Why does the GI tract represent a unique challenge for our immune system?
(a) It needs to mount antigen responses but also be tolerant against food
(b) It has a large surface area
(c) It has other functions besides mounting immune responses (e.g. nutrient absorption)
(d) It needs to protect from pathogens but also be in symbiosis with the microbiota
(e) The gut epithelium renews itself every few days
(f) All of the above
-> anatomical propertie, no problem
-> true but not special
-> also there in skin so not only gut
Which of the following are not gut associated lymphoid tissues?
(a) Mesenteric lymph nodes
(b) The Peyer’s patches
(c) Lamina propria
(d) Isolated lymphoid follicles
(e) Epithelium
(f) Crypts
-> außerhalb der Darmwand
What are some of the main immunological differences between the intraepithelial (IE) and lamina propria (LP) compartments of the gut?
(a) The IE is an effector site, whereas the LP is an inductive site
(b) The IE contains only specialized lymphocytes with site-specific functional properties
(c) The IE belongs to the mucosa, whereas the LP is in the sub-mucosa
(d) The numerous epithelial cells of the IE compartment make it an important innate immune site
(e) Only the stromal cells in the IE compartment are immunologically active
(f) The LP contains numerous and diverse immune cell types unlike the IE compartment
-> Both IE and LP are effector sites, where immune cells act, not where they are primed.
-> both mucosa
-> In the IE, epithelial cells and IELs are active, but stromal activity is minimal.
-> In the LP, many stromal cell types are immunologically active
Which of the following are major functions of migratory cDC1 in the intestine?
(a) Priming of intestinal Th17 responses
(b) Priming of intestinal Th1 responses
(c) Migration from the epithelium to the lamina propria to present antigen
(d) Cross presentation of epithelial derived antigen to CD8+ T cells
(e) Help B cells produce IgA in the isolated lymphoid follicles
(f) Migration to the mesenteric lymph node to prime Th2 responses
-> Th17 responses in the gut are driven mainly by cDC2
-> pathway cdc1 from LP to mesenteric lymph node
-> IgA induction depends on:cDC2, Tfh help…
-> cDC! almost no role in IgA switching
-> Th2 is characteristic for cDC2
After a gut infection recently primed T cells know to go the gut because:
(a) DCs will present antigen in the draining mesenteric lymph nodes
(b) DCs will take antigen from lumen and present to lamina propria T cells
(c) During priming in mesenteric lymph nodes DCs will give gut homing signals to T cells
(d) T cells primed in the Peyer’s patches cross through M cells and end up in the lamina propria
(e) When primed in GALT they will express CCR9 and α4b7
(f) They are specific for the microbiota
-> naive tcells are never primed in the laminate propria
-> M cells transport antigen not T cells
-> no,
6.Which of the statements below are correct regarding colonization resistance.
(a) It is when the microbiota antagonize evading pathogens
(b) It is when the microbiota antagonize autoimmunity
(c) There is direct and indirect colonization resistance depending on the mechanisms adopted by the microbiota
(d) Too much colonization resistance leads to dysbiosis
(e) Some colonization resistance mechanisms may involve the immune system
(f) A colonization resistance mechanism is to eat less fiber so that to limit the intestinal mucous barrier and thus pathogens cannot evade it
-> only attacs pathogens
-> the other way around
(f) A colonization resistance mechanism is to eat less fiber so that to limit the intestinal mucous barrier and thus pathogens cannot evade
it
-> the other way around: Weniger Ballaststoffe → Mikrobiota frisst Mucus → Barriere wird dünner → Pathogene leichter
7. What have mouse experiments taught us about the impact of the gut microbiota on the
immune system?
(a) The more diverse microbiota the more Th17 cells we have
(b) Different bacteria impact different immune cell lineages
(c) The microbiota is not required for antibody production
(d) Dysbiosis during early life may pre-dispose to allergies and autoimmunity
(e) Dysbiosis during early life is not an important issue, as long as it is corrected later on
(f) By regulating production of biological factors from the epithelium, the microbiota can impact the generation of specific adaptive immunity
-> th17 is dependent on SFB
-> not it is important
-> not true
8. What are some of the key differences between enteropathogenic Escherichia coli and Listeria monocytogenes?
(a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) is a noninvasive bacterium whereas L. monocytogenes is an invasive bacterium
(b) As a noninvasive bacterium EPEC does not need to attach to the epithelial barrier
(c) Invasive bacteria like L. monocytogenes can infect the gut mucosa
(d) EPEC is called an attaching and effacing bacterium because it damages the cell membrane of macrophages in which it replicates
(e) As an invasive bacterium L. monocytogenes does not need toxins like EPEC
(f) Experimental evidence suggests that EPEC induces a type 3 whereas L. monocytogenes a type 1 response
-> need to attach
-> no calles so because in attache to enterozyten and kills mikrovilli from gut epithel
-> need toxin (listeriolysin O)
9. What do we know about inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
(a) Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC) are both types of IBD
(b) The only difference between CD and UC and is the location of the GI tract which they affect
(c) The microbiota composition is thought to play a critical role in predisposing for IBD
(d) GWAS studies have identified 10 mutations which are the cause of IBD
(e) Innate immunity is thought not to be important for IBD
(f) The incidence of IBD in Denmark and worldwide increases and this is largely linked to environmental factors like diet
-> no only location also different th profiles, dicontinue/continue…
-> keine allein kausal sonder alle erhöhen risiko
-> fehler im angeboren IS sind hochrelevant
10. What do we know about celiac disease (CD)?
(a) In CD, our immune system attacks and destroys our gut epithelia due to an antigen-specific
adaptive immune response to gluten
(b) The adaptive immune response is dominated by Th1 cells
(c) The pathogenic response is driven by deamidated gluten peptides
(d) If one expresses the CD-dominant MHC-II molecule HLA-DQ8, they will develop symptoms
(e) The response to gluten is strictly adaptive
(f) Therapies to block transglutaminase are routinely used to treat CD
-> notwendig aber nicht ausreichend
-> also innate response
-> no only diet helps
11. Which of the statements below most accurately describe the structure and function of the skin.
(a) The skin contains three distinct layers: epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
(b) Despite its diverse immune cells, the skin is an immune privileged site because of its many important functions (e.g. melanin and sweat production)
(c) Immune cells are concentrated in the epidermis
(d) The stratum corneum makes the skin a true, almost impenetrable, barrier
(e) The dermis is where the specialized Langerhans cells are found
(f) Sensory neurons in the skin actively regulate immune responses
-> nope: brain, eye, testicals… IPS
-> not immune cells in dermis
-> nope epidermis
12. Keratinocytes, although non-hematopoietic in origin, have an important immunological function. What are the key reasons for this?
(a) They are as good at presenting antigen as DCs
(b) Their expression of TLRs is a first line of defense against infection
(c) They become corneocytes to form a very tight stratified corneum barrier
(d) They can become specialized to have specific immune roles
(e) They interact with and regulate local immune cell populations
(f) Underneath the stratum corneum is a 1-cell thick layer of keratinocytes, reminiscent of the gut epithelium
-> no prof. Antigen presenting cells, can present but inefficient
c) They become corneocytes to form a very tight stratified corneum barrier
-> they can become immunological aktv but no specification
-> nope
13. What makes the hair follicle an interesting immunological site?
(a) The skin barrier breaks at the follicle and allows microbes to penetrate
(b) Contains specialized keratinocytes along its length to provide niches for immune cells
(c) It is a highly immunosuppressive site where few inflammatory responses can take place
(d) Its few immune cells are almost all T cells
(e) Acne is a localized innate response at the hair follicle driven by Propionibacterium acnes
(f) It sustains a balance between effector memory and regulatory T cells
-> not not immunosupressive, a lot of immune cells
-> also tregs, dendritic cells, macrophages
-> also adaptive mechanisms and not enough for making it interesting site
14. The skin is a key sensory organ, however, its dense innervation makes it an active immunological site. Why is that?
(a) Sensory neurons in the skin connect with the draining lymph nodes and alert the immune system of infections
(b) Sensory neurons in the skin express receptors that sense infections and alert local immune cell populations
(c) Upon infection or inflammation sensory neurons in the skin produce IL-23, which allows them to interact with DCs and thus initiate adaptive immunity
(d) Infection at one skin site can produce enhanced immunity at a distant site due to the action of sensory neurons
(e) Sensory neurons when activated during inflammation cause direct tissue pathology
-> no direct connection to lymph node
-> IL 23 is from dendritic cells, macrophages
-> no direct damage more like itch etc
15. Which of the following statements are true
(a) As for the gut, the skin microbiota is important for the induction of adaptive immune responses
(b) Skin associated lymphoid tissues (SALT) are scattered around the dermis at steady-state similar to ILFs in the gut lamina propria
(c) A uniform microbiota composition throughout the skin ensures robust immunity at skin sites
(d) The microbiota can “probe” the immune system by entering through the barrier at hair follicles and sweat glands
(e) SALT can be seen in certain chronic inflammatory conditions but not in healthy skin
(f) The skin microbiota is associated with common skin conditions such as atopic dermatitis, acne and seborrhoeic dermatitis
-> salt is functional concept not structural
-> not uniform, diversity
16. Regulatory T cells (Treg) are integral to maintaining peripheral tolerance. Why is that?
(a) Natural Tregs are so called because we all have them and are naturally occurring
(b) Induced Tregs differentiate from naïve T cells in the periphery
(c) They can suppress T cells by cytokines or by interfering with DC-T cell interactions
(d) They only suppress T cells of the same antigen specificity
(e) They have the capacity to suppress T cells in a tissue-specific manner
(f) Although they mediate peripheral tolerance, they are generally dispensable since mutations
affecting their function or development are harmless
-> because they come from Thymus
-> not antigen specific
(f) Although they mediate peripheral tolerance, they are generally dispensable since mutations affecting their function or development are harmless
-> not dipensable
17. An infection can break immunological ignorance by:
(a) Superactivating APCs that present self-peptides
(b) Inducing high concentrations of serum IgG immune complexes, which activate self-reactive anti-IgG expressing B cells
(c) Methylating host DNA so that TLR9 can recognize CpG motifs and activate self-reactive B cells
(d) Mimicking self-antigens
(e) Inducing immune cell infiltration at immune-privileged sites
(f) Engaging TLRs on B cells
-> no extra methylating (Eine Infektion führt nicht dazu, dass wir unsere DNA mehr methylieren oder weniger methylieren, um TLR9 zu aktivieren.)
-> not true (brach of immune privilige not break of ignorance)
-> more support for autoreactive antibodys
18. Epitope spreading is the development of immune responses to endogenous epitopes secondary to the release of self-antigens during a chronic autoimmune or inflammatory response. Which of the following are characteristics of epitope spreading?
(a) Tissue damage can lead to the release of new antigens leading to priming of new self-reactive lymphocytes
(b) Immune-privileged tissues are excluded
(c) Protein complexes taken up by B cells can lead to the generation of new self-reactive T cells
(d) New self-reactive T cells cannot cause damage because they are ignorant
(e) T cell help to B cells can generate further self-reactive B cells
(f) Epitope spreading is an interesting scientific observation but unimportant in disease pathogenesis
-> not excluded
-> not ignorant
-> central elementt of pathogenese
19. Pathology in autoimmune diseases can be mediated by numerous mechanisms. Which of the following examples are true?
(a) Antibodies can neutralize the TCR of Tregs
(b) Activated T cells in the tissue can recruit damaging granulocytes
(c) Antibody mediated complement fixation can lead to tissue inflammation or direct cell killing
(d) Cytokines from T cells and innate cells can lead to remodeling of the local tissue microenvironment
(e) Fc receptors on T cells can recognize antibody coated cells or tissues and become activated in a process known as antibody directed cellular activation
(f) Auto-antibodies can function as agonists or antagonists of signaling receptors leading to hyper or hypo activation of the targeted receptor
-> Tcells not Fc receptors, they are on nk cells, macrophages…
20. What do we know about the pathology and genetics of autoimmune (AI) diseases?
(a) AI diseases can be organ specific or systemic
(b) AI diseases can manifest due to single gene mutations
(c) Although T cells get activated in AI diseases they are not pathogenic
(d) Granulocytes and other innate cells are not generally considered pathogenic because they don’t live as long as adaptive lymphocytes and cannot form memory
(e) Screening for single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) across the genome is often used as means to help understand what genes are involved in AI pathogenesis and initiation
(f) HLA polymorphisms and the impact of the environment are only important after the disease has started
-> often direct pathogenic
-> they are pathogenic
-> before!
21. Immune responses differ from the upper to the lower airways. Identify the correct
statements:
(a) Most inhaled particles are trapped by mucus and swept out of the lungs by cilia on epithelial
cells
(b) The vocal cord separates the upper and lower airways and are believed to trap host airway
microbiota within the lower airway, creating a highly pro-inflammatory environment in the steady-
state lung
(c) Nasal-associated lymphoid tissue (NALT) forms following encounter of antigens in the upper airway, while antigens rarely make it to the lungs, and bronchus-associated lymphoid-tissue
(BALT) is thus less often observed
(d) The lungs are drained by cervical lymph nodes
(e) Alveolar macrophages sit in the airway space of the lung. Here, they sense and readily respond to high oxygen levels
(a) Most inhaled particles are trapped by mucus and swept out of the lungs by cilia on epithelial cells
(b) The vocal cord separates the upper and lower airways and are believed to trap host airway microbiota within the lower airway, creating a highly pro-inflammatory environment in the steady-state lung
-> ther is no differntiation
-> false
-> they are not reacting to high oxygen level
22. What are the mechanisms that ensure immune tolerance is maintained in the steady-
state airway?
(a) Alveolar macrophages produce IL-12
(b) Interstitial macrophages produce IL-10
(c) Plasma cells produce high levels of IgM
(d) IL-10 and TGF-b dampen the activity of most airway immune cells
(e) The regulatory T cell (Treg) is the main T cell subtype in the airways during homeostasis
-> they try to avoid IL12 to prevent not necessary T cell activation
-> no a lot of IgA
23. Identify the correct and unique functions of each airway epithelial subtype:
(a) Pulmonary endocrine cells respond to perturbations in the local milieu, including airway stretching
(b) Airway basal cells differentiate into type 1 alveolar cells
(c) Goblet cells produce mucus in the upper airways
(d) Clara cells lubricate the airway space in the bronchioles
(e) Brush cells are ciliated and brush mucus out of the lungs and into the oral cavity
-> they dont differntiate
-> not ciliated and dont brush mucus
24. What are correct statements regarding alveolar macrophages?
(a) Alveolar macrophages are precursors of interstitial macrophages
(b) Alveolar macrophages can differentiate from incoming monocytes
(c) Alveolar macrophages engulf and remove inhaled particles
(d) Alveolar macrophages are part of the second-line defense in the lung
(e) Alveolar macrophages clear the airways by removing dead cells
-> not precursors (vorläufer)
-> part of first line defence, second line: neutrophile, dcs…
25. Which tissue-resident immune cells are present in the lamina propria of the lung (that is the lung tissue beneath the airway epithelium)?
(a) IgA-producing plasma cells
(b) Keratinocytes
(c) Alveolar macrophages
(d) Innate lymphoid cells (ILCs)
(e) Dendritic cells
-> skin
-> free in aleveo space
26. How are type 2 immune responses currently believed to be initiated in the airways?
(a) Distressed airway epithelium produce alarmins (IL-25, IL-33, TSLP)
(b) Airway epithelial cells sense dsRNA and produce type I interferon
(c) Airway Tuft cells sense tissue damage
(d) Airway dendritic cells sense proteoglycan and produce IL-23
(e) Airway dendritic cells interact directly with allergen
-> there are more cells who notice dsRNA & doe typ 1 IFN
-> its typical in the gut
27. Combine a type 2 cytokine with its effector function in asthma:
(a) IL-2 induces mucus production by goblet cells
(b) IL-4 facilitates isotype switching to IgE
(c) IL-5 activates eosinophils
(d) IL-10 activates type 2 innate lymphoid cells (ILC2s)
(e) IL-13 induces bronchial hyperreactivity
-> induced by IL-13
-> IL-10 anti inflammatory cytokines
-> ILC2 activated through IL-25
28. Which statement is true about the allergic reaction?
(a) Upon sensitization, allergen-specific IgA is loaded on FceRI receptors on plasma cells
(b) Following allergen and IgE crosslinking, mast cells readily release pre-formed inflammatory mediators
(c) Histamine is released by basophils
(d) After allergen and IgE crosslinking, eosinophils secrete IL-5
(e) At sensitization, allergen-specific IgE is loaded on FceRI receptors on basophils
-> IgE
b) Following allergen and IgE crosslinking, mast cells readily release pre-formed inflammatory mediators
-> eosinophile activated thorugh IL5
-> after activation they set free: MDP, ECP not IL 5
29. What characterizes an airway host response that cannot clear a SARS-CoV-2 infection?
(a) The infected individual induces more Th2 than Th1 cells
(b) The infected individual produce auto-antibodies to type I or type III interferons
(c) The infected individual has excess progenitors of immature monocytes and neutrophils in the blood
(d) The infected individual produces neutralizing anti-ACE2 antibodies
(e) The infected individual induces anti-hemagglutinin CD8 T cells
-> wrong
-> influenca protein
30. Identify the correct statements about Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection of the airways:
(a) Granulomas are formed by Th17 cells during M. tuberculosis infection
(b) M. tuberculosis prevent the fusing of phagosomes and lysosomes in neutrophils
(c) During M. tuberculosis infection, dendritic cells present decoy antigens to T cells
(d) M. tuberculosis delays the adaptive immune response by 2-8 weeks
(e) Most individuals infected with M. tuberculosis experience a latent infection
-> fromed by Th1 cells, macrophages…
-> blocks phagolysosmal in MACROPHAGES
31. Many loss-of-function mutations can lead to severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). Which of the following statements are true about the cause of SCID?
(a) Loss-of-function mutations in the transcription factor AIRE prevent MHC class II surface expression
(b) Loss-of-function mutations in BAFF and APRIL abolish signaling by the T cell survival factor, IL-7
(c) Loss-of-function mutations in the common gamma chain prevent differentiation of thymic epithelium
(d) Loss-of-function mutations in the transcription factor FOXN1 impair T cell receptor signaling
(e) Loss-of-function mutations in RAG1 and RAG2 impair VDJ recombination and thereby arrest lymphocyte development
-> AIRE MUtation lead to AI not missing mhcII expression
-> MHCII defect becaue of mutation in CIITA/RFX
-> they are important for bcell survival & class change not signaling
-> mutation lead to x-linked scid, influence lymohcytes not differntiation of tyhmusepithel
-> Problem is missing tyhmusarchitecture not signal transmission
32. Immune defects in antibody responses are usually not detected immediately following birth. Which of the following statements may cause this delay?
(a) IgG crosses the placenta and babies are born with high maternal IgG levels.
(b) Breastmilk supply the newborn with maternal IgG and IgA.
(c) T cell responses are sufficient to eliminate infections in early life.
(d) Antibody production is dependent on T cell help.
(e) Deficiency in IgA is often asymptomatic.
-> not antibordy are quit important
-> right but no reason fo this issue
33. Which of the following statements characterize immunodeficiencies?
(a) Immunodeficiencies are often identified because of recurrent opportunistic infections in early childhood.
(b) Defects in single gene variants cause secondary immunodeficiencies.
(c) Pathogens evade specific components of the immune system to cause secondary immunodeficiencies.
(d) Most types of primary immunodeficiencies are uncommon, often extremely rare.
(e) Biologics (for example cell depletion) may cause primary immunodeficiencies.
-> primary
-> no can cause seondary
34. RNA viruses have evolved mechanisms to evade the healthy immune response. Identify the correct mechanisms.
(a) Some RNA viruses encode different segments of their genome resulting major changes in surface protein expression; a phenomenon known as antigenic shift.
(b) RNA polymerase lack proofreading and RNA viruses have a greater mutation rate.
(c) RNA viruses have dedicated a large proportion of their genome to encode immunoevasions.
(d) RNA viruses target the type I and/or type III interferon pathway.
(e) RNA viruses modify peptidoglycan to avoid recognition by NOD receptors on host immune cells.
-> small genoms, use single mutlifunctional proteins
-> they are in bacteria not virus
35. Extracellular bacteria have developed means to escape the healthy immune response. Identify the correct mechanisms.
(a) Some extracellular bacteria escape from the phagosome into the cytosol.
(b) Some extracellular bacteria shield or modify their surface peptidoglycan.
(c) Some extracellular bacteria encode proteins that inhibit the complement cascade
(d) Some extracellular bacteria target the type I and/or type III interferon pathway.
(e) Some extracellular bacteria express variants of lipid A to avoid sensing by TLR4.
-> mechanism in intracellular bacteria
-> important for virus not extracellular bacteria
36. Which of the following is true about p53's role as a tumor suppressor gene?
(a) p53 induces cell cycle arrest in response to DNA damage
(b) Loss-of-function mutations in TP53 lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation
(c) p53 activates apoptosis when cellular damage is irreparable
(d) p53 mutations are associated with resistance to therapies targeting immune checkpoints
(e) p53 activation leads to the inhibition of DNA repair processes
-> main enhanver for resistance : MHC I loss, JAK1/2 mutatiom
-> not direct, indirect repair gene are regulated trhourhg p53 …
37. Which of the following mechanisms are used by cancer cells to evade immune surveillance?
(a) Downregulation of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules
(b) Presentation of cancer antigens to the cell surface
(c) Enhanced expression of neoantigens to attract immune cells
(d) Recruitment of regulatory T cells (Tregs) to suppress the immune response
(e) Secretion of immunosuppressive factors such as TGF-β and IL-10.
a) Downregulation of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules
-> would enhance immune reaction
-> tumor cells reduce neoantigens or change them
d) Recruitment of regulatory T cells (Tregs) to suppress the immune response
38. Which of the following properties are associated with a “hot” tumor?
(a) Low expression of immune checkpoint molecules like PD-L1
(b) Presence of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as IFN-γ and IL-2
(c) High tumor mutational burden (TMB) leading to neoantigen production
(d) High infiltration of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)
(e) Immunologically "cold" stroma with minimal immune cell activity
-> cold tumor propertie
-> less immune cells no reaction to bad or no reaction to immuntherapie
39. Which of the following are true about the peptide-binding properties of MHC class I molecules?
(a) MHC class I molecules bind peptides derived from intracellular proteins
(b) Peptides presented by MHC class I are typically 8-10 amino acids long
(c) MHC class I molecules require beta-2 microglobulin (B2M) for stable expression on the cell surface
(d) MHC class I molecules present peptides primarily to CD4+ T cells
(e) The peptide-binding groove of MHC class I is formed by the alpha1 and alpha2 domains
-> MHC I & CD8+, MHC II & CD4+
40. Among the list, identify the proteins involved in helping cancer cells evade immune surveillance.
(a) Programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1)
(b) Beta-2 microglobulin (B2M)
(c) Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)
(d) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
(e) Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4 (CTLA-4)
-> Pro inflammatory
41. What are the differences between the mechanism-of-actions of anti-CLTA4 and anti-PD-1 antibodies?
(a) Both anti-CTLA4 and anti-PD-1 primarily affect T cells in lymphoid tissues
(b) Anti-CTLA4 primarily affects T cells in tumor tissues, while anti-PD-1 primarily affects T cells in lymphoid tissues
(c) Anti-CTLA4 primarily affects T cells in lymphoid tissues, whereas anti-PD-1 primarily affects T cells in peripheral tissues
(d) Anti-CTLA4 and anti-PD-1 primarily affect T cells in peripheral tissues
(e) Anti-CTLA4 primarily affects B cells in the peripheral tissues, while anti-PD-1 primarily affects T cells in the lymphoid tissues
-> pd1 effect in tumor
-> affect in lymph nodes
-> t cell molecule
42. How does CTLA4 regulate T cell activation?
(a) CTLA4 binds to CD28 and blocks the co-stimulatory signals of CD28
(b) Blocking CTLA4 inhibits CD28 signaling
(c) CTLA4 wins the competition with CD28 to bind to B7 molecules on APCs
(d) CTLA4 binds to PD-L1 to induce inhibitory signals in T cells
(e) CTLA4 binds to TCR and block the stimulatory signals of T cell receptor
-> bind on B7
-> enhance signaling
-> PD-L1 bind on PD-1
-> CTLA-4 no direct interatcion with TCR
43. What happens when PD-1 binds to its ligand?
(a) PD-1 binds to CD28 and activates T cells
(b) PD-1 binds to PD-L1, reducing cytokine production by T cells
(c) PD-1 binds to MHC, reducing cytokine production by T cells
(d) PD-L1 binds to CD28, reducing cytokine production by T cells
(e) PD-1 binds to PD-L1, reducing the proliferation of T cells
-> PD-1 binde PD-L1 or PD-L2 not CD28
-> task of TCR
PD-L1 bind PD-1
44. Blocking the PD-1/PD-L1 pathway in cancer therapy primarily aims to:
(a) Prevent cancer cells from evading the immune system by inhibiting the interaction between PD-1 on T-cells and PD-L1 on cancer cells
(b) Directly destroy cancer cells by using monoclonal antibodies against PD-1
(c) Decrease cell proliferation of cancerous cells
(d) Reduce the supply of blood to the tumor by inhibiting angiogenesis
(e) Prevent activation of naïve T cells in lymph nodes
a) Prevent cancer cells from evading the immune system by inhibiting the interaction between PD-1 on T-cells and PD-L1 on cancer cells
-> no direct killing, activate Tcells
-> therapie not direct on tumor cells
-> task of anti_vegf
-> other way around
45. Why do we need new checkpoint inhibitor immunotherapies?
(a) To treat a large proportion of patients (more than 80%) who do not benefit from current checkpoint inhibitor therapies.
(b) To treat patients who have a durable response (less than 20% of patients).
(c) To treat a small proportion of patients (less than 20%) who do not benefit from current checkpoint inhibitor therapies
(d) To treat patients after transplantation
(e) It is a conspiracy by pharmaceutical companies
-> no especially they are not the problem
-> group ist big not small
-> no main motivation
46. What are the main toxicities to expect when treating with TCR-engineered T cells
(a) Mispairing with endogenous T cell receptor can results in a new TCR which recognizes alternative peptides presented on healthy cells
(b) Cytokine release syndrome (CRS) related to co-infusion of high dose IL-2
(c) Cytokine release syndrome (CRS)
(d) Cytokine release syndrome (CRS) and Immune effector cell-associated neurotoxicity syndrome (ICANS)
(e) Unintended destruction of healthy tissue due recognition of surface antigens
-> not main mechanism
-> CAR-T typical
47. Why are second generation CAR T cells superior to first generation CAR T cells?
(a) They persist longer
(b) They proliferate better
(c) They are less exhausted
(d) They are more specific for the targeted antigen
(e) They are less likely to cause side effects
-> not main advantage
-> specifity maintained thoruhg scFv
-> more likely
48. Manufacturing of Tumor infiltrating T cells requires:
(a) T cells derived from blood
(b) High-dose IL2
(c) A tumor biopsy
(d) Lentivirus to introduce a T-cell receptor
(e) T cells obtained from a tumor fragment
-> would be adoptive tcell transfer
-> TCR-T or CAR-T enigneering
49. What tumor characteristics are important for you to choose a treatment strategy based on Tumor infiltrating T cells (TILs)
(a) A low mutational burden
(b) The tumor should be a solid mass
(c) High infiltration of T cells in the tumor mass
(d) A high mutational burden
(e) The tumor should be not be infiltrated with virus-specific T cells
-> would lead to wore TILS
-> they can be very affectiv
50. What is the function of the hinge/transmembrane domain in a CAR
(a) To increase proliferation of the CAR T cells
(b) To anchor the CAR in the T cell membrane
(c) To provide stability for the CAR and antigen interaction
(d) To provide flexibility for the single chain variable (scFv) to bind the targeted antigen
(e) To provide optimal distance between the T cell and the targeted antigen
-> proliferation influenced only from cosimulation domain
-> stability mainly from scFv
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