1. *Which of the following values regarding the chemical composition of the mature human body is correct:
a. 17 % water – 83 % dry substance
b. 29 % water – 71 % dry substance
c. 53 % water – 47 % dry substance
d. 75 % water – 25 % dry substance
e. 95 % water – 5 % dry substance
c
2. *Enzymes are such as:
a. Lipid
b. Protein
c. Monosaccharide
d. Mineral
e. Aqueous
b
3. Histogenesis is:
a. The process of multiplication and specialization of minerals, followed by the emergence of the 4 fundamental types of tissues
b. The process of cell differentiation and specialization, followed by the emergence of the 4 fundamental types of tissues
c. The process of differentiation and specialization of vitamins, followed by the emergence of the 6 fundamental types of tissues
d. The process of cell differentiation and specialization, followed by the emergence of the 12 fundamental types of tissues
e. The maturation process, followed by the appearance of the 4 fundamental types of tissues
4. Pseudostratified epithelial tissues have functions of:
a. Sensitivity
b. Forms glands parenchyma
c. Forms analyzers receptors
d. Coverage and shipping
e. Transition
d
5. By cell body shape neurons are:
a.Unipolar
b. Spherical
c.Pseudopolar
d.Multipolar
e.Pyramidal
b,e
6. The chemical composition of the mature human body, consists of the following structural components:
a. Water
b. Organic substances (carbohydrates)
c. Vitamins
d. Mineral substances
e. Organic substances (lipids)
a,b,d,e
7. The fundamental components of the eukaryotic cell are:
a. Cytoplasm
b. Mineral substances
c. Cellular membrane
d. Nucleus
e. Monosaccharides
a,c,d
8. The following are fat-soluble vitamins:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
a,d,e
9. Which of the following components are NOT steroid hormones:
a. Vasopressin
b. Estrogen
c. Androgen
d. Histamine
e. Protease
10. Centrosome:
a. Not found in nerve cell
b. It is found in the nerve cell
c. Forms the division spindle
d. Does not divide
e. It divides
12. The following are poorly specialized tissues:
a. Muscular
b. Nervous
c. Epithelial
d. Connective
e. Fibrous
Correct: c, d
13. The following are highly specialized tissues:
Correct: a, b
14. Sensory epithelia consist of:
a. Nerve cells
b. Receptor cells
c. Exocrine cells
d. Endocrine cells
e. Support cells
Correct: b, e
15. Compact bone tissue:
a. Forms the epiphysis of long bones
b. Forms the diaphysis of long bones
c. Forms superficial blades of long bones
d. Forms superficial blades of short bones
e. Forms superficial blades of wide bones
Correct: b, d, e
16. Visceral smooth muscle tissue achieves:
a. Voluntary contraction
b. Involuntary contraction
c. Rapid contraction
d. Slow contraction
e. Prolonged contraction
17. The neuron is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system and tissue able of:
a. Excitability
b. Conductivity
c. Integration
d. Multiplication
e. Regeneration
Correct: a, b, c
18. Glial cells have functions:
a. Trophic
b. Metabolic
c. Supportive
d. Reparative
e. Warning
Correct: a, b, c, d
19. Which of the following are NOT semi-hard fundamental substances:
a. Hyaline
b. Lax
c. Cross-linked
d. Fat
Correct: b, c, d
20. Hyaline cartilaginous tissue forms:
a. Costal cartilages
b. Skeleton of the embryo
c. Ear pavilion
d. Epiglottis
e. Tracheal cartilages
Correct: a, b, e
21. Fibrous cartilaginous tissue forms:
a. Interventricular discs
b. Joint menisci
c. Laryngeal cartilage
d. Intervertebral discs
e. Ear pavilion
Correct: b, d
22. Which of the following tissues are capable of regeneration:
a. Epithelial
b. Muscle
c. Connective
d. Nervous
e. Transverse
Correct: a, c
23. Cell membrane:
a. It has selective permeability
b. Provides exchange between cells and the external environment
c. It is electrically polarized and excitable
d. It has trilaminate structure
e. Does not have permeability
24. Which of the following hormones are protein in nature:
a. Insulin
b. Adrenaline
c. Secretin
d. TSH
e. LH
Correct: a, c, d, e
25. Skeletal striated muscles:
a. They are attached to bones
b. Provide voluntary nerve control
c. Have average driving speed
d. Have large cell size
e. They have unbranched fibers
Correct: a, b, d, e
26. The Golgi apparatus has functions related to:
a. ATP production
b. Cellular secretion processes
c. Compartmentalization of the cytoplasm
d. Transport of secretions
e. Production of cell membranes
27. The following tissues shall be capable of regeneration, except:
b. Connective
c. Muscular
e. Hyaline
Correct: c, d, e
28. From a functional point of view, epithelia shall be classified into:
a. Glandular
b. Sensory
c. Nervous
d. Coverage
e. Superficial
Correct: a, b, d
29. The soft connective tissues are:
a. Spongy
b. Reticular
c. Fat
d. Hyaline cartilaginous
e. Viscerally smooth
Correct: b, c
30. Striated muscle fibers are made up of:
a. Sarcolemma
b. Microfilaments
c. Sarcoplasm
d. Macrofilaments
e. Peripheral nuclei
Correct: a, c, e
31. By function neurons are grouped into:
a. Reticular
b. Sensitive
c. Motor
d. Multipolar
e. Association
Correct: b, c, e
32. The Schwann sheath consists of:
a. Neurilemma
b. Glial cells twisted around the fiber
c. Nissl corpuscles
d. Neurofibrils
e. Axoplasm
Correct: b
33. Choose the correct statement regarding the cytoplasm of the cell:
a. It is also called hyaloplasm
b. Contains only cellular organelles common to all cells
c. It has an unstructured part (cellular organelles) and a structured part (hyaloplasm)
d. It has a structured part (cellular organelles) and an unstructured part (hyaloplasm)
e. The dispersion medium is water
Correct: d
34. Ribosomes are the seat of biosynthesis for:
a. Fatty acids
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Amino acids
e. Glycogen
Correct: c
35. Choose the correct statements regarding the Golgi Apparatus:
a. It is part of the endomembrane system of the cell
b. It consists of macrovesicles and round tanks
c. It is located near the nucleus
d. It plays a role in cell secretion processes
e. It is the seat of protein synthesis
Correct: a, c, d
36. Choose the correct statements regarding the centrosome:
a. It is not found in the nervous cell
b. Contains a spherical centriole
d. Missing in blood cells
e. It plays a role in protein synthesis
37. Histogenesis is the process of:
a. Respiration and cellular oxidation
b. Intracellular digestion
c. Division spindle formation
d. Transmission of hereditary traits
e. Cell differentiation and specialization
Correct: e
38. The following tissues shall be capable of regeneration, except:
39. How can the coverage epithelium be?
a. Unistratified
b. Pseudostratified
c. Glandular
d. Multilayered
e. Sensory
40. Is the internal tunic of blood and lymphatic vessels of type?
a. Cubic simple
b. Cylindrical ciliate
c. Simple columnar
d. Pseudostratified columnar
e. Cylindrical unciliated
41. Where is elastic soft connective tissue located?
a. Internal tunic of arteries and veins
b. Aponeuroses
c. Eyes
d. Middle tunic of arteries and veins
e. Spleen
42. What type of cells is nervous tissue made of?
a. Neurofibrils
b. Nervous (glial cells)
c. Cells called neurons, lacking ribosomes
d. Nervous (neurons)
e. Glial cells (neuralgia)
Correct: d, e
43. Glandular epithelium:
a. They consist of epithelial cells
b. They have the property of releasing specific secretion products
c. They cannot lead to the release of secretion products
d. They have the property of forming the glandular parenchyma
e. They do not have the property of forming the glandular parenchyma
44. Sensory epithelia:
a. They consist of receptor cells
c. They have the property of forming the glandular parenchyma
d. Enter the structure of analyzers
e. Enter the structure of peripheral segments
Correct: a, d, e
45. Loose connective tissue:
a. Forms the hypodermis
b. It is the most widespread of the connective tissues
c. It is the least widespread of the connective tissues
d. Accompanies other tissues
e. It has no trophic, supportive and defensive role
46. Fat tissue:
a. It can be found in the hypodermis
b. Forms the body's fat deposit
c. Does not form the body's fat deposit
d. Constitutes the thermal insulator of the body
e. It does not constitute the thermal insulator of the body
47. Nervous tissue:
a. It consists of specialized cells
b. It consists of neurons and glial cells
c. It consists of epithelial cells
d. It consists of nephrons
e. Glial cells are also called neuroglia
48. The cell has the following properties:
a. Growth
b. Differentiation
c. Self-reproduction
d. Self-tuning
e. Auto reset
49. What are the 4 fundamental types of tissues:
e. Serous
50. What are NOT the fundamental components of the eukaryotic cell:
e. Protein substances
51. What are the structural components of the cytoplasm:
a. Hyaloplasm
b. Cellular organelles
c. Inclusions
d. Chromatin
e. Nucleolus
52. What are the fundamental components of the eukaryotic cell:
53. Choose the correct statements regarding neurons:
a. They are the morphofunctional units of nervous tissue
b. They have a great capacity for division
c. They do not divide
d. They have a short life
e. Generates and transmits impulses
54. The muscle cell-specific organelles are:
a. Ribosomes
b. Lysosomes
c. Myofibrils
e. Nissl Bodies
55. Choose the FALSE statements about simple cylindrical epithelium:
a. It is a covering epithelium
b. It is a glandular epithelium
c. Forms the mucosa of the digestive tract
d. It occurs in the pulmonary alveoli
e. It includes cylindrical cells that may present cilia or microvilli at the apical pole
56. The simple cuboidal epithelium is present at the level of:
a. Pulmonary alveoli
b. Proximal segment of the nephron
c. Bronchioles
d. Stomach
e. Uterus
57. Choose the correct statements regarding simple cylindrical epithelium:
58. The simple columnar epithelium is present at the level of:
a. Bladder
b. Epidermis
c. Pulmonary alveoli
d. Internal tunic of blood vessels
e. Renal glomeruli
59. Visceral smooth muscle tissue is present at:
a. Myocardium
b. Blood vessels
c. Digestive tract
d. Airways
e. Bladder
60. Unit smooth muscle tissue is present at:
b. Iris of the eyeball
c. Pharynx
61. Myofibrils:
a. They are intracytoplasmic organelles specific to striated muscle fibers
b. They consist of clear and dark disks
c. They are organized into sarcomeres
d. They are nonspecific intracytoplasmic organelles
e. They are not organized into sarcomeres
62. Neurons:
a. It represents the morphofunctional unit of the nervous system
b. They are all the same dimensions
c. They all have the same shape
d. They have varied sizes
e. They have different shapes
63. The neuron consists of:
a. Membrane
b. Cytoplasm
c. Nucleus
d. Dendrites
e. More axons
64. Choose the correct affiliations relating to motor neurons:
a. Causes skeletal muscle contraction
b. Causes smooth muscle contraction
c. They are multipolar neurons
d. They are unipolar neurons
e. They are bipolar neurons
65. Choose the correct statements regarding association neurons:
a. They are large neurons
b. They are neurons of small size
c. They connect sensory neurons with motor neurons
d. They are also called intercalary neurons
e. They cause skeletal muscle contraction
66. Dendrites are extensions:
a. Of the Schwann cells
b. Of ependymal cells
c. Of astrocytes
d. Of neurons
e. Thicker in their initial portion
67. The epidermis is:
a. A multilayered epithelial tissue
b. A unified epithelial tissue
c. A keratinized epithelial tissue
d. A non-keratinized epithelial tissue
e. Dense connective tissue
68. The types of tissue that originate in the ectoderm are:
a. Nervous tissue
b. Epithelial tissue (epidermis and appendages)
c. Connective tissue
d. Muscle tissue
e. Epithelial tissue (pleura, pericardium, peritoneum)
69. Unstratified epithelia are:
a. Simple columnar
b. Simple cubic
c. Simple cylindrical
d. Transition
e. Layered columnar
70. Choose the correct statements regarding the functions of cell organelles of the cytoplasm:
a. Transmission of hereditary traits
c. Generation and conduction of excitation
d. Cellular respiration
e. Biosynthesis of specific proteins
71. Ribosomes are the seat of synthesis:
c. Protein
1. Which of the following bones are paired:
a. Frontal
b. Occipital
c. Zygomatic
d. Atlas
e. Thighbone
2. *The skeleton of the head comprises two regions:
a. Scapular and tibial girdle
b. Sacrum bone and coccyx
c. Spinous apophysis and ribs
d. Neurocranium and viscerocranium
e. Sacral and visceral region
3. *The neurocranium is also referred to:
a. Face bone
b. Skull
c. Headskeleton
d. Skeleton of limbs
e. Jaw skeleton
4. The viscerocranium comprises the following bones:
a. Temporal bones
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Mandible
d. Nasal bones
e. Zygomatic bones
5. *Choose unpaired bones of the neurocranium:
a. Temporal and parietal
b. Jaw and mandible
c. Nasal and lacrimal
d. Radius and ulna
e. Frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid and occipital
6. *The temporal and parietal bones are:
a. Paired bones
b. Bones of the neurocranium
c. Bones of the skeleton of the head
d. Bones of the skull
e. All answers are correct
7. *The skeleton of the trunk includes:
a. Bones of the chest and limbs
b. Pelvic and scapular girdle
c. Bones of the chest and lower limbs
d. Spine, ribs and sternum
e. Skeleton of the head and chest
8. *The sacrum bone is formed by welding to:
a. 7 vertebrae
b. 5 vertebrae
c. 12 vertebrae
d. 4-5 reduced vertebrae
e. No answer is correct
9. *The coccygeal region (coccyx) consists of:
b. 8 vertebrae
d. 6 vertebrae
10. *What are the structural components of a typical vertebra (thoracic vertebra)?:
a. Body located posteriorly and vertebral arch located medially delimiting the spinous orifice
b. Body located medially and vertebral arch located posteriorly delimiting the sacral orifice
c. Body located anteriorly and vertebral arch located posteriorly delimiting the vertebral orifice
d. Thoracic arch and vertebral axis delimiting the sacral orifice
e. All answers are false
11. *The first two vertebrae of the cervical region are called:
a. Sacrum and ethmoid
b. Atlas and axis
c. Coccyx and ethmoid
d. Atlas and ethmoid
e. Axis and sacrum
12. The ribs, numbering 12 pairs, are grouped into three categories:
a. Floating ribs - pairs VIII, IX and X
b. False ribs - VIII, IX and X pairs
c. Floating ribs - XI and XII pairs
d. True ribs - pairs from I to VII
e. True ribs - pairs from I to IX
13. Choose the correct statements regarding the 12 pairs of ribs:
a. Pairs I through VII consist of a bone arch and costal cartilage
b. In pairs XI and XII, costal cartilage is missing
c. In pairs VIII, IX and X, costal cartilage is missing
d. Pairs I through X consist of a bone arch and costal cartilage
e. In pairs IX and XI, costal cartilage is missing
14. *The ribs articulate with the sternum as follows:
a. On the anterior face of the sternum by means of costal cartilages
b. On the posterior face of the sternum by means of costal cartilages
c. On the anterolateral face of the sternum by means of epiphyseal cartilages
d. On the sides of the sternum by means of costal cartilages
15. The sternum consists of:
a. Body
b. Manubrium
c. Sphenoid bone
d. Hyoid
e. Xiphoid appendix
16. The skeleton of the lower limbs comprises:
a. Free limb, comprising femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges
b. Pelvic girdle, formed by metatarsal bones resulting from welding the ilium with the ischium and pubis
c. Pelvic girdle, formed by dorsal bones resulting from the welding of the ilium with the ischium and pubis
d. Pelvic girdle, formed by the coccoidal bones resulting from the welding of the ilium with the ischium and pubis
Correct: a, d
17. *The peripheral segments of some analyzers are found at:
a. Rib cage
b. Fixed joint
c. Movable joint
d. Neurocranium
e. Viscerocranium
18. *Bones consist of:
a. Compact bone tissue
b. Spongy bone tissue
d. Blood vessels and nerve fibers
19. Depending on the mobility they allow, joints are classified into:
a. Semi-movable joints
b. Semi-fixed joints
c. Mobile joints
d. Fixed joints
e. Mixed joints
20. *Synarthroses are:
a. Mobile joints
b. Semi-movable joints
c. Joints allowing only rotational movement
e. Joints that allow flexion
21. Mobile joints allow the following movements:
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Abduction
d. Rotation
e. Do not allow movements
22. *Amphiarthrosis are:
23. Ossification of the membrane, or endoconnective, proceeds in three phases as follows:
a. Destruction phase
b. Protein phase
c. Ossification phase
d. Mineral phase
e. Reshuffle phase
24. *Ossein is secreted by:
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Fibrinogen
d. Collagen
e. Connective tissue
25. The mineral phase of membrane ossification consists of:
a. Impregnation of the preosseous substance with salts of Ca and P (tricalcium phosphate)
b. Conversion of preosseous substance into bone substance
c. Transformation of osteoblasts into osteocytes
d. Transformation of embryonic cartilage into bone cartilage
e. Multiplication of cartilaginous cells
26. Ossification of cartilage or endochondral is characterized and consists of:
a. Formation of the bones of the chest and pelvis
b. It consists in replacing the spongy skeleton with bone tissue
c. Red marrow formation and its ossification
d. Formation of bones of limbs and base of the skull
e. It consists in replacing the embryonic cartilaginous skeleton with bone tissue
27. Ossification of cartilage, or endochondral, proceeds in three phases as follows:
a. Protein phase
b. Destruction phase
c. Elimination phase
d. Ossification phase
28. *In the initial stages of embryonic development, the skeleton consists of:
a. Short and thin bones
b. Undeveloped bones without mineral salts
c. Thick collagen fibers
d. Connective membranes and hyaline cartilage
29. *The process of ossification of connective membranes and cartilage is called:
a. Osteopoiesis
b. Osteoblastesis
c. Osteoclasthesis
d. Osteogenesis
e. Neogenesis
30. Select the correct statements:
a. In the embryonic phase from the fourth week, ossification processes begin
b. The increase in bone length is achieved in the growth cartilages between the diaphysis and epiphysis
c. The increase in bone thickness is achieved at the periosteum
d. The process of ossification of connective membranes and cartilage is called osteopoiesis
e. Bones grow in length, width and thickness until the age of approx. 25 years
Correct: a, b, c, e
31. The mechanical function of the skeletal system provides:
a. Storage of mineral salts
b. Support the soft tissues of the body
c. Locomotion function
d. The protective function of some vital organs
e. Formation of figurative elements of blood
32. Choose the correct statements regarding osteoclasts:
a. It represents the connective shell of cartilage
b. Features multinucleated giant cells
c. They play a role in bone reshuffling
d. They have very small cytoplasmic extensions
e. They are cells with origin in the hematogenous marrow
33. Synarthrosis:
a. They are fixed joints
b. They are joints that allow flexion and extension movements
c. They are divided into amphiarthrosis and arthrodias
d. The bones are joined by fibrous, cartilaginous or bone connective tissue
e. This type of joint allows reduced movements
34. Diarthrosis:
a. Does not possess articular cavity
b. This type of joint allows reduced movements
c. In the joint cavity there may be articular discs or menisci made of fibrous cartilage
d. They are joints that allow movements of flexion, extension, abduction, rotation or combined movements
e. They are fixed, immobile joints
35. Sprains:
a. It represents the interruption of the anatomical continuity of a bone
b. It is an exaggeration of the curvature of the thoracic spine
c. It is constituted by sudden, uncontrolled movements, accidental falls, accidents at work, traffic or sport
d. They are injuries produced at the level of some joints by performing movements beyond physiological limits
e. It signifies the dislocation of the constituent elements of a joint
36. Dislocations:
c. It is constituted by the elongation of the component ligaments of a joint
d. It signifies the permanent displacement of the bony extremities in a joint
e. Symptoms are bruising, local pain, abnormal mobility and sometimes paralysis
37. The viscerocranium comprises the following bones, except:
a. Ethmoid
b. Nasal
c. Lacrimal
d. Jaw
e. Sphenoid bone
Correct: a, e
38. The neurocranium consists of the following bones:
a. Mandible
b. Jaw
c. Nasal bones
d. Frontal
e. Occipital
39. Select the correct statements:
a. The ribs are osteo-cartilaginous arches
b. The ribs are located in the sides of the chest
c. The ribs number 12 pairs
d. The costal cartilage joins the spine
e. Ribs are arches that extend from the spine to the sternum
40. Choose false statements about the sternum:
a. It is a long bone
b. Anterior located
c. It consists of manubrium, body and vermiform appendix
d. It is a wide bone
e. Part of the thorax
41. *Ossification:
a. It is of two kinds: desmal and membrane
b. It is of two kinds: desmal and enchondral
c. It is only of one kind: desmal
d. It is of only one kind: membrane
e. It is of only one kind: enchondral
42. *The skeleton comprises:
a. Only wide bones, where width and thickness predominate
b. All bones placed in anatomical position
c. Only long bones like ribs
d. Long bones, in which width and height predominate
e. Broad bones, in which width predominates
43. The following regions are NOT part of the trunk skeleton:
a. Bones of the chest and upper limbs
b. Pelvic girdle
c. Scapular girdle
e. Free upper limb
44. The scapular girdle comprises:
a. Collar bone
b. Shoulder blade
c. Radius
d. Ulna
e. Humerus
45. *The bones of the viscerocranium include:
a. Maxilla
b. Ethmoid
c. Sphenoid
d. Temporal
e. Frontal
Correct: a
46. *The spine consists of a number of:
a. 32-33 vertebrae
b. 33-35 vertebrae
c. 30-31 vertebrae
d. 33-34 vertebrae
e. 34-35 vertebrae
47. The category of floating ribs includes the following pairs:
a. VIII
b. IX
c. XI
d. XII
e. X
1. Select false statements about the muscular system:
a. The totality of muscles in the body forms the muscular system
b. Muscles make up about 85% of body weight
c. By place in the body and performed function, muscles are classified into skeletal and visceral
d. Muscle contraction is achieved by filling the spaces with calcium
e. The innervation of the muscles is done by the bone tissue that takes over the movement
2. *Choose the correct statement regarding skeletal muscles:
a. They are active components of the locomotor system
b. They are striated muscles and constitute the anatomical-physiological structuring of voluntary striated tissue
c. Their contraction is carried out at the command of the CNS
d. Maintain body position
3. Given the structure of skeletal striated muscles, the muscle consists of:
a. Ligaments and tendons
b. Muscular body and tendons
c. Muscular body consisting of striated muscle tissue, connective tissue, blood vessels, nerves
d. Skin and ligaments
4. Epimysium, perimysium and endomysium, these 3 separation sheaths have the coating of the:
a. Muscle fibers
b. Primary and secondary sheaths
c. Primary and secondary fascial faces
d. Ligaments
e. Teguments
5. *Insertion of muscles on bones is performed as follows:
a. The union of ligaments into a myelin sheath through which muscles are inserted onto bones
b. The union of the three connective sheaths forming the tendons through which muscles are inserted on the bones
c. Uniting the skin in a lysine sheath through which muscles are inserted on the bones
d. The muscles are inserted onto the bones by the innervation of the striated muscles
6. By the number of muscle insertion heads on the bones, we distinguish:
a. Only one
b. Biceps
c. Triceps
d. Quadriceps
e. Tetraceps
7. *Muscle contraction is achieved by high energy expenditure, this implying:
a. High intake of salts in the Na-P reaction
b. High intake of minerals in the Ca-P reaction
c. High collagen intake
d. High oxygen supply in oxidation-reduction reactions
e. Low ATP intake
8. Choose the correct statements regarding the innervation of skeletal striated muscles:
a. Sensory innervation is provided from spinal ganglia or sensory neurons
b. Vegetative innervation is present in the walls of blood vessels in muscles
c. Motor innervation is provided by motor nerve fibers
d. Innervation is provided by the kinesthetic analyzer
e. Innervation is provided by muscle fascia
9. Visceral muscles enter the structure of:
a. Limbs
b. Myocardium
c. Digestive tract walls
d. Blood vessels
e. Urinary tract and uterus
Correct: b, c, d, e
10. In addition to visceral smooth muscles, there are other smooth muscles in the body such as:
a. Brachial biceps muscles
b. Anterior calf muscles
c. Erector muscles of the hair
d. Buttock muscles
e. Ciliary muscles and smooth muscles of the iris, multipolar type
Correct: c, e
11. Which of the following muscles are part of the muscles of the head:
a. Cutaneous muscles
b. Mimic muscles
c. Masseter and temporal muscles
d. Tongue muscles
e. Hyoid muscles
12. Choose the correct statements regarding the classification of muscles according to their main action:
a. Adductor muscles, move one segment away from the middle position
b. Abductor muscles, move one segment away from the middle position
c. Pronator muscles, increase the angle of the joint
d. Agonist muscles have all or part of the same actions (example: extension of a limb)
e. Flexor muscles, which decrease the angle of a joint
13. The motor plate has the following characteristics:
a. It is referred to as the neuromuscular synapse
b. It has acetylcholine as chemical mediator
c. It has epinephrine as chemical mediator
d. It is an intermediate plate
e. It maintains constant tension at varying degrees of distention
14. Specify which of the following are part of the fundamental properties of muscles:
a. Elasticity
c. Plasticity
d. Excitability
e. Dilation
15. The process of muscle contraction proceeds in several phases, except:
a. Ca2+ release
b. Excitability phase
c. Coupling actin with myosin
d. Resting phase
e. Depolarization phase
16. The coupling phase of actin with myosin has the following characteristics:
a. Actomyosin formation
b. It is an activation process favored by Ca2+
c. It is preceded by the contraction phase
d. Stimulating the release of nerve influx
e. An activation process favored by ATP
17. In the phase of muscle relaxation occurs:
a. Repolarization of membranes
b. Depolarization of membranes
c. Reintroduction of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Reinstalling the resting phase
e. Reinstalling the contraction phase
18. *The muscle response by simple contraction is referred to:
a. Muscle simplicity
b. Muscle secusae
c. Muscle stimulation
d. Muscle release
e. Muscle contracture
19. *Creatine phosphate provides:
a. ATP restoration
b. ATP release
c. Muscle contractility
d. Frequency of stimuli
e. Energy release
20. Choose the true statements regarding nerve influx from the excitability phase:
a. It comes through motor fibers
b. It is transmitted to every muscle cell
c. It is transmitted through the motor plate
d. It is a chemical mediator
e. It is part of the contractility properties of muscles
21. *The propagation time of the depolarization wave along the fiber is:
a. 2-5 ms at 12 m/s
b. 1-5 ms at 15 m/s
c. 1-4 ms at 13 m/s
d. 2-6 ms at 14 m/s
e. 2-4 ms at 11 m/s
22. The scaling of the muscle contraction force is achieved by:
a. Decrease in the number of motor units
b. Increase in the number of motor units
c. It is dependent on the intensity and frequency of stimuli
d. It is independent of the intensity and frequency of stimuli
e. It is achieved by maintaining motor units
23. The reason smooth muscles contract more slowly is:
a. The presence of the transverse tube system
b. Lack of transverse tube system
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is well developed
d. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is poorly developed
e. The endoplasmic reticulum is poorly developed
24. The true statements regarding the Ca2+ ions needed to couple contractile proteins are:
a. They penetrate from the extracellular environment through sarcolemma
b. They penetrate from the intracellular environment through sarcolemma
c. They are expelled after restoring the resting potential in the extracellular space
d. They are expelled after restoring the potential for rest in the intracellular space
e. They are not expelled, they remain in the intracellular space
25. Smooth muscles have the following properties:
a. Form organs variable in shape and volume
b. Form organs equal in shape and volume
c. Form the lining of some internal organs
d. Enter into the formation of the muscles of the iris and ciliary body
e. They are heterogeneous in properties and functions performed
26. Smooth muscles can be subject to deformities, they are of two types:
a. Isometric type
b. Elastic type
c. Viscous type
d. Isotonic type
e. Auxotonic type
27. Specify which of the following are types of muscle contraction:
a. Isometric contraction
b. Isotonic contraction
c. Auxotonic contraction
d. Relaxing contraction
e. Plastic contraction
28. Muscle fatigue is due to:
a. Depletion of physical mediators in motor plates
b. Lack of CO2
c. Decrease in energy efficiency
d. Lactic acid accumulation
e.Depletion of macroergic substances
29. The chemical energy released during contraction is converted into:
a. About 10% in mechanical work
b. About 40% in mechanical work
c. About 60% in caloric energy
d. About 30% in mechanical work
e. About 70% in caloric energy
30. Choose the correct statements regarding the structure of skeletal striated muscles:
a. Striated muscle tissue
b. Smooth muscle tissue
c. Muscular body
d. Tendons
e. Blood vessels
31. The muscle fibers are wrapped and separated by 3 sheaths called:
a. Epimysium
b. Fibromysium
c. Perimysium
d. Endomysium
e. Tendimisium
32. *Abductor muscles have the role of:
a. Decrease the angle of a joint
b. Increase the angle of a joint
c. Bring a segment closer to the middle position
d. Move a segment away from the middle position
e. Shrink or close an orifice
33. Which of the following are muscles of the head:
a. Mimic muscles, which determine facial expression
b. Masseter muscles, which are masticatory muscles
c. The masseter muscles, which determine facial expression
d. Mimic muscles, which intervene in mastication
e. Neck skin muscle
34. Which of the following are neck muscles:
a. Great dorsal
b. Hyoids
c. Sternocleidomastoids
d. Gastrocnemius
e. Trapezoid
35. Choose the correct statements regarding tetanus contraction:
a. Of complete form, it is represented by a toothed graph
b. Complete expresses the total summation of secusae
c. Incomplete expresses incomplete summation of secusae
d. All contractions in the body are secusae
e. May be complete and incomplete
36. The following are muscles of the upper limb, EXCEPT:
a. Semitendinous
b. Brachial
c. Sural triceps
d. Tibial
e. Coracobrachialis
37. The following are muscles of the arm, EXCEPT:
a. Brachial biceps
b. Brachial quadriceps
c. Solear
d. Tibial anterior
e. Brachial triceps
38. The following are muscles of the forearm, EXCEPT:
a. Pronators and supinators of the forearm
b. Finger flexors and extensors
c. Hallucus flexor
d. Hallucus extensor
e. Brachial biceps
39. Which of the following are arm muscles:
40. The following are thigh muscles, EXCEPT:
a. Sartorius
b. Quadriceps femoral
c. Biceps femoral
d. Brachial biceps
e. Hallucus flexor
41. Which of the following are muscles of the forearm:
42. Which of the following are muscles of the lower limb:
a. Buttock muscles
b. Thigh muscles
c. Calf muscles
d. Leg muscles
e. Head muscles
43. Which of the following are thigh muscles:
44. *After their main action, muscles can be sphincters that:
b. Increase the angle of the joint
c. Shrink or close an orifice
d. Remove a segment
e. Rotate the palm
1. What are the essential functions of the nervous system:
a. Disintegration of the organism from the environment
b. Integration of the organism into the environment
c. Coordination of the work of all tissues, organs and systems constituting the body
d. Environmental coordination
e. Enters into the activity of thermal manifestations of muscle contraction
2. Morphologically and functionally, the nervous system has the following components:
a. Visceral nervous system
b. Nervous system of the internal environment
c. The nervous system of relationship life
d. Nervous system of vegetative life
e. Nervous system of life, involuntary contractions
3. *The components of the nervous system from a morphological and functional point of view achieve:
a. Transforms excitations according to the nature of internal stimuli
b. Coordinates the activity of the environment
c. Makes connections with interoreceptors and exteroceptors
d. Protects nerve organs
e. They are in permanent morpho-functional connection, they achieve the unity of the organism and its connection with the environment
4. *Arachnoid is:
a. An adherent epithelial tissue of duramater
b. A muscle tissue adhering to duramater
c. A connective tissue adhering to duramater
d. A tissue that adheres to nerve organs
e. A tissue with fulfills a transport role
5. *Piamater has a vascularization:
a. Arterial
b. Venous
c. Terminal type
d. Parietal
e. Nutritional
6. *Gray matter is:
a. Located peripherally, formed by nerve endings
b. Located on the inside, formed by fibers and nerve cells
c. Interlaced located, formed by ganglia
d. Located internally, with the role of protecting muscle tissue
e. It consists of cerebrospinal fluid
7. The spinal nerves are:
a. Nerves that detach from the spinal cord
b. Consist of muscle tissue
c. Called vegetative nerves
d. Specific pathways serving visceral organs
e. Consisting of nerve fibers, blood vessels and connective tissue
8. Which of the following represent ascending pathways of white matter:
a. Pathways of exteroceptive sensitivity
b. Pathways of proprioceptive sensitivity
c. Interoceptive sensitivity pathways
d. Pathways of voluntary motility
e. Pathways of involuntary motility
9. Which of the following represent descending pathways of white matter:
10. The pathways of exteroceptive sensitivity serve:
a. Protopathic tactile sensitivity
b. Fine touch sensitivity
c. Thermal and painful sensitivity
d. Physical tactile sensitivity
e. Sensitivity for the upper part of the trunk
11. The brainstem consists of:
a. Occipital lobes
b. Telencephalon
c. Spinalbulb
d. Varolio's deck
e. Midbrain
12. Which of the following are functions of the brain stem:
a. Management function
b. Mastication function
c. Phonation function
d. Reflex function
e. Excretory function
13. Specify which of the following nerves are of the sensory type:
a. Vestibulo-cochlear
b. Olfactory
c. Optical
d. Oculomotors
e. Trigeminal
14. Choose the correct affirmations regarding the cerebellum:
a. It is placed in the back and bottom of the cranial box
b. It is located under the occipital lobes of the cerebral hemispheres
c. It consists of two cerebellar hemispheres
d. It represents 1/10 of the volume of the brain
e. It is a new phylogenetic formation
15. Functionally, the cerebellum has the following components:
a. Paracerebellum
b. Archcerebellum
c. Paleocerebellum
d. Neocerebellum
e. Epicerebellum
16. The composition of the diencephalon includes:
a. Mepitalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Epithalamus
d. Metathalamus
e. Thalamus
17. The hypothalamus performs the following functions:
a. Constant maintenance of body temperature
b. Regulation of carbohydrate, lipid, protidic and water metabolism
c. Regulation of pituitary secretion and endocrine system
d. Balance adjustment
e. Intervenes in emotional, behavioral and stress states
18. The cerebral cortex structurally and functionally includes the following formations:
a. Lymphatic system
b. Limbic system
c. Neocortex
d. Cerebellar system
e. Vegetative system
19. The autonomic nervous system performs the following functions:
a. Activates the functions of internal organs
b. Coordinates the functions of internal organs
c. Differentiates excitants in the same category
d. Achieves an adaptation of the organism to significant variations in the environment
e. Regulates the functions of internal organs
20. The vegetative nerve centers carry out the following ways of integration:
a. Vegetative integration proper (sympathetic-parasympathetic)
b. Somato-vegetative integration
c. Neuroendocrine integration
d. Neuro-vegetative integration
e. Somatoendocrine integration
21. Vegetative centers can be grouped into:
a. Command centers
b. Response centers
c. Disintegration centers
d. Integration centers
e. Distribution centers
22. Specify which of the following are affective activities:
a. Emotions
b. Fear
c. Motivation
d. Analyze
e. Will
23. Physiologically, the neocortex includes the following areas:
a. Distribution
b. Sensory-motor
c. Sensitive (receptor neocortex)
d. Motor (effector neocortex)
e. Of association
24. The structure of the neocortex consists of:
a. A fusiform layer
b. An internal molecular layer
c. An external granular layer
d. An internal granular layer
e. An external pyramidal layer
25. Choose the correct statements regarding basal nuclei (striated bodies):
a. They are masses of white matter
b. They are located before the thalamus
c. They are located on the route of extrapyramidal paths
d. They are masses of gray matter
e. They are located above and to the side of the thalamus
26. Choose the correct statements regarding the essential functions of the hypothalamic nuclei:
a. Anterior nuclei – anabolic, trophotropic effect
b. Middle nuclei – maintaining homeostasis
c. Middle nuclei – anabolic effect
d. Posterior nuclei – anabolic, trophotropic effect
e. Posterior nuclei – catabolizing, ergotropic effect
27. Which of the following are sensory cranial nerves:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. VIII
e. V
28. Which of the following are motor cranial nerves:
a. III - oculomotors
b. II - optics
c. IV - trochlear
d. VI - abducens
e. X - vague
29. Learning:
a. It represents the highest form of knowledge, which offers the possibility of reflecting reality and projecting future actions
b. It is the process of conscious accumulation of information
c. It reflects the material world in the form of ideas, notions, logical associations, judgments
d. Ensures the storage of information for the longest possible period
e. It is a nervous process that ensures the winning of experiences, from the simplest to the most complex
30. Memory:
a. It represents the ability of the nervous system to actively retain, recognize and selectively evoke information and previous experiences
c. It is a nervous process that ensures the winning of experiences, from the simplest to the most complex
d. It is classified into instant memory, short-term memory and long-term memory
e. It is classified into short
-term memory, long-term memory and very long-term memory
31. The physiological systems involved in learning include:
a. Sensory systems
b. Central nervous system
c. Emotional system
d. Reticular formation
e. Endocrine system
32. The physiological systems involved in memory include:
33. Motivation:
a. It represents the form of conscious nervous activity
b. It represents for the individual the power to make decisions, but also the perseverance to carry them out
c. It is a complex nervous process that underlies all acts of behavior
d. It disappears after performing the act of that behavior
e. It represents the highest form of knowledge, which offers the possibility of reflecting reality and projecting future actions
34. Slow sleep is characterized by, with the EXCEPTION:
a. Slow eye movements
b. Rapid movements of the eyeballs
c. Snoring
d. The appearance of dreams
e. It is also called deep sleep
35. Paradoxical sleep is characterized by:
a. Rapid movements of the eyeballs
b. The appearance of dreams
d. It is also called deep sleep
e. Slow eye movements
36. Unconditioned reflexes:
a. They are innate and common to all individuals
b. They are acquired in the course of life
c. They are temporary
d. They are constant
e. They are invariable
37. Conditioned reflexes:
a. They are constant
b. They are invariable
c. They are acquired in the course of life
d. They are temporary
e. They do not have pre-formed paths
38. The middle cerebellar peduncles have the following nerve bundles:
a. Spinocerebellar Gowers
b. Reticulo-cerebellar
c. Dentorubric
d. Pontocerebellar
e. Cerebello-reticular
39. The upper cerebellar peduncles have the following nerve bundles:
a. Dentorubric
b. Spinocerebellar Flechsig
c. Cerebello-olivary
d. Cerebellum-cerebral
e. Spinocerebellar Gowers
40. The middle cerebellar peduncles have the following nerve bundles, with the EXCEPTION:
41. The lower cerebellar peduncles have the following nerve bundles, EXCEPT:
a. Spinocerebellar Flechsig
b. Olivocerebellar
c. Pontocerebellar
d. Spinocerebellar Gowers
e. Cerebellar-olivary
42. Choose the correct statements regarding isotonic muscle contraction:
a. It is that contraction in which the tension of the muscle remains constant
b. It is the contraction in which the length of the muscle remains constant
c. It is the one in which both the length and tension of the muscle vary
d. Varies muscle length
e. It is manifested by diminished capacity for muscle labor
43. What are the essential functions of the nervous system:
c. Coordination of the work of all tissues and organs
e. Coordination of the systems constituting the body
44. Morphologically and functionally, the nervous system has the following components:
e. Muscular nervous system
45. The grey matter is:
b. Located inside the spinal cord
e. Made up of fibers and nerve cells
46. Specify which of the following cranial nerves are of the sensory type:
e. Trochlear
47. The vegetative nervous system performs the following functions:
d. Regulates the functions of internal organs
e. Provides the connection between the body and the external environment
48. Choose the correct affirmations related to spinal nerves:
a. There are 32 pairs of spinal nerves
b. There are 12 pairs of thoracic (dorsal) nerves
c. There are 7 pairs of cervical nerves
d. There are 8 pairs of cervical nerves
e. From the brachial plexus the femoral nerves detach
49. Choose the correct statements regarding somatic medullary reflexes:
a. They can only be polysynaptic
b. They are of 2 types, monosynaptic and polysynaptic
c. They close in the lateral horns of the medullary gray matter
d. The reflex arc of monosynaptic reflexes consists of 2 neurons
e. Polysynaptic reflexes are also called myotic reflexes
50. The organs innervated by the VIII cranial nerve pair are:
a. Superior oblique muscle of the eyeball
b. The organ of Corti in the inner ear through the acoustic branch
c. External right muscle of the eyeball
d. Static receptors in the inner ear through the vestibular branch
e. Retina of the eyeball
51. The cranial nerves are represented by the following pairs:
a. V, VII, IX, X
b. IV, II, X
c. V, VIII, X, XI
d. III, IV, VI
e. IV, VI, XI
52. The sensory cranial nerves are represented by the following pairs, EXCEPT:
a. I, II, VIII
b. V, VII, IX
c. V, VII, IX, X
d. XI, XII
e. VII, IX, X
53. The epithalamus consists of:
a. Diencephalon
b. Epiphyseal gland
c. Habenular nucleus
d. Anterior nuclei
e. Middle nuclei
54. The spinal meninges are:
a. Arachnoid
b. Pia mater
c. Dura mater
d. All variants are true
e. All variants are false
55. What is the spinal cord made of?
a. Black matter
b. White matter
c. Grey matter
56. Choose the correct statements regarding the white matter of the spinal cord:
a. It is located in the center of the marrow
b. It is arranged in the form of horns
c. It consists of ascending beams
d. It consists of descending beams
e. It consists of association bundles
57. Choose the correct statements regarding the diencephalon:
a. The thalamus is a relay station for all sensitivities
b. The thalamus is the relay center of olfactory, visual and auditory sensitivity
c. The metathalamus is a relay of visual and auditory sensitivities
d. Metathalamus regulates body temperature through thermogenesis and thermolysis
e. The hypothalamus intervenes in emotional, behavioral and stressful states
58. Choose the correct statements regarding the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):
a. Protection of nervous tissue
b. Transport of some hormones
c. Forms sensory nerves
d. Forms motor nerves
e. Forms cranial nerves
59. Spinal cord:
a. It is placed in the spinal canal
b. It is laid in the ulnar canal
c. Extends from C1 to L2
d. Extends from C3 to L5
e. Continue with terminal filum
60. Spinal nerves:
a. They break off from the spinal cord
b. They consist of nerve fibers
c. They consist of blood vessels
d. They consist of connective tissue
e. The internal connective shell is called the epinerve
61. Spinal nerves:
a. Feature roots
b. Feature branches
c. Show trunk
d. They do not have nerve fibers in their constitution
e. They do not consist of connective tissue
62. The spinal cord performs the following functions:
b. Reflex center function
c. Conduction function of blood flow in the body
d. Lymph conduction function in the body
e. Glomerular filtration
63. Midbrain:
a. It is represented by cerebral peduncles
b. The sides continue with the middle cerebellar peduncles
c. Continue to the diencephalon
d. It takes the form of a transverse band of nerve substance
e. Pyramidal paths pass through it
64. Cerebellum:
a. It consists of two cerebellar hemispheres
b. It consists of three cerebellar hemispheres
c. The cerebellar hemispheres are connected to each other by vermis
d. It is connected to the brain stem by 3 pairs of cerebellar peduncles
e. It is connected to the brain stem by 2 pairs of cerebellar peduncles
65. Choose the wrong statements regarding gray matter:
a. It is located peripherally, formed by nerve endings
b. It is located inside the spinal cord
c. It is located interspersed, formed by ganglia
d. It is located internally, with the role of protecting muscle tissue
e. It consists of fibers and nerve cells
66. Diencephalon:
a. It is located in the extension of the brain stem
b. It is located in the lengthening of the hypothalamus
c. It is located between the midbrain and the cerebral hemispheres
d. It is located between the metathalamus and the thalamus
e. It is located between the hypothalamus and epithalamus
67. Basal nuclei:
a. They are masses of gray matter
b. They are masses of white matter
c. They have a role in regulating automatic motility commanded by the cerebral cortex
d. Have a role in the control and integration of vegetative functions
e. They are connected to each other as well as to the mesencephalic, diencephalic nuclei and the cortex
68. The vegetative nervous system performs the following functions:
c. Differentiate excitants from the same category
69. Morphologically and functionally, does the nervous system have the following components?
a. Dendrites and axons
b. Somatic nervous system
c. Vegetative nervous system
d. Encephalon and sensory fibers
e. Spinal cord and motor fibers
70. Choose the correct statements relating to the vegetative nervous system:
a. It is a complex nervous process that underlies all acts of behavior
b. It consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic vegetative nervous system
c. It is the integrative center of sensations, motricity and consciousness
d. It has a role in regulating automatic motility commanded by the cerebral cortex
e. Coordinates and regulates the functions of internal organs
71. *Which of the following neurons is in the spinal ganglion?
a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Pseudomultipolars
e. Multipolar
72. Choose the correct statements regarding the functions of the cerebellum?
a. Archicerebellum – coordination of fine movements
b. Neocerebellum – maintaining muscle tone
c. Archicerebellum – balance regulation
d. Neocerebellum – balance regulation
e. Paleocerebellum – maintaining muscle tone
73. Where do electrical synapses can be met?
b. Smooth muscle
c. Striated muscle
d. In all regions of the brain
e. In certain regions of the brain
74. *How many anatomical components is the reflex arc made of?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
75. *Spinal cord:
a. It is found located in the spinal canal
b. It is found located in the ependymal canal
c. Occupies the entire spinal canal
d. Occupies the entire ependymal canal
e. It occupies part of the ependymal canal
76. Dura mater:
a. It has a fibrous, resistant structure
b. It has a mucous structure
c. It is a connective vascular membrane
d. It is separated from the walls of the spinal canal by the epidural space
e. It has a nutritional role
77. What is the spinal cord made of?
a. Grey matter on the outside in the form of columns
b. Grey matter arranged on the outside in the form of cords
c. Grey matter arranged in the center in the form of columns
d. White matter arranged on the periphery in the form of columns
e. White matter arranged on the periphery in the form of cords
78. Which of the following cranial nerves are sensory?
d. VII
e. VIII
79. *What does astasis represent?
a. Decrease in voluntary force
b. Increasing voluntary force
c. Standing disorders
d. Increased muscle tone
e. Decreased muscle tone
80. The white matter of the cerebral hemispheres consists of:
a. Projection fibers
b. Commissural fibers
c. Basal nuclei
d. Association fibers
e. Motor fibers
81. *Olfactory nerves cross:
a. Nasal septum
b. The lower wall of the nasal passages
c. Orbit
d. The riddled blade of the sphenoid
e. The riddled blade of the ethmoid
82. The vegetative nerve centers carry out the following ways of integration:
a. Neuroendocrine integration
b. Sympathetic integration
c. Parasympathetic integration
d. Somatovegetative integration
e. Vegetative integration itself
1. The analyzers are:
a. Partial systems that receive, conduct, transform the received excitations into appropriate sensations
b. Compatible systems receiving incoming excitations
c. Particular systems that convey particular sensations
d. Peripheral systems that make it difficult to receive stimuli
e. Complex systems that receive, conduct, transform received excitations into appropriate sensations
2. The epidermis is:
a. Loose connective tissue
b. Dense connective tissue
c. A keratinized multilayered epithelial tissue
d. A muscle tissue
e. A keratinized multilayered connective tissue
3. Choose the correct thermal sensitivity claim:
a. A symmetrical distribution on the skin surface
b. A uniform distribution on the skin surface
c. An uneven distribution on the surface of the lower limbs
d. An uneven distribution on the surface of the upper limbs
e. An uneven distribution on the skin surface
4. The following statements regarding the functions the skin performs are true, except:
a. Protection against external agents
b. Excretory function
c. Thermoregulation function
d. Lipid storage function
e. Protection against internal agents
5. The optical apparatus includes:
a. Vascular tunic, retina, lens
b. Nervous tunic, watery humor, lens
c. Transparent cornea, aqueous humor, lens and vitreous body
d. Transparent cornea, vitreous body, fibrous tunic
e. Aqueous humor, lens, vascular tunic, fibrous tunic
6. The shells of the eyeball comprise the following layers:
a. Muscular tunic
b. Fibrous tunic
c. Vascular tunic
d. Nervous tunic
e. Main tunic
7. Choose the correct "skin" statements:
a. It is a connective-epithelial organ
b. It is a connective-muscular organ
c. Fully covers the surface of the body
d. It has an area of approximately 1.5 m², 18 kg weight and 4 mm thick
e. It has an area of approximately 1.7 m², 17 kg of weight and 5 mm thick
8. Choose the right answers regarding the hypodermis:
a. It is a connective-epithelial tissue
b. It presents groups of adipocytes organized into lobules
c. It is a loose connective tissue
d. Stores triglycerides
e. Vascularization consists of blood and lymphatic vessels
9. Choose the right tactile sensitivity statements:
a. Caused by excitants that produce mild skin deformations
b. Caused by excitants that do not cause skin deformations
c. Pronounced tactile sensitivity shows hairy areas, finger pulp and lips
d. Tactile sensitivity presents flat areas, hairy areas, with specific receptors located in the thickness of the skin
e. It is caused by harmful excitants, which cause cellular damage
10. The peripheral segment of the kinesthetic analyzer consists of proprioceptors located at the level of:
a. Muscles
b. Tendons
c. Hairs
d. Aponeurosis
e. Periosteum
11. Golgi tendon organs consist of:
a. Connective fiber
b. Sensitive fiber
c. Connective capsule
d. Collagen fibers
e. Reticulin fibers
12. Choose the correct statements regarding neuromuscular spindles:
a. They are stimulated by increased tension in the tendons, caused by muscle contraction
b. They have as stimulus the pressure exerted on the structural formations in which they are found
c. They consist of groups of 2-10 intrafusal fibers
d. They have a sensory-motor role
e. They are located between the usual muscle fibers and parallel to them
13. The sensory innervation of the spindle consists of:
a. Spiral primary endings located in the central zone
b. Spiral primary endings located in the peripheral zone
c. Secondary terminations at the extremities of the central zone
d. Secondary terminations located in the central zone
e. Secondary terminations at the extremities of the peripheral zone
14. The olfactory analyzer comprises the following segments:
a. Receiver segment
b. Emitter segment
c. Driving segment
d. Central segment
e. Peripheral segment
15. Choose the correct olfactory analyzer statements:
a. Intervenes in assessing the quality of thermal sensitivity
b. Allows recognition of shape, size, color and brightness
c. It plays a role in assessing air quality
d. Intervenes in the appreciation of food quality
e. Intervenes in triggering saliva secretion
16. Choose the right statements regarding the olfactory excitability threshold:
a. It represents the maximum quantity of emitted substance capable of causing the sensation of smell
b. It represents a threshold of reception of tastes
c. Represents the minimum quantity of odorant capable of causing the sensation of smell
d. Varies depending on the nature of the substances
e. Varies depending on the mechanical properties of substances
17. Choose the correct statements about taste buds:
a. They are rhomboid in shape
b. They are spread over the entire oromucosal mucosa
c. They are ovoid in shape
d. In one taste bud there are 15-25 sensory cells, which present cilia at the apical pole
e. In one taste bud there are 5-20 sensory cells, which present cilia at the apical pole
18. Choose the right statements about the taste buds:
a. The circumvallate taste buds form the lingual V at the base of the tongue
b. Fungiform taste buds are spread on the tip and posterior edges of the tongue
c. Fungiform taste buds are spread on the tip and anterior edges of the tongue
d. The foliate papillae are spread on the posterior edges of the tongue
e. Foliate papillae are spread on the anterior edges of the tongue
19. The nerve fibers constituting sensory branches of cranial nerves VII, IX, and X innervate the following territories of the tongue:
a. The facial nerve innervates the first 2/3 of the tongue
b. The vagus nerve innervates the anterior part
c. The glossopharynx innervates the posterior third
d. The glossopharynx innervates the first 2/3 of the tongue
e. The vagus nerve innervates taste buds to the epiglottis
20. The intensity of the taste sensation depends on:
a. Quality of dissolved solution
b. Temperature of excited receptors
c. Solute concentration
d. Number of excited receptors
e. Solution temperature
21. Ametropia is determined by the following features:
a. Change in eye axis length or refractive index variation
b. Decreased elasticity of the lens and contraction of ciliary muscles
c. Corneal surface and lens defects
d. Increased elasticity of the lens and contraction of ciliary muscles
e. Partial or complete absence of photosensitive pigments in cone cells
22. The ear consists of the following components:
a. Anterior ear
b. External ear
c. Posterior ear
d. Middle ear
e. Inner ear
23. The inner ear comprises:
a. Cochlea
b. Utricle
c. Saccule
d. Membranous semicircular canals
e. Axons of neurons in the Scarpa ganglia
24. Together with the vestibular analyzer, in postural recovery reactions, are also involved:
a. Olfactory analyzer
b. Skin analyzer
c. Kinesthetic analyzer
d. Cerebellum
e. Visual analyzer
25. Ampullary ridges consist of:
a. Semicircular canals
b. Protoneurons
c. Nerve fibers
d. Ciliated receptor cells
26. The outer ear consists of:
a. Tragus
b. Ear canal
c. Hammer
d. Tympanum
e. Bone semicircular canals
27. The middle ear consists of:
b. Saccule
c. Anvil
d. Temporal bone
e. Tympanum
28. The inner ear consists of:
a. Tympanic ramp
b. Cochlear bone
c. Bone semicircular canals
d. Utricle
e. Eustachian tube
29. Choose the correct statements on the dermis:
a. Presents dermal papillae
b. Stores triglycerides
c. It is a dense connective tissue
d. Presents groups of adipocytes organized in lobules
e. Contains collagen and reticulin fibers
30. Outer ear:
a. It shows the tympanic membrane towards the outside
b. Its skin is provided with modified bristles and sebaceous glands
c. It is located in a cavity of the temporal bone
d. Towards the internal side shows the oval window
e. Communicates with the pharynx through the Eustachian tube
31. The bony labyrinth of the inner ear comprises:
a. Bone vestibule
b. Eustachian tube
c. Bone cochlea
d. Tympanic membrane
e. Malleus, anvil and stapes
32. The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear consists of:
a. Oval window membrane
c. Tympanic membrane
e. Round window membrane
33. Choose the correct statements regarding the peripheral segment of analyzers:
a. It is a specialized cell or group of cells
b. It is an unspecialized cell or group of cells
c. Can perceive some form of energy only from the external environment
d. Can perceive some form of energy from the external and internal environment
e. It is located only at the level of the skin
34. The epidermis contains:
a. Blood vessels
b. Free nerve endings
c. Epidermal papillae
d. Vater-Pacini corpuscles
e. Krause corpuscles
35. Specify which of the following nerves are of the sensory type:
36. Choose the correct statements regarding the olfactory analyzer receiver segment, except:
a. Olfactory receptor cells are bipolar sensory neurons
b. Olfactory receptor cells are multipolar sensory neurons
c. It consists of olfactory epithelium
d. It consists of support cells
e. It is represented by the olfactory paleocortex
37. The external tunic of the eyeball is represented by:
a. Sclerotic
b. Cornea
c. Retina
d. Iris
e. Lens
38. Skin:
a. Fully covers the surface of the body
b. Continues with mucous membranes at the orifices
c. No structure continues
d. Fails to fully cover the surface of the body
e. It consists of 3 layers
39. Skin:
a. It consists of the epidermis, dermis and hypodermis
b. It is a connective-epithelial organ
c. It consists of the epidermis
d. It is an epithelial organ
e. It has about 1.5 m² area
40. Visual analyzer:
a. Allows object shape recognition
b. Allows object size recognition
c. Cannot allow recognition of the size of objects
d. Can appreciate the distance to objects
e. Can't appreciate the distance to objects
41. Outer ear:
a. It consists of the tragus
b. It consists of the external ear canal
c. The skin is provided with modified bristles and sebaceous glands
d. The skin is provided with bristles without sebaceous glands
e. It is substituted into a cavity of the temporal bone
42. Middle ear:
a. It is substituted into a cavity of the temporal bone
b. Towards the outer side presents the tympanic membrane
c. Towards the inner side shows the oval window and the round window
d. Communicates with the pharynx through the Eustachian tube
e. Communicates with the larynx through the Eustachian tube
43. Between the tympanic membrane and the oval window membrane are:
a. Malleus
b. Anvil
c. Stapes
d. Mandible
e. Jaw
44. Middle ear:
b. It is provided with modified bristles and sebaceous glands
c. Towards the outer side has the tympanic membrane
d. Towards the inner side shows the oval window and the round window
e. It is formed by the bone labyrinth
45. Outer ear:
a. Towards the outer side presents the tympanic membrane
b. Towards the inner side shows the oval window and the round window
c. It consists of the bone labyrinth
d. It consists of the tragus
e. It consists of external ear canal
46. The intensity of the taste sensation does NOT depend on:
a. The temperature of excited receptors
b. The dissolute concentration
c. The number of excited receptors
d. The solution temperature
e. Long action of an excitant
47. Inner ear:
a. It is formed by the bone labyrinth
b. It consists of the tragus
c. It consists of external ear canal
48. The ear consists of the following components, EXCEPT:
a. External ear
b. Posterior ear
c. Middle ear
d. Inner ear
e. Upper ear
49. Choose the correct statements regarding the physiology of the acoustic analyzer:
a. Captures sound waves
b. Receives sound waves
c. Creates auditory sensation
d. Creates visual sensation
e. Creates olfactory sensation
50. Deafness:
a. It may be due to transmission deficiencies
b. It may be due to reception deficiencies
c. It is always bilateral
d. It can only be one-sided
e. May be partial
51. With regard to the receiving segment of the vestibular analyzer, the following are true:
a. The inner ear comprises the cochlea, utricle, sac
b. The inner ear comprises the membranous semicircular canals in the bone labyrinth
c. The inner ear comprises only the cochlea
d. It is placed in the superior temporal gyrus
e. The membranous semicircular canals in the bone labyrinth are arranged in 3 planes
52. Choose the correct statements regarding the lens:
a. It has the shape of a biconvex lens
b. It is enveloped by a rigid capsule
c. It is enveloped by an elastic capsule
d. It is enveloped by crystalloid
e. It is held in place by a system of fibers that make up the suspensory ligament
53. The skin consists of:
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Pyoderma
d. Hypodermis
e. Keradermis
54. Eyeball nutrition is provided by:
a. Choroid
c. Sclerotic
d. Crystalloid
e. Neurons
55. Presbyterism means:
a. Decreased elasticity of the lens
b. Corneal surface defects
c. Decreased contractility of ciliary muscles
d. Partial or total absence of photosensitive pigments in cone cells
e. It is characteristic of young individuals
56. Astigmatism means:
a. Corneal surface defects
b. Lens defects
e. It is rectified with cylindrical lenses
1. Choose which of the following represents the main temporary endocrine gland:
a. Pancreas
b. Gonads
c. Placenta
d. Thyroid
e. Pituitary
2. Thymic cells are also called:
a. Melatonin
b. Pancreatin
c. Thymicganglia
d. Lymph nodes
e. Thymocytes
3. The main hormone secreted by the epiphysis is:
a. Thymocyte
b. Glucagon
c. Melatonin
d. Oxytocin
e. Parathormone
4. The adrenal medulla originates from:
a. Ectodermal
b. Mesodermal
c. Intradermal
d. Supradermal
e. Infradermal
5. Stressors activate:
a. Hypothalamic-pituitary-cortical-adrenal system
b. Pituitary system
c. Cortico-adrenal system
d. Hypothalamic-pituitary system
e. Adrenal medulla
6. Which of the following are proper endocrine glands:
b. Placenta
c. Epiphysis
d. Pituitary
e. Thyroid
7. Diabetes mellitus is characterized by the following:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Polydipsia
d. Polyuria
e. Polyphagia
8. The adrenal medulla secretes the following hormones:
a. Adrenaline
b. Aldosterone
c. Norepinephrine
e. Calcitonin
9. Choose the right statements regarding parathyroids:
a. There are 4 small glands located in the anterior part of the thyroid
b. There are 4 small glands located in the posterior part of the thyroid
c. The secreted hormones play a role in maintaining the phosphocalcium balance of the body
d. Produce bone remineralization
e. The hormones secreted are: parathormone and calcitonin
10. Thyroid hypofunction causes varying effects depending on age:
a. In children causes pituitary dwarfism
b. In children causes thyroid dwarfism
c. In adults, it causes decreased learning and memory capacity
d. In adults, it causes weight loss
e. In both children and adults, it causes weight gain
11. Basedow's disease is characterized by:
a. It is a thyroid hyperfunction
b. It is especially common in women
c. It is characterized by increased basal metabolism
d. Enophthalmia
e. Increased irritability
12. The main manifestations of tetany are:
a. Motor disorders: uncontrolled convulsive contractions of skeletal muscle
b. Mechanical disorders: uncontrolled convulsive contractions of skeletal muscle
c. Sensory disorders: increased sensitivity to cold
d. Nervous disorders: irritability, hallucinations
e. Trophic disorders: hair loss, teeth
13. Thyroid hormones have the following actions in the body:
a. Calorigenic effect (increased basal metabolism, oxygen uptake, and cellular oxidation)
b. Reduce lipid deposits by activating lipolysis
c. Stimulates heart activity
d. Stimulates the activity of the gonads
e. Regulates bone remineralization
14. Choose the correct statements regarding variations in serum calcium:
a. Increased calcium stimulates the secretion of parathormone
b. Increased calcium stimulates calcitonin secretion
c. Lowering serum calcium stimulates calcitonin secretion
d. Decreased calcium stimulates the secretion of parathormone
e. Both decrease and increase cause secretion of parathormone
15. Glucocorticoids perform the following functions:
a. They intervene mainly in the intermediate metabolism of carbohydrates
b. Reduce nitrogen removals
c. Stimulates gluconeogenesis
d. Activates protein catabolism except in liver cells
e. They have an important proinflammatory role
16. Melatonin:
a. It has inhibitory action on sexual glands
b. It has a hyperglycemic effect
c. Acts on the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
d. Stimulates visceral smooth muscles
e. Has hypoglycemic effect
17. Choose the correct statements regarding the cells in the islets of Langerhans:
a. They consist of three types of cells
b. They consist of two types of cells
c. α cells secrete glucagon
d. β cells secrete glucagon
e. Cells β secrete insulin
18. Insulin:
a. It is the body's main hyperglycemic hormone
b. It is the body's main hypoglycemic hormone
c. It acts in the direction of increasing the utilization of glucose in cells
d. Stimulates protein synthesis
e. Stimulates lipid synthesis
19. Glandular hormones include:
a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone or corticotropin
b. Thyrotropic hormone
c. Somatotropic hormones
d. Luteotropic hormone
e. Gonadotropic hormones
20. Choose the correct statements regarding oxytocin:
a. Promotes melanin synthesis
b. It favors childbirth by stimulating the contraction of smooth muscles of the pregnant uterus
c. Favors breastfeeding by contraction of myoepithelial cells of galactophore ducts
d. Stimulates intestinal peristalsis
e. Secreted in high doses causes vasoconstriction
21. Thyroid:
a. It weighs about 30g
b. It is located in the anterior part of the neck
c. It is located in the posterior and lateral parts of the neck
d. It consists of 3 lobes joined together by the thyroid isthmus
e. The vegetative innervation of the thyroid has only vasomotor functions
22. Adrenals:
a. They are a pair of glands located at the upper poles of the kidneys
b. They are a pair of glands located at the superoposterior poles of the kidneys
c. Each gland has a cortical area arranged on the periphery surrounding the medullary area
d. Each gland has a medullary area arranged on the periphery surrounding the cortical area
e. Causes varied effects depending on age on the body
23. The hormones of the adrenal medulla have the following main actions:
a. At the level of the circulatory system, bradycardia, vasodilation, and hypotension
b. At the level of the circulatory system, tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and hypertension
c. Mobilization of fat from deposits and catabolization of fatty acids
d. Glycogenolysis and hypoglycemia
e. Glycogenolysis and hyperglycemia
24. Choose the correct statements regarding T lymphocytes:
a. They are differentiated in the thymus
b. Originating in the bone marrow
c. Participates in protein synthesis processes
d. Participates in cellular immunity processes
e. They specialize in preserving immune memory
25. Hypersecretion of STH causes:
a. Before puberty, gigantism
b. After puberty, gigantism
c. After puberty produces acromegaly
d. Before puberty, exaggerated growth in height and waist
e. After puberty, exaggerated growth of extremities, limbs, bones, face, lips
26. Hyposecretion of STH causes:
a. In children, exaggerated growth of the extremities of the upper limb
b. Dwarfism with proportional physical development and normal intellect
c. In children, pituitary dwarfism
d. Dwarfism with inversely proportional physical development and normal intellect
e. It does not cause any changes in the development of the organism
27. Glycolysis:
a. Anaerobic oxidative processes continue and take place in mitochondria
b. It is the catabolic process, which consists of a succession of enzymatically catalyzed reactions
c. Converts the glucose molecule into two pyruvic acid molecules and releases two ATP molecules
d. Determines in a first phase the transformation of pyruvic acid into acetyl Co A
e. Achieves complete oxidation
28. Aerobic degradation:
a. It is the catabolic process, which consists of a succession of enzymatically catalyzed reactions
b. Anaerobic oxidative processes continue and take place in mitochondria
c. It transforms the glucose molecule into two pyruvic acid molecules and releases two ATP molecules
d. Determines in a first phase the transformation of pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA
e. It can start with glucose or glycogen
29. Glycogenogenesis:
a. It is the anabolic process of polymerization of glucose into glycogen
b. It is the process of synthesizing glucose from amino acids or lipids
c. Ensures constant blood glucose value
d. Enters the structure of complex substances
e. It is the catabolic process, which consists of a succession of enzymatically catalyzed reactions
30. The ovary:
a. It is connected by ligaments to the posterior wall of the pelvis, uterus, and fallopian tube
b. It shows on the posterior margin the epididymis
c. It is a paired organ located in the pelvis
d. It is covered by a fibrous membrane, albuginea
e. It secretes a milky liquid that enters the composition of sperm
31. Normal menstrual cycle:
a. It has a duration of 32 days
b. It has a duration of 28 days
c. It begins at puberty and is a main element of female sexual characteristics
d. It begins at puberty and is a main element of male sexual characteristics
e. It ceases around the age of 15, when menopause sets in
32. The role of the ovary is:
a. Form and release an egg each month (oogenesis)
b. Secretes a milky liquid that enters the composition of sperm
c. It secretes hormones, which favor the fertilization of the egg
d. Proliferate and thicken the uterine lining
e. Produces sperm (spermatogenesis)
33. Progesterone:
a. Forms yellow body
b. It is secreted by the yellow body
c. It is secreted by the adrenal cortex
d. It is secreted by the placenta
e. Favors fertilization
34. Acromegaly:
a. Due to excess secretion of growth hormone in the child
b. Caused by excess secretion of growth hormone in adults
c. It is manifest by increasing the thickness of long bones and soft tissues
d. It represents the excess growth of the whole body or only certain segments
e. It is caused by secretory deficiency of DHA
35. Gigantism:
a. Caused by excess secretion of growth hormone in adults
b. It represents exaggerated growth in height
c. It is manifested by an increase in the thickness of long bones and soft tissues
d. Due to excess secretion of growth hormone in the child
36. Basedow-Graves’ disease (toxic goiter):
a. Involves enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with thyroxine hypersecretion
b. It is caused by secretory deficiency of DHA
c. It is treated by external intake of DHA
d. In half of the cases, exophthalmos also occurs
e. It is the result of hypothyroidism in adults
37. Oxytocin:
a. It favors childbirth by stimulating smooth muscle contractions of the pregnant uterus
b. Contributes to maintaining normal extracellular fluid volume in the body by stimulating water absorption in the kidneys
c. It favors breastfeeding by stimulating the contraction of myoepithelial cells of galactophore ducts in the mammary glands
d. It also stimulates intestinal peristalsis
e. Causes vasoconstriction
38. Adrenocorticotropic hormone or corticotropin:
a. Stimulates growth, development, and secretion of thyroid hormones
b. It also stimulates intestinal peristalsis
c. Stimulates growth, development, and secretory activity of adrenal cortical glands
d. Hypersecretion causes adrenal cortical hypertrophy and hypersecretion of adrenal hormones, resulting in metabolic disorders
39. Myxedema:
c. It is the result of hypothyroidism in adults and affects water electrolyte balance
d. It causes edema and increased blood volume, followed by increased blood pressure
e. Benefit from hormone replacement therapy
40. Thyroid dwarfism:
a. It causes edema and increased blood volume, followed by increased blood pressure
b. It is the result of hypothyroidism in adults
c. It is the infantile form of hypothyroidism, also known as cretinism
d. Involves enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with thyroxine hypersecretion
e. In adults, decreased learning and memory capacity
41. Recklinghausen disease:
a. It is due to dysfunction of the parathyroid glands
b. Causes disorders of calcium and phosphorus metabolism
c. Leads to bone demineralization, with hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria
e. Involves enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with thyroxine hypersecretion
42. Cushing's syndrome:
a. Defines corticosteroid hypersecretion
b. It is provoked, as a rule, by tumors of the adrenal cortex or hypersecretion of ACTH
d. It is characterized by impaired lipid, carbohydrate, and protein metabolism
43. Addison's disease:
a. It is due to inadequate secretion of both mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
b. Involves enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with thyroxine hypersecretion
c. Involves increased secretion of glucocorticoids and low secretion of DHA
d. It is treated by administering glucocorticoids
e. Causes skin depigmentation
44. Hypoglycemia:
a. Can be treated with insulin
b. Can be treated with glucose
c. Means an excess of glucose in the blood
d. Means glucose deficiency in the blood
e. May be caused by increased insulin secretion
45. Glucagon:
a. Is secreted by the pancreatic islets
b. It is produced in excess by the adrenal cortex in Addison's disease
c. Favors the synthesis and storage of glucose
d. Activates lipolysis
e. Activates glycogenolysis
46. Insulin is characterized by:
a. It is a hormone synthesized and secreted by the β-cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans
b. It has hypoglycemic action
c. It has hyperglycemic action
d. It is secreted when blood glucose levels are high
e. It stimulates lipolysis
47. The formation of sperm:
a. It takes place in the epididymal canal
b. It takes place in the epididymal tube
c. Takes place in the seminiferous tubules
d. It takes place in the seminiferous tubules of the testis
e. Involves continuous spermatogenesis starting with puberty
48. The main actions of testosterone are:
a. The appearance of secondary sexual characteristics in the female body
b. The appearance of secondary sexual characteristics in the male body
c. Stimulation of protein synthesis and anabolism
d. It is secreted in small amounts by the adrenal cortex
e. Activation of lipolysis
49. The heart:
a. Weighs about 250-300g
b. It is located in the thoracic cavity, on the left side
c. It is located in the thoracic cavity, slightly to the left of the middle
d. It is located in the posterior mediastinum
e. It is connected by ligaments to the posterior wall of the pelvis
51. The role of blood vessels is:
a. They ensure circulation to the heart
b. They ensure circulation from the heart
c. They provide two circuits, pulmonary and systemic
d. They provide three circuits, pulmonary, systemic, and lymphatic
e. They ensure the flow of lymph
52. The pulmonary circulation is characterized by:
a. Provides venous blood transport from the heart to the lungs
b. Ensures the passage of oxygen from the alveolar air into the capillaries
c. Provides transport of arterial blood from the heart to the lungs
d. It ensures the passage of oxygen from the pulmonary capillaries to the alveoli
e. Provides venous blood transport from the heart to the lungs
53. The pericardium is:
a. Formed of smooth muscle tissue
b. Made up of two layers: a fibrous one on the outside and a serous one on the inside
c. An epithelium located on the outer surface of the heart
d. A fibrous sac in which the heart is located
e. A fibrous sac that surrounds the lungs
54. Myocardium:
a. It is the middle tunic of the heart wall
b. It is the inner tunic of the heart wall
c. It is the heart muscle itself
d. It consists of smooth muscle tissue
e. It consists of striated muscle tissue
55. The heart's electrical activity:
a. Is the cause of the contraction of the heart muscle
b. Does not influence the contraction of the heart muscle
c. Starts at the sinus node
d. It is determined by the sinus-atrial node, atrial node, and His bundle
e. Does not involve the nervous system
56. Arteries are characterized by:
a. They are blood vessels that leave the heart
b. They are blood vessels that reach the heart
c. They are blood vessels that leave the heart and reach the heart
d. Most of them carry blood from the lungs to the heart
e. Most of them carry blood from the heart to the organs
57. Systole is:
a. The contraction of the ventricles
b. The contraction of the atria
c. The contraction of the heart muscle
d. The relaxation of the heart muscle
e. The relaxation of the ventricles
58. The peripheral lymphatic organs are:
a. Thymus
b. Tonsils
c. Spleen
e. Lymphatic vessels
59. Respiratory muscles:
a. Include the diaphragm and intercostal muscles
b. Participate in respiratory movements
c. Are the muscles of the abdominal wall
d. Participate in respiratory and phonatory movements
e. The diaphragm is the main respiratory muscle
60. Oxytocin:
a. Favors childbirth
b. Stimulates smooth muscle contractions of the pregnant uterus
c. Stimulates breastfeeding
d. Stimulates contractions of the striated muscles of the pregnant ovary
e. Stimulates smooth muscle contractions of the pregnant ovary
61. Thyroid hypofunction:
a. In adults, it causes thyroid dwarfism
c. In adults, it causes decreased memory capacity
d. In children, it causes decreased memory capacity
e. Causes effects varying according to age
62. Parathyroids:
a. There are 4 small glands located in the posterior part of the thyroid
b. There are 2 small glands located in the posterior part of the thyroid
c. The hormones secreted by them play a role in maintaining phosphocalcium balance
d. Stimulate breastfeeding
e. Stimulate intestinal peristalsis
63. Parathyroid hormone:
a. Its main action is to increase serum calcium
b. Removes calcium in extracellular fluid
c. Its main action is to lower serum calcium levels
d. Decreases phosphatemia
e. Eliminates phosphorus renally
64. Calcitonin:
a. Decreases serum calcium levels
b. Increases calcemia
c. Increases phosphatemia
e. It has parathyroid hormone antagonistic action
65. Glucocorticoids:
a. They are represented by cortisol
b. Intervene in intermediate carbohydrate metabolism
d. They have a proinflammatory role
e. They have an anti-inflammatory role
66. Epiphysis:
a. It is an organ of the diencephalon
b. It has endocrine function
c. It has exocrine function
d. Its main hormone is melatonin
e. It is an organ of the midbrain
67. The adenopituitary secretes the following hormones, except:
a. Somatotropic hormone
b. Antidiuretic hormone
c. Parathyroid hormone
d. Thyrotropic hormone
e. Testosterone
68. Parathyroids secrete the following hormones, except:
a. Calitonin
b. Thyroxine
d. Triiodothyronine
e. Thyrotropic hormone
69. Choose which of the following glands have endocrine secretion:
a. Epiphysis
b. Salivary glands
c. Parathyroids
d. Prostate
70. Choose which of the following hormones are produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary:
a. ADH
b. Vasopressin
c. Oxytocin
d. ACTH
e. TSH
71. What are the target organs of STH action:
a. Liver
b. Skeletal musculature
c. Fat tissue
d. Growth cartilage of long bones
e. Mammary gland
72. Choose the correct statements regarding the main functions of local hormones:
a. Renin – causes contraction of arterioles
b. Prostaglandins – cause increased blood pressure
c. Serotonin – participates in immune reactions
d. Gastrin – modulates cellular activities
e. Histamine – stimulates visceral smooth muscle
73. Aldosterone has the following actions:
a. Intensifies water reabsorption in the distal segment and collector tube
b. It is secreted by the adrenal medulla
c. Increases excretion of phosphate, sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate
d. Determines Na+ reabsorption and elimination of K+ in distal tubules and nephron collectors
e. Decreases the elimination of calcium, magnesium, and hydrogen ions
1. *Between the cheeks and dental arches there is a virtual space called:
a. Buccal floor
b. Palatine vault
c. Buccal vestibule
d. Alveolar ridge
e. Neutral space
2. *The pharynx is an organ in which crossbreeding takes place:
a. Airway with salivary glands
b. Digestive tract with airway
c. Digestive tract with the stomach
d. Airway with duodenum
e. Salivary glands with pyloric antrum
3. *The small intestine is the most important segment of the digestive tract due to:
a. Its excretory and secretory functions
b. Its motor, secretory, and absorption functions
c. Its functions of digestion and absorption
d. Its antitoxic functions
e. Its thermoregulatory function
4. *The esophagus crosses the following topographic regions:
a. Oral cavity and throat
b. Throat and stomach
c. Throat, thorax, and stomach in full
d. Oral cavity, esophagus, and stomach
e. Neck, thorax, and partly abdomen
5. *The fermentation process takes place in:
a. In the last part of the large intestine
b. On the entire portion of the large intestine
c. In the first part of the large intestine
d. In the first and last part of the large intestine
e. In the anterior and lateral part of the large intestine
6. The oral cavity has the following segments:
a. Anterior buccal orifice (mouth), bordered by the two lips
b. Lateral cheeks
c. Laterally the two lips bordered by cheeks
d. Upper palatine vault
e. Interior dental arches and tongue
7. The large intestine is divided into the following segments:
a. Cecum
b. Jejunum
c. Colon
d. Rectum
e. Pylorus
8. The mucous tunic of the digestive tract has tissue of the following types:
a. Pluristratified columnar epithelium
b. Unlayered cylindrical epithelium
c. Striated muscle tissue
d. Loose connective tissue
9. The external tunic of the digestive tract – adventitious has the following localization:
a. Throughout the digestive tract
b. Only in the esophagus and stomach
c. At the level of the colon, in its outer layer
d. In the pharynx, esophagus, and terminal portion of the rectum
e. In the rest of the digestive tract, covered by peritoneum
10. Indicate the correct statements on the liver:
a. It is elongated in shape, sitting behind the stomach
b. It is an organ with multiple metabolic functions
c. It acts as an annex gland of the digestive tract
d. It is the smallest exocrine gland
e. It is placed under the diaphragm in the right upper area of the abdominal cavity
11. The following large salivary glands open into the oral cavity:
a. Sublingual
b. Submaxillary
c. Submandibular
d. Sinus
e. Parotid
12. Identify the correct answers about the structure of the liver:
a. It consists of an epithelial stroma
b. It consists of a connective stroma and a hepatic parenchyma
c. The stroma comprises an outer shell, the Glisson capsule
d. The stroma comprises an internal formation, called the Glisson Formation
e. Features a rough coating
13. The bile is:
a. The product of continuous secretion of salivary glands
b. It is the product of continuous secretion of hepatocytes
c. Its evacuation is done intermittently, during sleep, through the bile duct
d. In interdigestive periods, bile reaches the gallbladder through the cystic duct
e. It flows into the right hepatic canal
14. The liver has a vascularization:
a. Nutritious, represented by the hepatic artery
b. Functional, performed by the hepatic artery
c. Functional, performed by the hepatic portal system
d. Vascularization performed by the gastroepiploic artery
e. Vascularized by short gastric arteries
15. The pancreas is:
a. It is round in shape
b. A mixed gland of acinous type
c. Also called abdominal salivary gland
d. Its acins secrete gastric juice
e. Among the glandular acins are the islets of Langerhans that secrete insulin and glucagon
16. Mechanical digestion includes the following categories of phenomena:
a. Converting ingested food into relatively large and solid fragments, into small and soft particles, facilitating chemical digestion
b. Mixing the contents of the digestive tract with digestive juices
c. Mixing gastric chemicals with intestinal juices making it easier to transport the contents
d. Stagnation of food in the digestive tract and food debris
e. Progression of food along the digestive tract and elimination of undigested debris
17. The adjustment of mechanical processes comprises the following times:
a. Regulation of mastication
b. Regulation of esophageal motility
c. Swallowing regulation
d. Regulation of liver function
e. Regulation of gastric motility
18. The passive mechanisms by which intestinal absorption is achieved are:
a. Diffusion of substances from high to low concentration
b. Diffusion of substances from low to high concentration
c. Osmosis – transition of solutions from low osmotic pressure to high osmotic pressure
d. Pinocytosis – the incorporation of fluid droplets and their transport through the intestinal mucosa to the internal environment
e. Pinocytosis – incorporation of solid materials and their transport through the intestinal mucosa to the external environment
19. Lipid absorption occurs in the following forms in the small intestine:
a. Through complexes of fat-soluble micelles
b. By pinocytosis, for small drops of water-soluble fats
c. Through pinocytosis for small drops of undigested fat
d. By diffusion, passively, for glycerol, which is water soluble
e. Through complexes of water-soluble micelles, formed by insoluble fatty acids and cholesterol with bile salts
20. At the level of the large intestine, the following activities are carried out:
a. Secretory, motor and absorption
b. Fermentation and putrefaction processes take place here
c. Chemical digestion processes take place here
d. At this level, no chemical digestion processes are carried out
e. No fermentation processes take place at this level
21. Defecation is attended by:
a. Only digestive tract muscles
b. Digestive tract muscles
c. Groups of striated muscles under cortical control
d. Exclusive groups of striated muscles under cortical control
e. Muscles of the abdominal viscera
22. In the large intestine can be absorbed:
a. Vitamins and lipids
b. Water and mineral salts
c. Some vitamins (B, K)
d. Some medications
e. All types of drugs and vitamins
23. Specify the types of enzymes present in pancreatic juice:
a. Trypsin
b. Gelatinase
c. Carboxypeptidase
d. Peptidases
e. Pancreatic amylase
24. Identify the main actions of saliva:
a. Excretion of some toxic substances and viruses
b. Chemical digestion of prepared starch
c. Antiseptic action
d. Maintaining water balance
e. Chemical digestion of proteins
25. The main actions of bile salts are:
a. Chemical digestion of prepared starch
b. Chemical digestion of proteins
c. Lipid emulsification
d. Promoting the absorption of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins by forming water-soluble micelles with fatty acids
e. Stimulation of intestinal peristalsis
26. The following mechanical phenomena occur in the stomach:
a. Temporary storage of food
b. Segmentation movements
c. Tonic filling movements
d. Peristaltic movements: starvation, mixing, evacuation
e. Slow and fast peristaltic movements
27. The chemical composition of saliva is:
a. Water 95% - 97%
b. Water 99.5%
c. Minerals: baking soda
d. Organic substances: salivary amylase, mucin, lysozyme
e. Organic substances: proteolytic enzymes, mucin, cholesterol
28. Enterocolitis
a. It represents a medical-surgical emergency
b. It represents inflammation of the lining of the small and large intestine
c. The cause may be bacterial, parasitic, allergic, or uncontrolled administration of antibiotics
d. Defines the complete or almost complete stopping of the passage to the small intestine or large intestine
e. It represents diffuse disorganization of normal liver structure
29. Intestinal occlusion
a. It represents inflammation of the lining of the small and large intestine
b. It represents the blockage of the intestinal lumen
c. It represents diffuse disorganization of normal liver structure
d. The causes can be mechanical, nervous or parasitic
e. Defines the formation or presence of gallstones in the gallbladder
30. Cirrhosis of the liver
a. Defines the formation or presence of gallstones in the gallbladder
b. It represents the diffuse disorganization of the normal liver structure by the formation of regenerative nodules, surrounded by fibrous tissue
c. It represents inflammation of the lining of the small and large intestine
d. It has multiple etiologies: infectious, toxic, altered immune response, biliary obstruction, or vascular changes
e. Defines the complete or almost complete stopping of the passage to the small intestine or large intestine
31. Gallstones
b. Defines the complete or almost complete stopping of the passage to the small intestine or large intestine
d. It is more common in women, obese and those with unbalanced diets
32. Pharyngitis
a. It represents diffuse disorganization of normal liver structure
b. It represents inflammation in the pancreas
c. Defines acute inflammation of the pharyngeal mucosa
d. It is characterized by sore throat, especially when swallowing
e. It represents inflammation of the lining of the small and large intestine
33. In the liver, amino acids:
a. Serve synthesis and early reshuffle
b. Are decarboxylates
c. Are oxidatively deaminated
d. Are deaminated anaerobically
e. Are aerobically deaminated
34. *The external tunic of the digestive tract is:
a. Adventitious
b. Mucous tunic
c. Muscular tunic
d. Submucosal tunic
e. Serous tunic
35. The free small intestine contains the following portions:
a. Jejunum
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Cecum
e. Sigma
36. The appendix glands of the digestive tract are:
a. Salivary glands
b. Pharynx
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
e. Esophagus
37. *Bile is the product of continuous secretion of:
b. Hepatocytes
c. Duodenum
e. Salivary glands
38. *The protein hydrolysis process results in:
a. Monosaccharides
b. Amino acids
c. Fatty acids
d. Glycerol
e. Polysaccharides
1. *The composition of the blood is:
a. The liquid part, which accounts for 10% and figurative elements 90%
b. Figurative elements only
c. 100% plasma
d. Liquid part, plasma accounting for 55% and figurative elements
e. The liquid part, plasma which accounts for 30% and a solid part for 70%
2. *Blood platelets are represented by:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Red blood cells
c. Leukocytes
d. Platelets
e. Hemoglobin
3. *Stable increase in red blood cell count is called:
a. Polyglobulia
b. Globulinaemia
c. Anemia
d. Leukemia
e. Hematemesis
4. *The transport of respiratory gases is performed as follows:
a. In dissolved plasma as well as in red blood cells by labile combinations of hemoglobin with these gases
b. In plasma in neutral form and in red blood cells by stable combinations of hemoglobin with these gases
c. In dissolved plasma, as well as in red blood cells, by stable combinations of hemoglobin with these gases
d. In plasma in neutral form as well as in red blood cells by labile combinations of hemoglobin with these gases
e. In plasma in neutral form as well as in red blood cells by stable combinations of hemoglobin with these gases
5. *Hemostasis proceeds in the following times:
a. Vasculoplatelet (2-7 minutes), plasma (4-10 minutes), thrombodynamic (2-24 hours)
b. Vasculoplatelet (2-10 minutes), plasma (4-12 minutes), thrombodynamic (2-24 hours)
c. Vasculoplatelet (2-5 minutes), plasma (7-10 minutes), thrombodynamic (2-12 hours)
d. Vasculoplatelet (12-14 minutes), plasma (4-18 minutes), thrombodynamic (2-24 hours)
e. Vasculoplatelet (2-4 minutes), plasma (4-8 minutes), thrombodynamic (2-24 hours)
6. The properties of blood are as follows:
a. The color is red due to hemoglobin in neutrophils
b. It is differentiated into light red blood for non-oxygenated blood
c. Blood density is 1055 versus water density of 1000
d. The reaction is weakly alkaline
e. The temperature varies between 40°C in the lungs and 36°C in the liver
7. Plasma – the liquid part of blood has the following properties:
a. It is a light red liquid
b. It is composed of water and dry residue
c. It is composed of water and figured elements
d. It contains only neutrophils, water and protein
e. It is a yellowish, viscous liquid
8. The main types of blood figurative elements are represented by:
a. Red blood cells
b. Lymphatic globules
c. White blood cells
d. Blood platelets
e. Platelets
9. Indicate the correct answers regarding the interstitial fluid:
a. It is located in the microscopic intercellular spaces
b. It is an aqueous liquid
c. It has a composition similar to blood
d. It contains figurative elements and few proteins
e. Its composition differs from tissue to tissue
10. The following represent functions of blood:
a. Ensures transport of nutrient-free water
b. Maintaining the body's hydro electrolytic balance
c. Transports only 10% of respiratory gases
d. Transport of excretory substances
e. Transport of water and nutrients
11. Thrombodynamic time consists of:
a. Thromboplastin formation
b. Fibrin formation
c. Clot retraction by serum exhaustion
d. Decomposition of the clot under the action of proteolytic enzymes
e. Removal of the clot and resumption of circulation through the injured vessel
12. Vasculoplatelet time consists of:
a. Vasoconstriction of the vascular wall
b. Adhesion of platelets to the wound
d. Thromboplastin formation
e. Platelet agglutination and formation of a platelet plug, which causes bleeding to stop
13. Plasma time consists of:
b. Clot retraction by serum exhaustion
c. Removal of the clot and resumption of circulation through the injured vessel
d. Thrombin formation
e. Fibrin formation
14. The antibodies are:
a. Lipid substances of the gamma globulin class
b. Protein substances of the gamma globulin class
c. They are immunoglobulins that circulate in the blood plasma
d. Provides regulation of the functions and unity of the body
e. Maintains the body's hydro electrolyte balance
15. Identify the correct answers about blood transfusion:
a. It is a frequent method of medical treatment
b. It is a rare method of medical treatment
c. It consists of administering fresh or preserved blood from a donor
d. In transfusion practice, account should be taken of the presence in the erythrocyte membrane of substances with antigenic action
e. It consists of administering exclusively fresh blood
17. Phagocytic activity of leukocytes is favored by the following humoral factors:
a. Lysozyme
b. Macrophages
c. Agglutinins
d. Polynuclear
e. Interferon
18. Natural immunity is characterized by the following:
a. It can be innate or acquired
b. Can be active or passive
c. It is common to all individuals; it is transmitted hereditarily
d. It is transmitted by administration of sera, which contain ready-made antibodies
e. It is individual, obtained passively (through breast milk) or actively (due to illness)
19. Artificial immunity is characterized by the following:
a. It is obtained by vaccination causing the production of specific antibodies
b. It can be active or passive
20. Local inflammatory reaction is characterized by the following:
a. Low temperature
b. Redness
c. Swelling
d. Pain
e. Increased temperature
21. Specify the correct answers that characterize leukocytes:
a. They come in different shapes and sizes
b. They are grouped according to the composition of the nucleus into two main types
c. They are immobile cells capable of emitting cytoplasmic extensions
d. They are mobile cells capable of emitting cytoplasmic extensions
e. The stable increase in the number of leukocytes is called polyglobulia
22. The production of leukocytes occurs in:
a. White bone marrow
b. Red bone marrow
c. In the spleen
d. In the thymus
e. Lymph nodes
23. Platelets are:
a. Nucleated cells of different shapes and sizes
b. Blood platelets
c. They are anucleate cell fragments of variable shape
d. They originate from hematogenous bone marrow megakaryocytes
e. Intervene passively in hemostasis
24. State the correct answers from the following statements about transporting respiratory gases:
a. It is performed both in blood plasma and in red blood cells
b. The labile combination of hemoglobin with oxygen, oxyhemoglobin, is the main form of transport of O₂ in the blood
c. The labile combination of hemoglobin with oxygen, oxyhemoglobin, is the main form of transport of CO₂ in the blood
d. The labile combination of carbon dioxide and hemoglobin, carboxyhemoglobin, is one of the transport forms of CO₂ from tissues to the lungs
e. Both combinations are due to irreversible binding of O₂ to Fe²⁺ of the heme
25. Lymphocytes have the following roles in defending the body:
a. T-lymphocytes synthesize specific antibodies (humoral immunity)
b. B lymphocytes intervene by preserving immune memory at the cellular level (cellular immunity)
c. T lymphocytes intervene by preserving immune memory at the cellular level (cellular immunity)
d. B lymphocytes synthesize specific antibodies (humoral immunity)
e. T-lymphocytes synthesize nonspecific antibodies
26. Blood plasma consists of:
b. Albumin
c. Globulins
d. Erythrocytes
e. Thrombocytes
27. Types of figurative elements:
a. Leukocytes
b. Platelets
c. Erythrocytes
d. Fibrinogen
e. Albumin
28. Leukocytes are divided into:
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils
d. Globulins
e. Nucleocytes
29. The functions of blood are:
a. Transport of water and nutrients
b. Transport of excretory substances
c. Transport of respiratory gases
d. Maintaining the body's water-electrolyte balance
e. Transport of nerve influx
30. Types of natural immunity are:
a. Innate
b. Activate
c. Passive
d. Gained
e. Transmissible
31. Red blood cells:
a. They are vesicles containing mainly lysosomes that participate in phagocytosis
b. They are annucleated cells of discoidal, biconcave shape, containing hemoglobin
c. They are mobile cells capable of emitting cytoplasmic extensions by means of which they move
d. Their number remains constant in the blood due to the existing balance between erythropoiesis and hemolysis
e. Actively intervene in hemostasis
32. About vasculoplatelet time the following statements are true:
a. It is also called blood clotting
b. It is also called temporary hemostasis
c. It is triggered when a blood vessel is injured
d. It occurs under the action of coagulation factors of plasma nature
e. Determines blood clotting in 3 phases
33. Hemoglobin:
a. It is made up of plasma
b. It consists of figurative elements
c. It is a complex protein substance consisting of globin and heme
d. It is located in red blood cells
e. It is a yellowish, viscous liquid composed of water and dry residue
34. *How much is the plasma in the blood volume:
a. 25 %
b. 45%
c. 55%
d. 35%
e. 15 %
35. *For a normal adult weighing 70 kg, the total blood volume is:
a. 6.5 liters
b. 8 liters
c. 5 liters
d. 5.6 liters
e. 5.2 liters
36. Choose the right statements about platelets:
a. They are red blood cells
b. They are blood platelets
c. They have a role in hemostasis
d. They are figurative elements of blood
e. They are white blood cells
37. Blood group 0 I:
a. Can donate to group A II
b. Can donate to group B III
c. Can receive from group AB IV
d. It has agglutinins α and β in plasma
e. It has agglutinogens A and B on erythrocytes
1. *The lining of the heart is called:
a. Epicardium
b. Pericardium
c. Peritoneum
d. Pleura
e. Myocardium
2. *Myocardium consists of:
a. From several layers of smooth muscle fibers
b. From a single layer of connective tissue
c. Exclusively from connective fibers
d. From a network of muscle fibers inserted onto a fibrous skeleton
e. From a network of connective fibers inserted onto a fibrous skeleton
3. *Cardiac output represents:
a. The volume of blood expelled by the heart in a systole
b. The volume of blood expelled by the heart in a diastole
c. Volume of blood sent by the heart to the body/minute
d. Systolic volume x arterial pressure mean
e. Volume of blood expelled by the heart in a systole x average arterial pressure
4. *The heart cycle consists of a systole and a diastole at a rate of:
a. 70 beats/minute
b. 75 beats/minute
c. 88 beats/minute
d. 55 beats/minute
e. 66 beats/minute
5. *The property of capillaries to change their lumen is called:
a. Capillary contractility
b. Capillary plasticity
c. Capillary elasticity
d. Capillary motility
e. Capillary motor skills
6. The heart wall consists of:
a. The outer layer called the epicardium
b. Middle layer denoted myocardium
c. Anterior layer called myocardium
d. Posterior layer called endocardium
e. Internal layer called endocardium
7. The pericardium, the lining of the heart consists of:
a. Pericardial fluid
b. Pericardial sheet
c. Fibrous pericardium
d. Dense connective tissue
e. Serous pericardium
8. The pericardium has the following roles:
a. Role of mechanical protection of the heart
b. Prevents friction through the pericardial sheet
c. Ensures heart mobility
d. Ensures heart contractions
e. Prevents friction through pericardial fluid
9. The muscles of the atria are:
a. More developed
b. Thinner
c. Thicker
d. Structurally independent of ventricular muscles
e. Structurally independent of atrial muscles
10. State the correct answers about the composition of the heart:
a. The atria and ventricles communicate with each other through the atrioventricular orifices
b. It weighs between 500-800g
c. It is located in the mediastinum, on the midline of the body
d. It is divided into four rooms
e. The two halves of the heart are separated by a ventricular block
11. Nodal tissue consists of:
a. Purkinje nodule
b. Sinoatrial node
c. Atrioventricular node
d. Hiss beam
e. Purkinje Network
12. Myocardial vascularization is achieved through:
a. Arterial vascularization through coronary veins
b. Venous vascularization through coronary arteries
c. Arterial vascularization through the right and left coronary arteries
d. Return venous vascularization through coronary veins
e. Arterial vascularization through branches of the aortic artery
13. The properties of the myocardium are as follows:
b. Contractility
c. Motility
d. Automatism
e. Conductivity
14. Acoustic manifestations during the cardiac cycle are represented by:
a. Arterial pulse
b. Apexian shock
c. Systolic noise
d. Diastolic noise
e. Apexo-arterial noises
15. The vascular tree consists of:
a. Muscle
b. Arteries
d. Veins
e. Capillaries
16. Systemic circulation comprises:
a. Venous system that provides transport of O2 and nutrients
b. Aortic system that ensures transport of O2 and nutrients
c. Capillary system that ensures nutritional and gas exchanges at tissue level
d. The capillary system through which blood with CO2 returns to the heart
e. The venous system through which blood with CO2 returns to the heart
17. The aorta artery has the following portions:
a. Ascending aorta
b. Ascending aortic club
c. Aortic club
d. Descending thoracic aorta
e. Descending abdominal aorta
18. In functional pulmonary circulation:
a. Non-oxygenated blood circulates through the veins
b. Unoxygenated blood circulates through the arteries
c. Oxygenated blood circulates through the veins
d. Oxygenated blood circulates through the arteries
e. Both arteries and veins circulate oxygenated blood
19. Identify the correct answers regarding lymph nodes:
a. They are oval or reniform formations
b. They are located throughout the body
c. They are located on the route of lymphatic vessels
d. They are located and grouped preferably in certain body areas
e. They have two main functions: defense and production of figurative elements
20. The spleen is:
a. Localized in the left hypochondrium
b. It is ovoid in shape
c. It has variable size and decreases in infectious diseases
d. It contains lymphatic parenchyma and venous sinuses
e. It is located below the diaphragm and above the left kidney
21. The main functions of the spleen are:
a. Hematopoiesis, production of monocytes and lymphocytes
b. The function of repelling microorganisms in the blood
c. Permanent blood supply
d. Hemolysis of red blood cells and platelets
e. Defense function by phagocytic microorganisms in the blood
22. Pulmonary circulation provides:
a. Transport of O2 blood from the heart to the lungs through the pulmonary artery
b. The return of CO2 blood from the lungs to the heart through the 2 pulmonary veins
c. Transport of CO2 blood from the heart (right ventricle) to the lungs through the pulmonary artery with its branches
d. The return of CO2 blood from the lungs to the heart through the 4 pulmonary veins
e. Return of oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart through the 4 pulmonary veins
23. The main properties of veins are:
b. Permeability
c. Conductivity
d. Distensibility
e. Contractility
24. The factors that cause blood to return to the heart through the venous system are:
a. Aspiro-repellent pump activity of the heart
b. Relaxation of skeletal muscles
c. Atrial aspiration performed during ventricular systole
d. Chest aspiration during inspiration
e. Abdominal press during inspiration
25. In the body there are the following lymphoid organs:
b. Thymus
d. Tonsils
e. Lymph
26. *Tachycardia represents
a. Prolonged muscle contraction
b. Acceleration of cardiac function, exceeding the physiological normal value
c. Transfer of another mic groups from an amino acid to a ketoacid
d. Permanent state of slight tension of the muscles of a healthy body in a state of
e. Property of some membranes to allow selective passage of components of a sensory mixture
27. Coronary arteries:
a. They are paired branches: right and left
b. Carry venous blood
c. They detach from the origin of the aorta
d. Their branches do not perform anastomoses
e. They make up the locomotor system, being its active parts
28. The properties of the myocardium are:
b. Automatism
d. Contractility
e. Flaccidity
29. The mechanical manifestations of the heart are:
a. Apexian shock
b. Arterial pulse
c. Systolic noise I
d. Systolic noise II
e. Systolic noise III
30. Regulation of blood circulation is done by:
a. Nerve regulation
b. Arterial regulation
c. Venous regulation
d. Humoral adjustment
e. Systemic regulation
31. The heart wall consists of the following 3 layers:
a. External layer, myocardium
b. External layer, epicardium
c. Middle layer, myocardium
d. Internal layer, myocardium
e. Internal layer, endocardium
32. The afferent and efferent vessels of the right atrium are:
a. 3-valve pulmonary artery
b. Superior vena cava
c. Inferior vena cava
d. Coronary sinus
e. Aorta artery with valves
33. *The afferent and efferent vessels of the left atrium are:
a. Aorta artery with valves
b. Coronary sinus
c. 3-valve pulmonary artery
d. 4 pulmonary veins
e. Superior vena cava
34. The afferent and efferent vessels of the left ventricle are, except:
d. The 4 pulmonary veins
e. Coronary sinus
35. *Excitability is the property of the myocardium to:
a. Rhythmically self-excite under the influence of nodal tissue
b. Respond to the action of a stimulus by changes in size and tension
c. Transform chemical energy
d. Respond maximally to stimuli that equal or exceed the threshold value
e. Propagate electrical excitation in all fibers
36. Systolic flow rate represents:
b. The volume of blood sent by the heart to the body/minute
c. The work of the heart in systole
d. Approximately 75ml
e. It consists of a systole and a diastole
37. *Automatism is the property of the heart to:
a. Respond maximally to stimuli that equal or exceed the threshold value
c. Rhythmically electrically self-excite under the influence of nodal tissue
d. Does not respond to stimuli
e. Propagate excitation in all fibers
38. Cardiac output represents:
a. The volume of blood expelled by the heart in a systole, approximately 75ml
b. It consists of a systole and a diastole
d. The volume of blood sent by the heart to the body/minute
e. Systolic flow rate x heart rate 75x75= 5.5l/min
39. Systemic circulation comprises:
a. Aortic system
b. Aperture
c. Capillary system
d. Venous system
e. Hiss bundle
40. The properties of arteries are:
a. They are arranged in series
b. Elasticity
c. Motricity
e. Permeability
41. The main properties of capillaries are:
c. They are arranged in series
d. Motricity
42. *Permeability is the property of capillaries to:
a. Allow the exchange of water and dissolved substances between blood and tissues by filtration, diffusion, and osmosis
b. Store part of the energy in the form of elastic tension
c. Dampen the "shock wave" caused by the ventricular systole
d. Actively change the size
e. Transform the jerky flow of blood
43. What are the fundamental properties of the myocardium?
c. Peristalsis
d. Conductivity
44. Choose true statements about automatism:
a. It represents the property of the heart to stimulate itself
b. It is generated in certain centers of cardiac automatism
c. It represents the property of the myocardium to propagate excitation to all its fibers
d. It is based on the activity of cells that initiate and conduct impulses
e. Ensures the continuation of the rhythmic activity of the heart, removed from the body, if irrigated with a special nutrient fluid
45. *How long does ventricular systole last?
a. 0.30 seconds
b. 0.20 seconds
c. 0.40 seconds
d. 0.10 seconds
e. 0.50 seconds
46. *How long does ventricular diastole last?
a. 0.40 seconds
b. 0.50 seconds
c. 0.30 seconds
d. 0.20 seconds
e. 0.60 seconds
1. At the level of the pharynx occur:
a. All respiratory gas exchanges
b. O2 CO2 exchange
c. Crossing the airway with the digestive one
d. Airway and breathing crossing
e. Pulmonary ventilation
2. The nasal passages themselves have the following walls:
a. Superior and lower
b. Upper, lower, internal and lateral
c. Internal and lateral
d. Upper, internal and lateral
e. Superior (septal) and inferior (ductal)
3. Air enters and leaves the larynx through the orifice called:
a. Epiglottis
b. Glottis
c. Cardia
d. Venule
e. Laryngeal cavity
4. Pleural fluid is secreted by:
a. Visceral epithelium cells with a role in exhalation mechanics
b. Pleural epithelium cells with a role in inspirational mechanics
c. Lung parenchyma cells
d. Lung segment cells with a role in inspirational mechanics
e. Lung lobule cells with a role in exercise mechanics
5. Lobular bronchioles branch until:
a. Alveolar sacs and respiratory bronchioles
b. Lobar bronchi and main bronchi
c. Terminal bronchioles and respiratory bronchioles
d. Pulmonary acins and respiratory bronchioles
e. Segmental bronchi and pulmonary bronchi
6. The extrapulmonary airways are:
a. Mouth
b. Nasal passages
c. Larynx
d. Trachea
e. Bronchi
7. Which of the following statements describe the nasal passages:
a. They have two distinct segments: one anterior and one posterior
b. There are two ducts located behind the nasal pyramid
c. There are two ducts located before the nasal pyramid
d. The nasal vestibule is lined with skin
e. The nasal vestibule contains sebaceous glands and hair follicles
8. State the correct answers regarding the trachea:
a. It is a tube-shaped organ
b. The anterior part of the rings is complemented by fibroelastic connective tissue
c. It has a length of about 10-12 cm
d. The trachea is lined on the inside by smooth connective tissue
e. The wall of the trachea possesses a skeleton consisting of 15-20 cartilaginous, horseshoe-shaped rings
9. The bronchi have the following characteristics:
a. They penetrate the lungs through hila
b. At the T4 level, the trachea divides into two main bronchi, right and left
c. It branches intrapulmonary, forming the bronchial tree
d. The structure of the main bronchi is similar to the esophagus
e. It has complete cartilaginous rings posteriorly
10. State the correct statements describing the lungs:
a. They are placed in the abdominal cavity
b. They are shaped like a cone trunk
c. It has a base, a vertex and two sides and three edges
d. In the lungs, heat and gas exchanges take place in the body
e. They are placed in the chest cavity
11. The lungs have the following types of vascularization:
a. Venous vascularization
b. Arterial vascularization
c. Nutritional vascularization
d. Functional vascularization
e. Independent vascularization
12. Gas exchanges in the body are carried out at the following stages:
a. Aerobic respiration
b. Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the blood
c. Pulmonary respiration
d. Anaerobic respiration
e. Cellular (tissue) respiration
13. Cellular respiration is carried out with the participation of the following categories of processes:
a. Chemical fusion processes
b. Mechanical fusion processes
c. Physical fusion processes
d. Oxidoreducing chemical reactions
e. Physical oxidoreducing reactions
14. The frequency of respiratory movements at rest is:
a. 16 breaths/minute in men
b. 20 breaths/minute in men
c. 20 breaths/minute in women
d. 18 breaths/minute in women
e. 18 breaths/minute for men and 20 breaths/minute for women
15. Cellular respiration occurs in the following stages:
a. Aerobic degradation of glucose in the cytoplasm
b. Anaerobic degradation of glucose in the cytoplasm and fatty acid oxidation in mitochondria
c. Decarboxylation and oxidation of intermediate products resulting from the Krebs cycle in mitochondria with release of CO2, H2O, electrons and H+
d. Storage of part of the energy produced in ATP macroergic bonds, as a result of ADP phosphorylation, coupled with electron transport
e. Transfer of H2O and electrolytes in the electron transport chain up to molecular H2O, followed by the release of significant amounts of energy
16. Indicate the correct answers regarding the inhalation:
a. It is a passive motor act
b. It is carried out with the help of respiratory muscles
c. The contraction of the muscles changes the volume of the rib cage, increasing it in all three diameters
d. The contraction of the muscles changes the volume and position of the rib cage, shrinking in all three diameters
e. It is an active motor act
17. The following statements about the lungs are true:
a. The external face of the lungs is concave
b. The consistency of the lungs is elastic, spongy
c. Splits divide lungs into lobes
d. The external face of the lungs is convex
e. The right lung has 2 lobes, the left lung has 3 lobes
18. The pulmonary alveoli have the following characteristics:
a. They are oval in shape
b. Around the alveoli there is a weak network of perialveolar capillaries
c. There are 75-100 million alveoli
d. The walls are adapted to gas exchanges
e. They have the form of bags with very thin walls
19. Exhalation has the following characteristics:
a. It is a passive process
b. It is an active motor act
c. Under normal conditions, the thorax returns to its resting dimensions
d. It represents the process of relaxation of respiratory muscles
e. As a result, the pressure inside the lungs increases, and some of the air introduced into the lungs is expelled
20. Respiratory movements allow:
a. Relaxation of respiratory muscles
b. Successive penetration and exit of air from the lungs
c. Contribute to the achievement of pulmonary ventilation
d. Slowing down the dynamics of gas exchanges
e. Pushing excess mucus and possible impurities towards the pharynx
21. In the production of sounds participate:
a. Cheeks
b. Language
c. Lips
d. Resonator organs: nasal cavity, oral cavity, and bone sinuses
e. Tonsils
22. The external face of the lungs is:
a. Convex
b. Concave
c. Has intimate contact with the trachea
d. It is furrowed by deep ditches called splits
e. It comes relative to the lining of the chest cavity
23. The formation and dissociation of hemoglobin depends on:
a. pH of the internal environment
b. Cellular respiration
c. Presence or absence of electrolytes
d. Temperature
e. Lung ventilation capacity
24. CO2 has the following properties:
a. It is one of the most important factors regulating the activity of respiratory centers
b. Any variation in the concentration of CO2 in the blood causes changes in the respiratory centers
c. An increase of only 0.2% in the concentration of CO2 in the alveolar air causes the disturbance of frequency and an increase in the amplitude of respiratory movements
d. The decrease in the concentration of dissolved CO2 in plasma causes weaker stimulation of the respiratory centers
e. Performs integration of respiratory function with heart rate in thermoregulation processes
25. Respiratory function is influenced by:
a. Limbic system
b. Nerve regulation
c. Hypothalamus
d. Cerebral cortex
e. Bulbopontin nerve centers
26. The structure of the alveolo-capillary membrane includes:
a. Capillary endothelium
b. Alveolar epithelium
c. Basement membrane of the blood capillary
d. Sclerotic endothelium
e. The basement membrane of the alveolar epithelium
27. Nasal cavity:
a. It is an organ with dual functions: respiratory but also phonatory, through the vocal cords
b. It is a tube-shaped organ that continues the larynx
c. It consists of two symmetrical spaces called nasal fossae
d. Together with the walls of the alveoli, it forms the alveolo-capillary membrane
e. From the nasal cavities, air passes through the pharynx
28. There are four different lung volumes, namely:
a. Current volume
b. Backup inspiratory volume
c. Spare expiratory volume
d. Residual volume
e. Maximum exhaled volume per second
29. Backup inhalation volume:
a. It is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing
b. It represents the additional amount of air that can be exhaled after a forced exhalation
c. It is an additional volume of air that can be breathed in over the current volume by forced inhalation
d. Measures 1500 cm3
e. It is the volume of air that remains in the lungs even after a forced exhalation
30. The spare expiratory volume represents:
a. It is the volume of air that remains in the lungs even after a forced exhalation
b. Represents the additional amount of air that can be exhaled following a forced exhalation, after the expiration of the current volume
c. It is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing
d. It is an additional volume of air that can be breathed in over the current volume
e. About 1500 cm3
31. The residual volume is:
a. The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a forced exhalation
b. It measures approximately 1500 cm3
c. It is an additional volume of air that can be breathed in over the current volume
d. Represents the additional amount of air that can be exhaled following a forced exhalation after the expiration of a current volume
e. Average 500 cm3
32. Pulmonary emphysema has the following peculiarities:
a. It is a contagious disease of seasonal character
b. Functional lung tissue is replaced by fibrous tissue
c. Illustrates a complex, obstructive and destructive pulmonary process
d. Most of the time, it is the consequence of prolonged smoking
e. It is an acute viral respiratory infection, caused by the influenza virus
33. The flu has the following peculiarities:
a. Functional lung tissue is replaced by fibrous tissue
b. It is an acute viral respiratory infection, caused by the influenza virus
c. It is a contagious disease of seasonal character
e. Illustrates a complex, obstructive and destructive pulmonary process
34. The extrapulmonary airways are:
a. Nasal passages
b. Larynx
c. Trachea
d. Bronchi
e. Bronchioles
35. State the correct statements describing the lungs:
c. They have a base, a vertex and two sides and three edges
d. They are placed in the chest cavity
e. They are wrapped in a serous called the pericardium
36. The respiratory system consists of:
a. Extrapulmonary airway
b. Lungs
c. Organic substances
d. Oral cavity
e. Mandible
37. Pharynx:
a. At this level, the airway crosses with the digestive tract
b. It is the organ of phonation
c. It also acts as a barrier to infections
d. Air enters and leaves through its upper orifice, called the glottis
e. Provides preheating of inspired air
38. Larynx:
b. Provides preheating of inspired air
c. Air enters and leaves through its upper orifice, called the glottis
d. It is the organ of phonation
e. It also acts as a barrier to infections
39. Trachea:
a. It is the organ of phonation
b. At this level, the crossing of the airway with the digestive tract takes place
c. It is a tube-shaped organ with a length of 10-12cm
d. It is lined on the inside with a pseudostrophic epithelium, called respiratory epithelium
e. It branches intrapulmonary, forming the bronchial tree
40. Bronchi:
a. Possesses a skeleton consisting of 15-20 cartilaginous rings
b. Consisting of two types of cells, ciliates and mucous membranes
c. They enter the lungs through the hila and branch intrapulmonary
d. Forms the bronchial tree
e. Have a permanent undulatory motion
41. The lungs have the following characteristics:
c. This is where gas exchanges between the body and atmospheric air take place
d. Each lung is enveloped by a serous, called the pleura
e. At this level, the crossing of the airway with the digestive one takes place
42. Total lung capacity is:
a. 3500 cm3
b. 5000 cm3
c. 4500 cm3
d. 4000 cm3
e. 5500 cm3
43. Intrapulmonary airways are represented by:
a. Pharynx
b. Trachea
c. Alveolar ducts
d. Respiratory bronchioles
e. Pulmonary alveoli
44. The intrapulmonary airways are represented by the following anatomical structures, except:
a. Segmental bronchi
b. Alveolar sacs
e. Lobular bronchioles
45. Extrapulmonary airways are represented by:
a. Lobular bronchioles
b. Pulmonary alveoli
c. Nasal passages
e. Larynx
46. The extrapulmonary airways are represented by the following anatomical structures, except:
a. Larynx
b. Main bronchi (extrapulmonary segment)
c. Main bronchi (intrapulmonary segment)
d. Terminal bronchioles
47. The airways are represented by:
a. Main bronchi
c. Nasal cavity
d. Pharynx and larynx
e. Ear
48. The muscles that intervene in inspiration are the following:
a. Muscles that cause ribs to lift
b. Muscles that cause the ribs to descend
c. Neck muscles
d. Diaphragm
e. Right abdominal muscles
49. What exactly is present inside the pulmonary alveoli?
a. Air
b. Surfactant
c. Surface tension forces
d. A thick layer of surfactant fluid on the inner surface of the alveoli
e. A thick layer of surfactant fluid on the external surface of the alveoli
50. The alveolo-capillary (respiratory) membrane is a morpho-functional structure of the pulmonary alveoli consisting of the following elements:
a. Surfactant
b. Capillary epithelium
c. Alveolar epithelium
d. Pulmonary interstitium
e. Bronchial epithelium
Correct: a, c,d
1. The kidneys are located:
a. Right and left iliac fossa
b. Left and right hypochondrium
c. Lateral peritoneum
d. Retroperitoneal, in renal lodges
e. Subdiaphragmatic
2. The medullary area of the renal parenchyma consists of:
a. 7-14 Malpighi renal pyramids
b. 14-18 Malpighi renal pyramids
c. 5-15 Malpighi renal pyramids
d. 1-5 Malpighi renal pyramids
e. 20-25 Malpighi renal pyramids
3. The cortical area of the renal parenchyma includes:
a. Groupings of glomerulus
b. Numerous uriniferous tubes of nephrons
c. Glomeruli and uriniferous tubes of nephrons
d. Nephron collector tubes
e. Renal pedicle
4. The morphofunctional unit of the kidney is:
a. Malpighi cell
b. Nephron
c. Malpighi renal pyramid
d. Ferrein pyramid
e. Ferrein corpuscle
5. The bladder is a hollow organ with a physiological capacity to:
a. 500-800ml
b. 300-350 ml
c. 450-650ml
d. 650-750 ml
e. 350-550ml
6. Small calyx are:
a. It results by uniting a number of 6-12 calyx
b. They are musculomembranous ducts
c. They are small cavitary organs with a capacity of 300 ml
d. Funnel-shaped lined with transitional epithelium
e. Membrane formations, with the proximal extremity located around one or more renal papillae
7. Indicate the correct answers about the bladder:
a. It is located in the bladder loggia in the pelvis
b. The bladder wall shows 3 smooth muscle blankets
c. The bladder wall is lined on the inside by urothelium
d. It is a hollow organ with a physiological capacity of 1500ml
e. Vegetative innervation is carried out by parasympathetic fibers in the hypogastric plexus
8. The urethra is in men the organ common to the systems:
a. Respiratory
b. Urinary
c. Excretory
d. Genital
e. Reproductive
9. At the place of origin of the urethra is located:
a. Internal sphincter (smooth)
b. External bladder sphincter (striated)
c. Lateral sphincter (smooth)
d. Posterior sphincter (striated)
e. Anterior sphincter (striated)
10. The essential function of the excretory system is:
a. Constant maintenance of the physical composition of the external environment
b. Constant maintenance of physical properties of the internal environment
c. Constant maintenance of physical and chemical properties of the external environment
d. Maintaining the electrolyte properties of the internal environment
e. Constant maintenance of the chemical composition of the internal environment
11. The formed urine is eliminated through the following urinary routes:
a. Urethra
b. Uterus
c. Calyx
d. Renal pelvis
e. Ureter
12. The process of urine formation is carried out in the following stages:
a. Glomerular refiltration
b. Glomerular ultrafiltration
c. Tubular reabsorption
d. Tubular secretion
e. Tubular excretion
13. Identify the correct answers regarding antidiuretic hormone:
a. Reduces Na+ elimination and increases K+ elimination
b. It is secreted by the anterior hypothalamic nuclei
c. Causes increased excretion of phosphate, sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate
d. Performs renin secretion
e. Intensifies water reabsorption in the distal segment and collector tube
14. Aldosterone:
a. Reduces elimination of Na+ in the distal tube
b. Increases elimination of Na+ in the proximal tube
c. Reduces elimination of K+ in the proximal tube
d. Reduces elimination of K+ and Na+ in the proximal tube
e. Increases elimination of K+ in the distal tube
15. The parathormone determines:
a. Decreased excretion of phosphate, sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate
b. Increased excretion of phosphate, sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate
c. Reduces sodium excretion in the distal tube
d. Decreased elimination of calcium, magnesium, and hydrogen ions
e. Intensifies water reabsorption in the distal segment
16. The ureters have the following characteristics:
a. They arise from the internal bladder sphincter and open into the bladder
b. They are lined on the inside by urothelium
c. They are musculomembranous ducts (30-35 cm long)
d. They are connective-muscular ducts (30-35 cm long)
e. They arise from the renal pelvises and open into the bladder
17. The uriniferous tube comprises the following segments:
b. Proximal contort tube
c. Distal contort tube
d. Ureters
e. Loop of Henle
18. In order to maintain homeostasis in the excretory system, it is important to carry out the following processes:
a. Elimination from the body of toxic and unnecessary substances in the form of urine
b. Maintenance of toxic substances in the body
c. Constant maintenance of blood pH (acid-base balance)
d. Inconstant maintenance of osmotic pressure
e. Exocrine function, by renin secretion by the juxtaglomerular apparatus
19. Micturition represents:
a. Regulation of water elimination under neuroendocrine control
b. The process of urine removal
c. It represents renin secretion at the level of the juxtaglomerular apparatus
d. It is the process of passing some constituents of primary urine from the uriniferous tube into the blood capillaries
e. The passage of urine from the collecting ducts into the calyx, then into the pelvis and ureters
20. The primary urine from the Bowmann capsule passes into the tubular system of the nephron where it undergoes processes of:
a. Secretion and absorption
b. Tubular removal
c. Reabsorption
e. Absorption
21. The renal pyramids comprise:
a. Excretory tubes of nephrons
b. Uriniferous tubes of nephrons
c. Glomeruli of nephrons
d. Collecting tubes, macroscopically visible in the form of striae
e. Excretory pathways, blood vessels and nerve fibers
22. Bowmann’s capsule exhibits the following properties:
a. It has an oval shape
b. It has the shape of a cup
c. The wall consists of two sheets: visceral and parietal
d. It consists of a ball of 20-25 capillaries
e. The visceral leaflet adheres to the glomerulus
23. The innervation of the kidney consists of:
a. Sympathetic fibers with vasodilating action
b. Vagal fibers of the renal plexus
c. Parasympathetic fibers
d. Sympathetic fibers from the renal plexus
e. Parasympathetic fibers with hypersecretion of mucus
24. Loop of Henle:
a. It consists of flattened epithelium
b. It is U-shaped
c. It consists of a cylindrical epithelium with brush trim
d. It forms the juxtaglomerular apparatus together with the afferent arteriole
e. Exhibits filtering qualities of the basement membrane of the endothelium
25. Indicate the correct statements regarding the vascularization of the kidney:
a. The interlobar arteries are arranged between the renal pyramids
b. The interlobular veins arise from the interlobar arteries
c. The renal artery after penetrating the kidney branches into the interlobar arteries
d. The efferent arteriole arises from the capillaries of the renal glomerulus
e. Arcuate veins converge in the renal vein
26. Glomerular ultrafiltration:
a. It is a process is determined by the effective filtration pressure manifested at the level of the filter membrane
b. It is the process of passing some constituents of primary urine from the uriniferous tube into the blood capillaries
c. It is the process of passing blood plasma (excluding protein substances) through the filter membrane of the Malpighi corpuscle, into the uriniferous tube
d. Within 24 hours 1000-1500 l of blood passes through the kidneys
e. The ultrafiltrate has the constitution of deproteinized plasma
27. Tubular discharge is described by the following:
a. It represents the passage from the peritubular blood capillaries into the tubular lumen of K+ and H+, ammonia, urea and other toxic products of plasma
b. It is the process of passing blood plasma (excluding protein substances) through the filter membrane of the Malpighi corpuscle, into the uriniferous tube
c. It is a process is determined by the effective filtration pressure manifested at the level of the filter membrane
d. It runs only at the level of distal contorted tubules
e. It is carried out only at the level of proximal contorted tubules
28. The renal uriniferous tube comprises:
a. Renal corpuscle
b. Capillary endothelium
c. Proximal contort tube
d. Loop of Henle
e. Distal segment
29. Loop of Henle:
a. Comprises 3 segments
b. It consists of flattened epithelium
c. It has the shape of the letter U
d. Upon contact with the afferent arteriole forms the juxtaglomerular apparatus
e. It has a role in regulating blood pressure
30. Distal contort tube:
a. Upon contact with the afferent arteriole forms the juxtaglomerular apparatus
b. It has a role in regulating blood pressure
d. It consists of a cylindrical epithelium with brush trim
e. It opens in the collector channel
31. Bladder:
a. It is lined with transitional epithelium
b. It is a hollow organ with a physiological capacity of 300-350ml
c. It is located in the bladder box in the pelvis
d. It is lined on the inside by urothelium
e. It has the proximal extremity located around one or more renal papillae
32. Glomerular ultrafiltration:
a. It is the process of passing some constituents of primary urine from the uriniferous tube into the blood capillaries
b. It takes place at the level of proximal and distal segments
c. It is the process of passing blood plasma (except protein substances) through the filter membrane of the Malpighi corpuscle, into the uriniferous tube
d. It is determined by the effective filtration pressure manifested at the level of the filter membrane
e. It consists in the passage from the peritubular blood capillaries into the tubular lumen of K+, H+, ammonia, urea and other toxic products from plasma
33. Tubular reabsorption:
a. It is the process of passing blood plasma (except protein substances) through the filter membrane of the Malpighi corpuscle, into the uriniferous tube
b. It is determined by the effective filtration pressure manifested at the level of the filter membrane
c. It is the process of passing some constituents of primary urine from the uriniferous tube into the blood capillaries
d. It consists in the passage from the peritubular blood capillaries into the tubular lumen of K+, H+, ammonia, urea and other toxic products from plasma
e. It takes place at the level of proximal and distal segments and determines the saving of useful substances
34. Choose the right kidney-related affirmations:
a. They are placed in the lumbar region
b. They are placed in the thoracic region
c. They are placed on either side of the spine
d. They are located retroperitoneally
e. There are 3
35. What is nephron?
a. It is the morphofunctional unit of the kidney
b. It is the anatomical and functional unit of the bladder
c. It consists of the Malpighi corpuscle and the uriniferous tube
d. It consists of Malpighi pyramids
e. Contains renal pyramids
36. The kidneys are vascularized by the following arteries:
a. Right and left renal arteries
b. Mesenteric arteries
c. Upper and lower renal arteries
d. Branches from the celiac trunk
e. Branches from the common iliac artery
37. Venous blood of the kidney is collected by:
a. Adrenal vein
b. The renal vein, which flows into the inferior vena cava
c. Mesenteric vein
d. Portal vein
e. The renal vein, which flows into the superior vena cava
1. The prostate is:
a. A gland reduced in volume
b. A voluminous tubuloacinous gland
c. A paired organ of ovoid shape
d. It is a paired organ located in the pelvis
e. It is a muscular hollow organ
2. The testicle is:
a. It is a paired conduction between the ovary and uterus
b. It is a voluminous tubuloacinous gland
c. It is a paired organ reduced in volume
d. A paired organ of ovoid shape
3. Estrogen hormones are synthesized:
a. By foliated cells during maturation
b. By follicular cells during maturation
c. By follicular cells during ovulation
d. During the formation of the ovum in the ovarian follicles
e. During endocrine activity in the first trimester of pregnancy
4. The seminal vesicles secrete fluid that is excreted in:
a. Ejaculatory canal
b. Cystic Channel
c. Fallopian tube
d. Efferent tube
e. Vas deferens
5. The follicular epithelium left after ovulation begins to proliferate and forms:
a. Testosterone
b. White body
c. Yellow body
d. Progesterone
e. Estrogen
6. Progesterone during pregnancy is secreted by:
a. Yellow body
b. Adrenal corticosteroids
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Placenta
7. The yellow body secretes:
a. Ovule
c. Testosterone
d. Androgen hormones
e. Progesterone
8. The testicle performs the following functions:
a. Secretion of ovarian follicles
b. Sperm production
c. Secretion of androgen hormones
d. It secretes a serous fluid that is eliminated into the ejaculatory canal
e. It serves to capture the egg expelled from the mature follicle
9. The functions of the ovary are as follows:
a. It has the role of forming and releasing an ovule every month
b. Releases a set of ovules monthly
c. It has the role of secreting hormones that favor the fertilization of the ovules
d. Secretes a milky liquid that enters the composition of sperm
e. Secretes androgen hormones
10. Androgen hormones stimulate:
a. Growth and development of female gonads
b. Growth and development of male gonads
c. Stimulate oogenesis
d. Ensures the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characters
e. They have an anabolic effect on proteins
11. Indicate the correct statements describing the placenta:
a. It is an endocrine organ
b. It is a discoid organ
c. At his level, the mother's blood vessels open into blood gaps
d. Favors the passage of pathogens from mother to fetus
e. Here float filiform formations, called chorionic villi, through which the fetus receives nourishment from the mother
12. The act of birth involves the harmonious coordination of the following fundamental components:
a. Native
b. Fetal
c. Placental
d. Ovular
e. Of the uterus
13. Each vas deferens:
a. It penetrates into the abdomen and then into the pelvis, behind the bladder
b. Continues with the ejaculatory canal
c. Each vas deferens is covered with a fibrous membrane, the albuginea
d. The ejaculatory canal joins the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle
e. The ejaculatory canal joins the excretory duct of the bladder
14. Regarding the prostate, the following statements are true:
a. It is a paired gland of ovoid shape
c. It secretes a liquid that is excreted into the ejaculatory canal, serving as a transporter and nutrient medium for sperm
d. It secretes milky fluid that enters the composition of sperm
e. It is located around the initial portion of the urethra
15. Identify the correct answers about the male external genitalia – penis:
a. It is a male copulatory organ
b. It consists of 2 cavernous bodies and spongy body
c. Does not participate in the act of micturition
d. Completely covers the urethra
e. It consists of two testicles located in the scrotum
16. The menstrual cycle comprises the following phases:
a. Pubertal phase
b. Menstrual phase
c. Proliferative phase
d. Elimination phase
e. Secretory phase
17. Identify the correct answers regarding the female external genitalia – vulva:
a. Includes labia minora and clitoris
b. It consists of the vaginal orifice and external vaginal glands
c. It comprises the labia majora and the mountain of Venus
d. The lower orifice of the vagina is covered by a membrane called the lumen
e. The vulva consists of the labia minora and the labia majora
18. Annexes of the female genital system:
a. The mammary glands
b. Are wrapped in a blanket of loose connective tissue
c. They have the role of elaborating the milk necessary for feeding the baby
d. In each nipple are found the openings of 20-25 galactophore ducts
e. The gland consists of lobes, and these lobules
19. The ovary performs the following roles:
a. Sperm production
b. To form and release an ovule every month
c. To secrete hormones that favor the fertilization of the ovule
d. It acts on the female gonads, stimulating the proliferation of the uterine mucosa
e. Secreted hormones prepare the body for gestation
20. The ovum has the following peculiarities:
a. It is one of the smallest cells in the human body
b. It is one of the largest cells in the body
c. It has a diameter of 200μ
d. It can be seen even with the naked eye
e. In the structure of the ovum enters a yolk membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus
21. Estrogen hormones have the following peculiarities:
a. They are synthesized by follicular cells during maturation
b. They are synthesized by the yellow body and placenta during pregnancy
c. Slow down the appearance of secondary female sexual characters
d. Acts on male and female gonads
e. They are synthesized in lesser amounts by the adrenal cortex and testicle
22. Identify the correct answers regarding the menstrual cycle:
a. It normally lasts 5 days
b. It normally lasts 28 days
c. It starts at puberty
d. It constitutes a main element of female sexual characters
e. It ceases around the age of 30, when menopause sets in
23. The menstrual phase of the menstrual cycle has the following characteristics:
a. It is present on the 4th and 14th day
b. It has a duration of 2-3 days
c. During this period, the superficial layer of the destroyed uterine mucosa is eliminated into the vagina
d. During this period, a supply of blood is also removed
e. It is characterized by proliferation and thickening of the uterine mucosa
24. The proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by the following:
a. It has a duration of 2-3 days
b. It is present between the 4th and 14th day
c. It is characterized by proliferation and thickening of the uterine mucosa
e. It is characterized by proliferation of the uterine mucosa and the appearance of secondary female sexual characters
25. The following features describe the vagina:
a. It is found in the continuation of the placenta
b. It is found in the continuation of the uterus
c. It is a flat organ, covered by a membrane called the hymen
d. It is a hollow organ
e. It opens outward into the region of the vulva
26. Identify the correct answers that describe spermatozoids:
a. It is a mobile cell
b. It is macroscopic in size (1500-2000μ)
c. It is microscopic in size (50-70μ)
d. It consists of head, intermediate piece and flagellum
e. They become mobile only in the spermatic fluid and are expelled with sperm through ejaculation
27. Choose the correct statements regarding the ovary:
a. It is a single organ
b. It is a paired organ
c. It has only exocrine function
d. It has endocrine-only function
e. It has mixed function
28. What is the male genital system made of?
a. Testicles and external genitalia
b. Testicles, sperm ducts, prostate
c. Testicles, sperm ducts, prostate, bulbourethral glands and external genitalia
d. Prostate and sperm ducts
e. Bulbourethral glands and external genitalia
29. What hormone stimulates ovulation and yellow body formation?
a. FSH
b. STH
c. LH
e. Prolactin
30. What are female sex hormones?
a. STH
b. FSH
c. Estrogen
31. Uterus:
a. It shows on the posterior margin the epididymis
b. It secretes a milky liquid that enters the composition of sperm
c. Unpaired cavitary muscular organ located between the bladder and rectum
d. It consists of a wide body and cervix, which protrudes into the vagina
e. It is a paired organ located in the pelvis
32. Fallopian tubes:
a. They are musculomembranous ducts stretching from the ovaries to the uterus
b. They are pear-shaped, with the large extremity facing higher
c. They have a length of 7-12 cm
d. They have a length of 12-17 cm
e. Present the body and cervix
33. Vulva:
a. It is a musculo-connective conduction
b. It is an external genital organ
c. It has the shape of a slit, elongated in the sagittal sense and bordered laterally by two skin folds
d. Features large and small labia
e. Lining the uterine cavity
34. Vagina:
a. It has the shape of a slit, elongated in the sagittal sense and bordered laterally by two skin folds
b. Lining the uterine cavity
c. It is a musculo-connective conduction
d. It has a length of 10-12 cm
e. It has a length of 7-9 cm
35. The testicle performs the following functions:
e. Estrogen secretion
36. The functions of the ovary are as follows:
a. It has the role of forming and releasing an egg every month
b. Releases a set of eggs monthly
c. It has the role of secreting hormones that favor the fertilization of the egg
d. Secretes androgen hormones
e. Secretes luteinizing hormone
37. Androgen hormones stimulate:
c. Ensures the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characters
d. They have an anabolic effect on proteins
e. They have an anabolic effect on lipids
1. What are the main carbohydrates absorbed in the digestive tract?
a. Lactic acid
b. Glucose
c. Fructose
d. Starches
e. Galactose
2. What are the pathways for carbohydrate metabolism?
a. Lipogenesis
b. Tissue oxidation
c. Glycogenogenesis
d. Glycolysis
e. Lipolysis
3. What is gluconeogenesis?
a. The process of glycogen formation
b. The process of glucose formation
c. The process of formation of two pyruvic acid molecules
d. The process of formation of essential fatty acids
e. The process of obtaining enzymes
4. The normal concentration of amino acids in the blood is:
a. 35-65 mg/100mL
b. 35-65 g/100mL
c. 80-120 g/L
d. 0.3-0.5 g/L
e. 300-500 g/L
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