) reduces; no. C) increases; an adverse. D) reduces; a beneficial.

145. The rate of descent for a given angle, depends on the aircraft’s __________. A) TAS B) IAS

146. A single-engine aircraft experiences complete engine failure. The pilot quickly reduces speed to VMD. At this speed the 2000 kg aircraft produces 4000 newtons of drag. Its glide angle in still-air conditions is: A) 11.5º B) 0.2º C) 0.003º D) 12º

147. The horizontal component of __________ provides the centripetal force to turn the aircraft. A) lift. B) thrust. C) drag.

148. The equal and opposite reaction to centripetal force is an apparent force called centrifugal force. The amount of centrifugal force is directly equivalent to the wing's __________ __________ A) load factor B) aspect ratio C) CL

149. An aircraft is flying a level turn at 30° AoB. The load factor is: A) 1.15 g B) 0.866 g C) 1 g D) 2 g

150. The angle of bank required for a given radius of turn depends only on the aircraft's __________. A) TAS B) IAS

151. A Diamond DA-42, with gear and flap up, is flying a 4 nm radius turn at 165 kt. An Airbus A380 is also flying a 4 nm radius turn at 180 kt, but with gear and flap down. A) The Airbus has the greater angle of bank. B) Both aircraft have the same angle of bank. C) The DA-42 has the greater angle of bank. D) Both aircraft have the same angle of bank but experience different load factors.

152. Which of the following statements about turning are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Extra thrust is required in a level turn because of the increase in alpha. B) Extra thrust is required in a level turn to prevent the aircraft from decelerating. C) A level turn always requires an increase in alpha. D) No extra thrust is required when the turn is flown level.

153. Study this diagram. Diagnose the aircraft's condition, and then select the most appropriate response from the options below. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 31. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) The aircraft needs more alpha to increase the size of the lift vector. B) The aircraft is in balanced, level flight but needs extra thrust. C) The aircraft requires more angle of bank to increase the total reaction. D) The aircraft needs less angle of bank to remain level at the same turn radius.

154. If TAS doubles, the radius of turn __________ and the rate of turn __________. A) quadruples; halves. B) doubles; doubles. C) quadruples; doubles. D) halves; quadruples.

155. An aircraft is flying a level turn at 120 kt TAS and 30º AoB. What is its radius of turn. A) 0.62 km B) 0.54 km C) 2.5 km D) 0.74 nm

156. Which 2 of the following statements about turning is/are correct? A) Speed limits are imposed on instrument procedures to limit the aircraft's radius of turn. B) Speeds limits are imposed on instrument procedures to keep the aircraft within the procedure's protected airspace. C) Speed limits are imposed on instrument procedures to limit the aircraft's rate of turn. D) Safe separation from terrain cannot be guaranteed if an aircraft flies at less than the designated speed limit for the procedure.

157. The rate of turn of an aircraft, in degrees of heading change per second, is called __________ velocity. A) angular B) rotational C) centrifugal

158. A Rate 1 turn is __________. A) 3° per second. B) 6° per second. C) 9° per second. D) 1° per second.

159. When flying a Rate 1 turn, it takes __________ to fly a 180 degree turn. A) 1 minute. B) 2 minutes. C) 30 seconds. D) 10 minutes.

160. In a turn where the angle of bank, forward velocity and load factor are harmonised, the turn is said to be __________. A) coordinated B) maximised

161. Excessive angle of bank in a turn can result in __________. A) slip. B) skid.

162. Excessive rudder in a turn can result in __________. A) skid. B) slip.

163. Which 2 of the following statements about the use of rudder in the turn is/are correct? A) Use of rudder to accelerate the roll into the turn can result in excessive loads on the fin. B) Using rudder to tighten the turn on finals is ineffective and dangerous. C) Using rudder to accelerate the rate of roll into a turn is a valid technique on CAT aircraft. D) Using rudder to tighten the turn reduces the turn rate.

164. When entering ground effect, maintaining the same coefficient of lift, CL, requires:

165. The following factors increase stall speed:

166. Considering the effect of wing downwash on the direction of the airflow approaching the tailplane, when flaps are extended the tailplane's negative angle of attack:

167. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane enters ground effect:

168. The purpose of correctly setting the leading and trailing edge devices on the wing of an aeroplane during take-off, approach and landing is to:

169. Due to a mechanical failure, the flaps are only extended in one of the wings. What will happen?

170. What will happen in ground effect?

171. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect:

172. A swept-back wing, in comparison to a straight wing, has an increased tendency to:

173. The pilot of a light aeroplane is flying at a speed below the normal cruising speed, in a gentle turn to allow a passenger to look at something interesting on the ground. Which of the following might occur to warn the pilot that the aircraft is approaching the stall? 1. Heavy buffet of the elevator before approaching the stall, 2. Significant pitch-up of the nose immediately before the stall, 3. The audible stall warning sounds, 4. The controls become light and less effective close to but before the stall.

174. Which stall-detection device uses the movement of the leading-edge stagnation point to detect a stall?

175. A pilot is flying an aeroplane whose clean configuration stall speed is 60 kt. While cruising at 95 kt the pilot has to take avoiding action against another aeroplane. The pilot banks the aeroplane sharply and during this manoeuvre, the aeroplane stalls. Why did the aeroplane stall at 95 kt?

176. What is "Deterrent Buffet"?

177. During an normal spin recovery:

178. Which of the following statements about buffet or stall is correct?

179. An aerodynamic balancing device, which makes it possible for a large surface to be deflected by a relatively small control force, is called:

180. When comparing an elevator trim system with a stabiliser trim system, which of these statements is correct?

181. Differential aileron deflection:

182. Mass balancing of control surfaces is used to: