RNAV 01

1. What is the approximate speed of light? A) 3 x 10⁸ m/s B) 3 x 10⁸ nm/s C) 162 x 10³ km/s D) 3 x 10⁸ km/s

2. What is described by the maximum deflection in the oscillation of a (sinusoidal) wave? A) Amplitude B) Wavelength C) Refraction D) Frequency

3. Which frequency band transmits signals between 30 – 300 MHz? A) VHF B) HF C) SHF D) UHF

4. Which frequency band transmits signals on wavelengths between 1 m – 10 cm? A) UHF B) VHF C) SHF D) HF

5. Which frequency band transmits signals in the centimetric waveband? A) SHF B) UHF C) HF D) VHF

6. What frequency transmits on a wavelength of 12.5 m? A) 24 MHz B) 240 kHz C) 240 MHz D) 12.96 MHz

7. Which wavelength transmits on a frequency of 118.7 MHz? A) 253 cm B) 0.253 km C) 25.3 m D) 2.53 cm

8. Which frequency band transmits on a frequency of 1145 MHz? A) Decimetric B) Decametric C) Millimetric D) Centimetric

9. Which mode of propagation is most likely to be the primary means of propagation for a signal being transmitted on a frequency of 116.45 MHz? A) Space wave B) Mexican wave C) Sky wave D) Surface wave

10. Which mode of propagation is most likely to be the primary means of propagation for a signal being transmitted on a frequency of 388.5 KHz, at 14.30 UTC in Western Europe? A) Ground wave B) Mexican wave C) Sky wave D) Space wave

11. Which mode of propagation is most likely to be the primary means of propagation for a signal being transmitted on a frequency of 315 KHz, at 11.30 UTC in the Republic of Ireland? A) Diffraction B) Reflection C) Direct line-of-sight D) Refraction

12. Using which mode of propagation is it possible for a signal to be transmitted over long ranges on a frequency of 289 KHz, at 06.30 UTC in the USA? A) Refraction B) Direct line-of-sight C) Reflection D) Diffraction

13. The ionosphere is divided into which layers by day and by night? A) D, E, F1, F2 by day and E and F by night. B) E and F by day and D, E and F by night. C) They are the same by day and by night. D) D and E by day and F by night.

14. Which of the following forms of modulation maintains a constant frequency? A) Amplitude B) Volumetric C) Deciduous D) Frequency

15. Which form of modulation adjusts the frequency of the signal, whilst maintaining a constant amplitude? A) Frequency B) Amplitude C) Pulse D) Phase

16. A communications signal is being transmitted over a maximum range of 40 nm, using a 25 watt transmitter? What minimum power is required to increase the range to 60 nm? A) 60 watts B) 40 watts C) 55 watts D) 25 watts

17. Which of the following ITU codes describes a carrier wave with amplitude modulated speech, as used for communication (VHF-COM)? A) A3E B) A2A C) A1A D) A8W

18. Which device is described as an electrical device which converts electrical power into radio waves, and vice versa? A) Antenna B) Kalman Filter C) Transmitter D) ADC

19. Which of the following is the weakening or cancelling out of a signal? A) Attenuation B) Fading C) Absorption D) Interference

20. An aircraft is flying away from a ground station, whilst transmitting a signal at a frequency of 134.975 MHz. What is the approximate frequency being received at the ground station? A) Slightly less than 134.975 MHz. B) Significantly more than 134.975 MHz. C) 134.975 MHz. D) More than 134.975 MHz.

21. Modulation types:Please mark all correct answers. A) Phase. B) Amplitude. C) Frequency. D) Pulse. E) Directional. F) Omnidirectional.

22. Which of the following are types of antenna:Please mark all correct answers. A) Slotted planar array. B) Dipole. C) Loop. D) Parabolic dish. E) Kalman. F) Slatted dish.

23. The 3 main types of polarisation are: A) Elliptical. B) Linear. C) Circular. D) Parabolic. E) Reflective.

24. The modes of radio propagation are:Please mark all correct answers. A) Diffraction. B) Direct. C) Refraction. D) Reflection. E) In-direct. F) Interaction.

25. Which of the following are propagation errors:Please mark all the correct answers. A) Fading. B) Attenuation. C) Absorption. D) Interference. E) Reflection. F) Refraction.

26. Which of the following ITU abbreviations are commonly used in aviation:Please mark all the correct answers. A) A3E B) N0N C) A1A D) A2A E) A8W

27. __________ : a complete series of values of a periodical process. A) Cycle B) Frequency C) Wavelength D) Amplitude

28. __________ : is the number of complete cycles in one second, expressed in Hertz (Hz). A) Frequency B) Cycle C) Wavelength D) Amplitude

29. __________ : the physical distance travelled by one complete wave in one cycle. A) Wavelength B) Cycle C) Frequency D) Amplitude

30. __________ : the maximum deflection in the oscillation of a (sinusoidal) wave. A) Amplitude B) Cycle C) Frequency D) Wavelength

31. Wavelength is __________ proportional to the frequency. A) inversely B) directly C) sinusoidal

32. Phase __________ : is the fraction of one wavelength, expressed in degrees between 0° and 360°. A) angle B) amplitude C) difference D) frequency

33. Phase __________ : the angular difference in phase angle between the corresponding points of 2 cycles of equal frequency/wavelength, measured in degrees. A) difference B) amplitude C) frequency D) angle

34. Radio signal frequency: the frequency of the __________ wave. A) carrier B) modulated

35. Radio waves comprise: a carrier wave and information, modulated on upper and lower __________ bands. A) side B) level C) air

36. An antenna or aerial, is a device which converts __________ power into radio waves, and vice versa. A) electrical B) sound C) radio wave

37. Radio wave: an electromagnetic wave, comprising:E and H fields __________ to each other. A) perpendicular B) parallel C) proportional

38. Radio wave: an electromagnetic wave, comprising:E field aligned with the __________ . A) antenna B) magnetic North C) magnetic South

39. __________ propagation: signal reflected from surfaces near the receiver arrives at the receiver from several directions almost simultaneously. A) Multi-path B) Ground C) Space D) Sky

40. __________ waves - line-of-sight signal, directly from transmitter to receiver. A) Space B) Ground C) Sky D) Multi-path

41. __________ waves - a form of surface wave, diffracted along surface of Earth. A) Ground B) Space C) Sky D) Multi-path

42. __________ waves - signal refracted from E and F layers of ionosphere. A) Sky B) Space C) Ground D) Multi-path

43. VHF, UHF, SHF and EHF propagate as direct line-of-sight __________ wave. A) Space B) Ground C) Sky D) Multi-path

44. __________ distance: the distance from the transmitter to the position of the first returning sky wave. A) Skip B) Sky C) Multi-path

45. __________ space: the gap between the end of the ground wave and the first returning sky wave. Also known as the skip zone. A) Dead B) Space C) Carrier

46. Doppler Effect: the __________ of a wave increases or decreases if there is relative motion between the transmitter and the receiver. A) frequency B) amplitude C) wavelength D) cycle

47. Pulses are defined by:Pulse __________ - duration in time of a pulse, measured in microseconds. A) length B) amplitude C) wavelength D) frequency

48. Pulses are defined by:Pulse __________ - contained in a single pulse. A) power B) amplitude C) wavelength D) frequency

49. What does the acronym VDF stand for? A) VHF Direction Finding B) Vertical Direction Finding C) VHF Distance Finder D) Visual Direction Finding

50. What airborne equipment is required to obtain VDF information from a ground station? A) VHF COMM transceiver. B) VHF NAV receiver. C) VHF COMM receiver. D) VDF transmitter.

51. What Q code refers to the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the ground station? A) QDM B) QDR C) QUJ D) QTE

52. What Q code refers to the magnetic bearing from the ground station? A) QDR B) QUJ C) QTE D) QDM

53. What information relating to the position of the aircraft can be gained from a single VDF station? A) Single line of position only. B) Range only. C) Position fix. D) Line of position plus range.

54. What is the name of the process used to fix an aircraft’s position using VDF lines of position? A) Triangulation. B) Ambulation. C) Progression. D) Trilateration.

55. What is the minimum number of VDF stations required to triangulate a position fix for an aircraft?

56. What is the maximum theoretical range that a VDF ground station, elevation 855 ft amsl, can receive a signal from an aircraft, in level flight at 4000 ft amsl? A) 211 km B) 114 km C) 182 km D) 345 km

57. What is the accuracy definition for a Class B QDM? A) +/-5° B) +/-2° C) +/-10° D) +/-15°

58. What is the accuracy definition for a Class A QDM? A) +/-2° B) +/-5° C) +/-10° D) +/-15°

59. What is the accuracy definition for a Class C QDM? A) +/-10° B) +/-15° C) +/-5° D) +/-2°

60. The line-of-sight range is limited by the __________ of the Earth. A) curvature B) density C) atmosphere

61. Synchronous transmissions cause __________ errors, which can cause erroneous bearings. A) multi-path B) curvature C) syncronous

62. What information can be obtained from a simple primary surveillance radar system? A) Bearing and distance. B) Distance only. C) Bearing only. D) Squawk code.

63. What techniques do primary surveillance radar systems use to obtain information? A) Pulse and echo. B) Inverse square process. C) Interrogation and reply. D) Doppler shift.

64. Ground weather radar system is a form of which type of radar system? A) Remote sensing radar. B) Secondary surveillance radar. C) Pulse radar system. D) X-ray radar system.

65. What is the term given to the time taken for the pulse to travel from the radar to the target and back to the radar? A) Propagation delay. B) Pulse length. C) Pulse duration. D) Pulse repetition frequency.

66. What system is used by air traffic controllers for the in-flight identification of aircraft not fitted with transponders? A) Primary surveillance radar. B) Aerodrome movement surface radar. C) In-flight movement detector. D) Airborne weather radar.

67. Which of the following do primary surveillance radar systems use to determine maximum range (select all that apply)? A) Pulse power. B) Frequency used. C) Height of radar antenna. D) Height of aircraft. E) Pulse repetition frequency (PRF). F) Pulse length. G) Beam width. H) Bearing of radar antenna. I) Shape of radar antenna. J) Beam tilt angle.

68. Modern radar systems use inputs from various __________ to generate a display. A) sensors B) individuals C) reports

69. What are the 2 main functions of an airborne weather radar system? A) Detection of adverse weather and ground navigation. B) Detection of thunderstorms and in-flight icing. C) Detection of cumulonimbus clouds and turbulence. D) Detection of turbulence and rain.

70. What is the approximate wavelength of an airborne weather radar system? A) 3 cm B) 30 cm C) 0.3 cm D) 0.3 m

71. In which axes are modern airborne weather radar systems gyroscopically stabilised? A) Pitch and roll. B) Roll and yaw. C) Pitch, roll and yaw. D) Pitch and yaw.

72. Modern radar systems use which type of beam for the detection of weather systems? A) Pencil/conical beam B) Lateral beam C) Spoil beam D) Fan beam

73. What is the beam width normally used by modern radar systems for the detection of weather systems? A) 3 – 5° B) 10° C) 1° D) 85°

74. What waveband do airborne weather radars typically operate in? A) Centimetric B) Millimetric C) Decimetric D) Metric

75. For what reason should airborne weather radar systems be used with caution on the ground? A) Transmission of microwaves, potentially harmful to people and animals. B) Disruption of navigation systems. C) False indications from other aircraft, that can be mistaken as cumulonimbus clouds. D) They consume too much power on the ground, owing to the number of reflections.

76. What is the order of colours, with increasing intensity of precipitation, on a modern airborne weather radar system? A) Green, Amber, Red, Magenta B) Black, White, Amber, Red C) Amber, Red, Magenta, Green D) Black, Amber, Red, Green

77. What is a potential threat to the safety of a flight by setting the tilt of the airborne weather radar beam too high during a climb? A) The beam may not detect the dry, frozen ice particles in the upper sections of thunderstorms. B) Interference from satellite signals of similar frequencies may interfere with the beam, causing false readings. C) The aircraft may climb through its own beam, causing false reflections. D) The higher the beam is tilted the less power that is available to reflect from thunderstorms.

78. By what angle should a 4° beam be tilted to determine whether distant clouds are above the flight path of an aircraft in level flight? A) Tilt up by 2° B) Tilt up by 4° C) Tilt down by 4° D) The tilt angle should be maintained at 0° and the gain increased

79. The AWR control panel has the following controls:Mark all 4 correct answers. A) Tilt/auto-tilt switch. B) Function switch with WX, WX+T and MAP modes. C) Gain-control setting (auto/manual). D) Off/on switch. E) X-ray radar system. F) Loss-control setting (auto/manual). G) Function switch with ST, SX+S modes.

80. An AWR display uses __________ and range marker lines to indicate bearing and range to targets. A) azimuth B) beam width C) frequency control

81. The AWR system may not be able to detect anything behind __________ rain, owing to the total beam energy being __________ by the rain. A) heavy; reflected B) heavy; absorbed C) heavy; attenuated D) light; reflected

82. AWR may be used to detect turbulence and __________ indirectly by analysing the movement of water droplets. A) wind shear B) thunder C) lightning

83. What does the acronym NDB stand for? A) Non-Directional Beacon B) Near Deflective Beacon C) Navigation Database D) Node-Debugging Beacon

84. What does the acronym ADF stand for? A) Automatic Direction Finder B) Airborne Direction Finder C) Automatic Directional Filament D) Ancillary Directive Finder

85. What is the ICAO frequency range for NDB transmitters? A) 190 – 1750 KHz B) 300 KHz – 3 MHz C) 30 – 300 MHz D) 108.00 – 117.95 MHz

86. What ITU codes are assigned to NDB’s? A) N0N A1A and N0N A2A B) N0N A1A and N0N A3E C) N0N A8W and N0N A2A D) N0N A3E and N0N A8W

87. How is the N0N A1A NDB identification code heard on an ADF? A) By manual or automatic activation of the Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) circuit. B) By pressing the ANT button to activate the antenna circuit. C) By activation of the Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) circuit by pressing the IDENT button. D) By pressing the BFO button to activate the Binomial Frequency Optimisation (BFO) circuit.

88. What is the range of an NDB locator beacon? A) 10 – 25 nm B) 15 – 30 nm C) 20 – 35 nm D) 25 – 50 nm

89. An NDB is transmitting its signal from a coastal location on an island. Given that the NDB transmitter power is 2.5 KW, what are the respective ranges of the NDB over land and water? A) 100 nm and 150 nm. B) 62 nm and 125 nm. C) 125 nm and 62 nm. D) 150 nm and 100 nm.

90. What ionospheric phenomena is responsible for the propagation of NDB signals at night? A) Refracted sky wave. B) Reflected ground wave. C) Diffracted space wave. D) Diffracted sky wave.

91. Which of the following could be used with an ADF (select all 3 that apply)? A) Radio Magnetic Indicator. B) Relative Bearing Indicator (fixed card). C) Relative Bearing Indicator (moving card). D) Course Deviation Indicator. E) Omni Bearing Indicator. F) Horizontal Situation Indicator.

92. Referring to the needle indicator on the RMI, what bearing is indicated at the point of the needle? A) Magnetic or compass bearing to the NDB. B) True bearing to the NDB. C) Magnetic or compass bearing from the NDB. D) True bearing from the NDB.

93. The direct track from an aircraft’s position to an NDB is 050°T. W/V = 000°/30. TAS = 120 kt. What relative bearing to the NDB must be maintained for the aircraft to navigate to the NDB via the procedure known as homing. A) 000° B) 310° C) 050° D) 230°

94. The direct track from an aircraft’s position to an NDB is 050°T. W/V = 000°/30. TAS = 120 kt. What relative bearing to the NDB must be maintained for the aircraft to navigate directly to the NDB via the procedure known as tracking. A) 011° B) 191° C) 169° D) 349°

95. The direct track from an aircraft’s position to an NDB is 050°T. W/V = 000°/30. TAS = 120 kt. What relative bearing to the NDB must be maintained for the aircraft to navigate directly from the NDB via the procedure known as tracking. A) 169° B) 349° C) 011° D) 191°

96. When homing to an NDB with a wind from the left, what change, if any, can be expected to the aircraft heading? A) A decrease in heading with right drift. B) Constant heading. C) A decrease in heading with left drift. D) An increase in heading with left drift.

97. The direct track from an aircraft’s position to an NDB is 100°T. W/V = 240°/30. TAS = 180 kt. When homing to the NDB what change, if any, can be expected to the aircraft heading? A) An increase in heading with left drift. B) A decrease in heading with right drift. C) Constant heading. D) A decrease in heading with left drift.

98. Which of the following are errors typically associated with NDB/ADF (select all 7 that apply)? A) Absence of warning indication. B) Static. C) Coastal refraction. D) Skywaves. E) Station interference. F) Mountain effect. G) Dip error. H) Scalloping. I) Beam bends. J) Lateral lobes.

99. An aircraft is maintaining a compass bearing of 135°C. The RMI is indicating a compass bearing of 155°C to an NDB. Compass deviation = 2°E and magnetic variation = 12°W. What is the relative bearing to the NDB? A) 20° B) 340° C) 280° D) 80°

100. An aircraft is maintaining a compass bearing of 258°C. The RBI is indicating a relative bearing of 220° to an NDB. Compass deviation = 4°W and magnetic variation = 18°E. What is the true bearing to the aircraft from the NDB? A) 312° B) 242° C) 062° D) 340°

101. What is the maximum permissible tracking error when tracking to or from an NDB? A) +/- 5° B) +/- 2° C) +/- 10° D) +/- 1°

102. What type of polar radiation diagram is associated with NDB? A) Omni-directional. B) Directional. C) Lateral. D) Vertical.

103. NDB signals refract from the ionosphere at night, returning to Earth as skywaves, which mix with ground waves, causing signal __________. A) fading B) attenuation C) parallax

104. The cockpit displays indicate compass bearing to and from an NDB:__________ - at the point of the needle. A) TO B) FROM

105. The cockpit displays indicate compass bearing to and from an NDB:__________ - at the tail of the needle. A) FROM B) TO

106. When homing:__________ crosswind = __________ drift = heading decreasing. A) Left; right B) Left; left C) Right; left D) Right; right

107. When homing:__________ crosswind = __________ drift = heading increasing. A) Right; left B) Right; right C) Left; right D) Left; left

108. What is the ICAO frequency range of VORs? A) 108.00 – 117.975 MHz B) 30 – 300 MHz C) 190 – 1750 KHz D) 962 – 1213 MHz

109. What part of the ICAO frequency range of VORs is shared with ILS? A) 108.00 – 111.975 MHz B) 108.00 – 117.975 MHz C) 111.975 – 117.975 MHz D) 95.00 – 111.975 MHz

110. How is a VOR frequency differentiated from an ILS frequency? A) VOR – even number after the decimal, ILS – odd number after the decimal. B) VOR – even number before the decimal, ILS – odd number before the decimal. C) VOR – odd number before the decimal, ILS – even number before the decimal. D) VOR – odd number after the decimal, ILS – even number after the decimal.

111. How many navigational signals are transmitted by a VOR transmitter? A) 2 – reference phase and variable phase. B) 3 - reference phase, variable phase and identification. C) 2 – radial and identification. D) 4 – reference phase, variable phase, identification and ATIS.

112. What airborne equipment is required for VOR navigation (select the 2 that apply)? A) Omni-Bearing indicator. B) VHF NAV receiver. C) Relative Bearing Indicator. D) ADF receiver. E) DME receiver. F) Magnetic Compass.

113. How is a VOR radial measured? A) Phase difference between the reference and variable phase signals. B) Difference in depth of modulation between the main and side lobes. C) Frequency comparison between the 2 navigational signals. D) Doppler phase shift between the reference and lateral phase signals.

114. An aircraft is receiving 2 signals from a VOR ground transmitter, one at 135° of phase and the other at 280° of phase. What radial is the aircraft on? A) R-145° B) R-055° C) R-235° D) R-325°

115. How is a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) used to indicate the bearing to/from a VOR? A) The needle indicates magnetic bearing TO the VOR at the point of the needle. B) The needle indicates true bearing TO the VOR at the point of the needle. C) The needle indicates true bearing TO the VOR at the tail of the needle. D) The needle indicates magnetic bearing FROM the VOR at the point of the needle.

116. An aircraft’s omni-bearing indicator shows the deviation bar deflected 3 dots to the right. How far from the selected radial is the aircraft? A) 6° B) 12° C) 1.5° D) 3°

117. An aircraft’s omni-bearing indicator has a selected radial of 080°. The deviation bar is deflected 2 dots to the left and it is displaying a TO flag. The aircraft is in a quadrant defined by which 2 radials? A) 170° - 260° B) 080° - 170° C) 260° - 350° D) 350° - 080°

118. An aircraft’s omni-bearing indicator has a selected radial of 150°. The deviation bar is deflected 4 dots to the left and it is displaying a FROM flag. On which radial is the aircraft? A) 158° B) 142° C) 154° D) 222°

119. An aircraft’s omni-bearing indicator has a selected radial of 315°. The deviation bar is deflected 2 dots to the left and it is displaying a TO flag. On which radial is the aircraft? A) 131° B) 319° C) 139° D) 133°

120. What is the maximum deviation that can be shown by the deviation bar on a standard omni-bearing indicator in VOR mode? A) +/-10° B) +/-2.5° C) +/-5° D) +/-15°

121. What is the maximum permissible tracking error when tracking to or from a VOR? A) +/-5° B) +/-10° C) +/-2° D) +/-1°

122. How is a VOR radial converted into a true bearing? A) +/- magnetic variation. B) +/- magnetic deviation. C) +/- magnetic inclination. D) +/- compass deviation.

123. Between 108.00 - 111.975 MHz, the instrument landing system (ILS) uses frequencies with an __________ number after the decimal point. A) ODD B) EVEN

124. An RMI is used to indicate a __________ from a VOR: A) radial B) bearing C) distance

125. RMI Radial __________ (QDR) - at the tail of the needle. A) FROM B) TO

126. RMI Radial __________ (QDM) - at the point of the needle. A) TO B) FROM

127. Scalloping is a fluctuation of the navigation signal and occurs when signals are __________ by terrain, buildings or vehicles. A) reflected B) attenuated C) absorbed

128. What does the acronym DME stand for? A) Distance measuring equipment B) Distance mean evaluation C) Directional measuring equipment D) Direct measuring equipment

129. What are the 2 items of active equipment used in distance measurement? A) Airborne interrogator and ground-based transponder. B) Ground-based interrogator and airborne transponder. C) Airborne transponder and ground-based interrogator/responder. D) Airborne interrogator/responder and ground-based calculator.

130. What is the principle of range measurement by a DME interrogator? A) Propagation delay – time taken by signal to transmit between interrogator and transponder and back to the interrogator. B) Propagation delay – time taken by signal to transmit between transponder and interrogator and back to the transponder. C) Trilaterion – range measurements taken from 3 separate DME ground stations and a position fix established at the overlap of the 3 ranges, the range to the fix being the DME range. D) Triangulation – range measurements used to establish overlapping bearings from three separate DME ground stations, and a position fix established at the overlap of the 3 bearings, the range to the fix being the DME range.

131. What range is calculated by the DME interrogator? A) Slant range. B) User selectable range. C) RNAV computed range. D) Ground range.

132. What is a DME line of position? A) A circle with the DME transponder at the centre and the radius formed by the DME range. B) A circle with the DME transponder at the centre and the circumference formed by the DME range. C) A circle with the DME transponder at the centre and the radius formed by the ground range. D) A circle with the aircraft at the centre and the radius formed by the DME range.

133. How is a ground range calculated from a DME range? A) Ground Range² = DME Range² – Altitude² B) Ground Range = 1.2 x DME Range x Altitude C) Ground Range = ½ x DME Range x Altitude D) Ground Range = 1.23 x (√DME Range + √ Altitude)

134. An aircraft is in level flight at FL300, and receiving a signal from a DME ground station, indicating a range of 20 nm. What is the approximate ground range to the station? A) 19.4 nm B) 23.2 nm C) 5 nm D) 20.6 nm

135. A frequency of 117.25 MHz is entered into a DME airborne interrogator. What frequencies will be used by the interrogator for interrogation and reply? A) 1143 MHz and 1080 MHz B) 114.3 MHz and 108.00 MHz C) 114.3 MHz and 108.00 MHz D) 117.25 MHz for both

136. Which aircraft would a DME transponder preferentially respond to? A) The 100 aircraft with the strongest signals. B) The 100 closest aircraft. C) The 100 aircraft at the lowest altitudes. D) The 100 aircraft at the highest altitudes.

137. A VOR/DME has a common identification code of RAK, for each navigation element. On selecting NAV and DME on the aircraft avionics audio panel, how will the identification codes be heard? A) VOR x 3 at lower frequency, DME x 1 at higher frequency, in each 40 second period. B) VOR x 3 at higher frequency, DME x 1 at lower frequency, in each 40 second period. C) VOR x 3 at lower frequency, DME x 1 at higher frequency, in each 20 second period. D) VOR x 1 at lower frequency, DME x 3 at higher frequency, in each 40 second period.

138. A pilot of a civilian aircraft selects the BZ TACAN frequency of 111.9 MHz on both the aircraft’s VHF NAV receiver and DME interrogator. With a selected course of 060° set in the omni-bearing indicator (OBI) selector and the aircraft being located on a magnetic bearing of 065° from BZ, at a range of 46 nm, what indications would be expected on the OBI and DME? A) OBI = nil indications, DME = 46 B) OBI = FROM, 5° left deviation, DME = 46 C) OBI = FROM, 5° right deviation, DME = 46 D) OBI = TO, 5° right deviation, DME = 46

139. What distance would be expected on a DME interrogator, when flying a DME arc to final approach, at an altitude of 12000 ft and at a constant range of 15 nm from the DME ground station? A) 15 nm B) 15.2 nm C) 14.8 nm D) 0 nm

140. DME operates in the __________ frequency band, using __________ frequencies for interrogation and reply. A) UHF; different B) UHF; same C) VHF; different D) VHF; same

141. DME groundspeed is calculated by rate of change of __________, and reads 0 when flying a DME arc at a constant range. A) range B) height C) angle

142. International Telecommunication Union (ITU) classification abbreviations used in aviation include the (1) ____ _ abbreviation. This designates carrier wave emissions amplitude modulated with Morse code which is used by (2) _____ .

143. The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) with a frequency of 300 kHz is:

144. A dipole antenna in its simplest form, suited for a frequency of 110 MHz, ought to have a length of:

145. The wavelength of a radio signal with a frequency of 121.95 MHz is:

146. The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:

147. The wave length of a radio signal transmitted at a frequency of 118.7 MHz is:

148. Electromagnetic waves in the VLF - band have a frequency spectrum of:

149. At what speed do radio waves travel?

150. What is the approximate length of each element of a dipole antenna, tuned to a frequency of 125.00 MHz?

151. What is the simplest type of antenna called?

152. The process by which EM-energy is taken up by the atmosphere is called:

153. According to the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) code, a radio signal may be classified by three symbols. The abbreviation A3E is used for the type of transmission in which the carrier wave is:

154. What does the term 'antenna shadowing' mean?

155. How are radio waves in MF propagated?

156. Why do VHF radio signals used for communication and navigation have a limited range?

157. Refraction from ionospheric layers is used in which of the following radio frequencies:

158. The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:

159. Single Side Band (SSB) is used:

160. A vertically-mounted dipole antenna is used for RF transmissions. The receiving antenna has to be:

161. The super position of two EM-waves of the same or nearly the same frequency is called:

162. What is meant by keying in A1A modulation:

163. In which frequency band may fading occur during the twilight period?

164. Diffraction is the process by which:

165. What is correct regarding antenna shadowing?

166. A student pilot has just learnt that meteorological information for aircraft en route on long-haul flights is sent by radio. What kind of radio receiver is needed to receive this information?

167. The electromagnetic waves refracted from the E and F layers of the ionosphere are called:

168. Radio waves in the VHF and higher frequency bands propagate mainly as:

169. Modulation is:

170. An electromagnetic wave consists of an oscillating electric field (E) and an oscillating magnetic field (H). Which statement is correct?

171. A radio signal may be classified by three symbols in accordance with the ITU radio regulation e.g. A1A. Which statement is true?

172. The phase angle of a wave is:

173. Modulation is:

174. Pulse length is expressed as:

175. What is the receiver aerial location of a GNSS system?

176. In accordance with the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) a radio signal can be classified by three symbols. What is indicated by the first character of the group A1A?

177. When raising the frequency of an electromagnetic wave, the: