List the four main components of the musculoskeletal system.
Bone, skeletal muscle, tendons, cartilage
State three functions of the musculoskeletal system.
Support, movement (breathing and communication), posture, protection
Which musculoskeletal tissue has the poorest blood supply?
Cartilage lacks blood supply
Tendon have weak blood supply
Bone has good supply
Name the two divisions of the human skeleton.
Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton
Axial - scalp, ribs, vertebral column
Appendicular - upper and lower limbs, attach at the pectoral and pelvic girdles
How are the bones of the skeleton divided / categorised?
Long bones - Long length and narrow width. It has a shaft (middle) and 2 ends. It also has a medullary cavity in the centre containing bone marrow. Determines height
Short bones - Length and width are similar, found in hands and feet
Flat bones - e.g. bones of skull cap, ribs, sternum
Irregular bones - a bone that has a complex shape that doesn’t fit any of the above categories such as vertebrae
Sesamoid bones - develops and is found inside a tendon e.g. patella
Define the structure of a long bone.
Middle - Diaphysis (shaft)
2 ends - Epiphysis
junction that connects ends with middle - Metaphysis
What is the metaphysis of a long bone?
The region between the diaphysis (shaft / middle) and epiphysis (the ends)
What structure allows long bones to grow in length?
Epiphyseal (growth) plate
these are layers of cartilage that undergo endochondral ossifiction to give rise to bone.
Appears dark on Xray in children, not visible in adult
What is an Endochondral ossification?
Process by which hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone at the epiphyseal growth plate, as one get older
Once the bone matures its named - head, neck, shaft and base
Name the two types of bone tissue.
Cortical bone is the compact bone, in long bones it is found on the outside of the bone. It is found more in the shaft of the bone and is denser and stronger.
Trabecular bone, also known as spongy or cancellous bone is the more porous bone found within (middle) long bones.
Some bones have hollows in the middle containing bone marrow
What is the function of tuberosities and tubercles?
Provide attachment sites for tendons and ligaments
larger attachment = more prominant
Name two bone features that allow passage of nerves or blood vessels.
Foramen, canal, groove, meatus or fossa
Name the three types of cartilages.
Hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage, elastic cartilage
Which type of cartilage is found in intervertebral discs?
Fibrocartilage
Found in secondary cartilaginous joints
Forms articular discs in some joints - pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs
It resists compression and is used for shock absorption
Which type of cartilage forms epiphyseal growth plates?
Hyaline cartilage
Forms growth plates of growing long bones (primary cartilaginous joints)
Reduces friction at synovial joints
Where are elastic cartilages usually found?
Found in various structures such as the external ear
Provides support and is flexible
Why does cartilage heal poorly?
It is avascular and has no blood supply
Name the three structural types of joints.
Fibrous, cartilaginous (Primary & secondary), synovial joint (various type)
Give one example of a fibrous joint.
Skull sutures or interosseous membrane (between ulna and radius)
Bones bound together by fibrous connective tissue
Permits very little movement
Examples are sutures between bones, intraosseous membrane between radius and ulna.
What type of cartilage is found in Primary cartilaginous joints?
Bones are lined by hyaline cartilage
They form the epiphyseal plate in growing long bones.
When the growth of the long bone completes, these cartilaginous joints becomes bone by ossification
What type of cartilage is found in secondary cartilaginous joints?
Bones are lined by fibrocartilage which provides strength, shock absorption and flexibility.
They function to withstand compression forces. E.g. intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis
Permits some movement
What fluid reduces friction in synovial joints?
Synovial fluid
produced by synovial membrane
Which type of joint permits the greatest range of movement?
Synovial joints
Articulating ends of bones are lined with hyaline cartilage and separated by synovial cavity
The synovial cavity is lined by innter synovial membrane and outer joint capsule (composed of fibrous C.tissue)
Synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid
Uni, bi or multiaxial movement
Joint reinforced / supported by ligaments, discs, bursa
What are the various types of synovial joints?
Hinge joints - Hinge and move in one plane (elbow)
Pivot joint - Circular hollow, allows bone to rotate around another e.g cervical vertebra
Saddle joint - saddle shaped hollow, biaxial movement e.g 1st MCP (thumb)
Condyloid - oval shaped hollow, biaxial direction (wrist, knuckle)
Ball and socket joint - allows large range of movement in all planes
Plane synovial joint - Don’t allow much movement – 2 flat bons comes together (sternoclavicular joint)
Which type of synovial joint allows movement in one plane only?
Hinge joint
Which synovial joint allows multiaxial movement?
Ball and socket joint
Give one example of a pivot joint.
Atlanto-axial joint (C1–C2)
Name the different types of movements by synovial joints
Uniaxial movement is one plane, e.g. hinge joints (elbow)
Biaxial movement is in 2 planes e.g. condyloid joints
Multiaxial movement is in more than 2 planes, e.g. ball and socket joints
What is the contractile part of a muscle called?
Muscle belly
it is the red fleshy part of the muscle
What is the function of tendons?
Attach muscle to bone and transmit force
it is the white, non-contractile portion of the muscle
Tendons are organised collagen bundles
When it cross a joint -> movement
What are the different types of muscle contraction.
Isometric (dont change in length), concentric (shortens) and eccentric (lengthens) contration
Maximum force of contraction depends on the muscle’s effective mass. Larger mass = stronger force
Maximum range os contration depends on the length of muscle fibre.
What type of contraction occurs when a muscle shortens?
Concentric contraction
What type of contraction occurs when a muscle lengthens under load?
Eccentric contraction
Name the common muscle shapes
Unipennate - Fascicles insert into only one side of the tendon, at an angle, diagonally
Bipennate - Fibres are aligned at an angle, on two sides of tendon in the middle
Multipennate - multiple fibres attach like feathers to a tendon.
Circular - Concentrically arranged bundles of muscle fibres (no tendon)
Fusiform - muscle tissue bulges along the midline and tapers off at the ends > tendon
Strap/Flat - All strands are parallel, attach to tendons at both ends
Spiral muscle - twists and spirals to get to the tendon it articulates with.
What is meant by a two-headed muscle?
A muscle with two heads of origin
Some muscles can be classified as:
Two-bellie = two muscular bellies unite at an intermediate tendon
two / muti-headed = two / multiple heads of orgin
What movement brings the scapula towards the spine?
Retraction
Define dorsiflexion.
Upward movement of the foot at the ankle
List the main components of the musculoskeletal system.
Skeleton with bones and cartilage,
muscles and tendons (attach muscle > bone),
ligaments (attach bone > bone)
List the structures of skeletal muscle
skeletal muscles are well supplied with nerves + blood
Fascia around muscles
muscle belly wrapped in epimysium
Fasicles wrapped in perimysium
musle fibre (single cell) wrapped in endomysium
myofibrils and myofilaments
What connective tissue surrounds a muscle fascicle?
Perimysium
What connective tissue surrounds an individual muscle fibre?
Endomysium
Where does the main neurovascular bundle usually enter a muscle?
Via the deep surface of the muscle (main artery, along with vein and nerve)
Accessory arteries enter elsewhere.
Why do blood vessels tend not to bridge between muscles?
Because muscle movement may stretch or tear the vessels
How do certain muscles assist venous return to the heart?
By compressing intramuscular veins during contraction
Certain muscles can act as pumps, helping pump venous blood to travel to the heart, often against gravity from the lower limbs.
This occurs in intramuscular veins such as in the calf muscles. They compress the veins when they contract, pushing blood towards the heart. Veins have valves that prevent backflow
Why does venous blood not flow backwards during muscle contraction?
Veins contain valves that prevent backflow
Name the two types of neurones found within a peripheral nerve supplying muscle.
Motor neurones (supplies a group of muscle fibres) and
sensory neurones (supplying neuromuscular spindles, Golgi tendon organs, free pain endings)
From which embryological structure does skeletal muscle develop?
Myotome of the somites from paraxial mesoderm
Prenatally, how does skeletal muscle primarily grow?
Increase in number of muscle fibres
Postnatally they increase size of the muscle (hypertrophy)
Define muscle hypertrophy.
Increase in muscle fibre size due to muscle stem cells (satellite cell) merge into muscle fibres.
Stimuli - Resistance training, muscle overloading, protein ingestion, various horomes ( IGF-1, GH, testosterone)
Give two causes of muscle atrophy.
Disuse, ageing, chronic inflammation, neuropathy
Define the ‘origin’ and ‘insertion’ of a muscle.
Origin = The proximal attachment that remains fixed during contraction
Insertion = The distal attachment that moves during contraction
-> *if muscle attach behind the bone, it extend the joint, if attached front of the bone, it flex the joint. If it is on the side it wither adduct or abduct.
In which direction is muscle force transmitted during contraction?
Along the line of the tendon
Which muscle type produces low force but a large range of movement?
Strap (parallel) muscles - long and thin, develop low forces but long ranges of contraction
E.g. sternohyoid muscle, sartorius
Which muscle type produces high force but a short range of movement?
Pennate muscles - have a large number of fibres, they produce larger forces but have shorter ranges of contraction
e.g Rectus femoris (thigh), deltoid (shoulder)
What type of muscle causes rotation during contraction?
Spiral muscles e.g supinatory muscle
Name four types of connective tissue attachments between muscle and bone.
Tendons: collagen-rich cords or straps
Aponeuroses: sheet-like tendons
Fascia: dense connective tissue
Fleshy/direct (epimysium directly attaches to periosteum)
What is a bursa?
A synovial fluid-filled sac between moving structures
are pockets of synovial fluid between/under muscles or tendons, under ligaments or under skin. Reduce friction at joints or moving parts
What is a synovial sheath?
A synovial membrane wrapped around a tendon
It allows tendons to move freely without adhering to surrounding tissue
What are the functions of skeleton?
The Structural functions:
Giving the body its shape
Supporting the weight of the body
Providing site for muscle attachment and allowing movement
Protecting delicate tissues and organs
other functions:
Making blood (haemopoiesis)
Storing calcium and phosphorous
What does the skeleton composed of ?
Composed of specialised connective tissue, bones and cartilages.
Originally develops as cartilage then it ossifys later
Not all cartilages ossified, some cartilages persists at some site - ends of the bone, front of the sternum where ribs joins, voice box and trachea.
What are the functions of cartilage?
Cartilage is a strong, flexible connective tissue.
It serves as a shock absorber for joints and bones.
supports soft tissue
Provides smooth surfaces at joints (hyaline cartilage)
Enables long bone growth (cartilage can grow faster than bone)
What are the distinct characteristics of cartilage?
stiff and load-bearing e.g in meniscus at the knee
Cells (chondrocytes and chondroblasts (makes cartilage)) are embedded in a matrix of proteoglycans and collagen
It is avascular and has no nerves
Repairs poorly and is replaced by fibrous tissues
Able to resist compression, tension and shearing forces
Name the different types of cartilages
Hyaline e.g articular cartilage, most synovial joints
Present on the end of bones in a joint, have moderate amount of collagen and makes up growth plates
Elastic e.g. External ear
Provides support, its flexible, contains collagen and elastin fibres
Fibrocartilage e.g Intervertebral disc, TMJ, sternoclavical joint, pubic symphysis
very dense CT, lots of collagen in the matrix
What is the embryonic origin of the cartilage?
It develops from embryonic mesenchyme (loose connective tissue). Grow via 2 methods:
Appositional growth (outside)
Secretion of new matrix onto existing cartilage surface by chondroblasts.
This causes the cartilage to expand and widen
Interstitial growth (middle)
Secretion of new matrix within cartilage tissue by chondrocytes. —> causes the cartilage to elongate
This is the mode of growth of growth plates in long bones
-> Cartilages repair poorly so it get replaced by fibrous tissue. IT ossify with age.
What are the characteristics of bone?
Bone is a specialised connective tissue
It is extremely hard, strong and resilient
Cells (osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts) are embedded in a mineralised EC matrix
Osteocytes are ‘trapped’ in the lacunae of the bone
It is highly vascular
What are the different types of bone?
Compact (cortical) - 80% bone mass
Dense, hard outer layer (forms most of bone mass)
Histologically it appears cylindrical units - ‘osteons’
Centre of the osteons is vascular bundle
In the long bone it makes up most of diaphysis
Within cortical bone, there are microscopic pores for vascular and nerve supply
Trabecular (cancellous / spongy) - 20% bone mass
Porous, spongy, highly vascularised inner layer, present in epiphysis of long bones
Separated from cortical layer by endosteum tissue which contains osteoblasts
Contains red marrow - produces blood cells
Woven bone = immature bone, collagen fibres are randomly arranged
What type of bone is shown here?
Compact (cortical )bone
the round features are osteons
The black dots on the bottom Pic are the ‘trapped’ osteocytes.
What type of bone does the image shows?
Trabecular bone
Which structure covers the outer surface of the bone?
Bones are covered by collagenous connective tissue called periosteum
Outer layer - dense fibrous CT
Inner layer - contains osteoprogenitor cells which differentiate into osteoblasts for bone formation
Important for healing post bone #
Not present in articular surface, tendon / ligaments
Has rich innervation by sensory nerves, allows attachment of muscles, tendons and ligaments to the bone by sharpey fibres
What is the embryonic origin / developement of the bone?
Most bones are pre-formed as cartilage -> develop by endochondral ossifcation
Some develop from embryonic mesenchyme by intramembranous ossification - skull
ONLY appositional growth (as oppose to cartilate which can grow by apposition and interstitial)
Describe the process of bone formation
Process of bone formation is called Ossification. Occurs in 2 ways:
Intramembembranous ossification
Fetal connective tissue (messencyme) is invaded by osteoblast directly forming bone e.g. clavicles and skull
Endochondral ossification
The messenchyme is 1st converted to cartilage by chondroblasts.
The cartilage is then invaded by oestoblasts, which calcifies it forming bone tissue. This takes years
What are the different shapes of bones?
Long bones - composed of a long diaphysis (shaft), and the two ends known as epiphysis (secondary ossification centres), which are separated from the diaphysis by a layer of metaphysis. E.g. femur and humerus.
Short bones- similar width and length e.g. ankles
Flat bones - Two layers of cortical bone with a thin layer of spongy bone in between, e.g. bones of the skull and the sternum
Irregular bone - do not fit any of the above classifications, e.g. vertebrae and facial bones
Sesamoid - Bones that develop within tendons such as the patella.
What are the functions of red and yellow bone marrow?
In long bones, the diaphysis has a medullary cavity that is highly vascularised and contains red or yellow marrow
Red marrow contains haematopoietic stem cells and is responsible for blood cell formation
Yellow marrow contains mesenchymal cells which produce cartilage, fat and bone
Name the cells of the bone
Osteocytes
Regulates mineral deposition, produces FGF23 (controls phosphate excretion), responds to mechanical stimuli and regulates action of osteoclast and osteoblasts.
Cells that maintains bone
Osteoblasts
Produces ECM and deposits hydroxyapatite
Mostly found along bone surfaces
Osteoclast
Bone resorption by breaking it (Howship’s lacunae), releases Ca2+ and PO4 into blood.
How does the growth of shaft vs ends of the long bones differ ?
The diaphysis (central shaft of a long bone)
Epiphyses (ends of the bones)
Metaphyses (area where diaphysis and epiphyses join)
> The diaphysis ossifies 1st then the epiphyses (ends) ossify later in adult stage
> Epiphyses (ends) separated from metaphysis by layer of hyaline cartilage known as growth plate (physis)
> Growth plates are the site of secondary ossification to elongate the bones by interstitial growth
> Later, the elongated growth plate is ossified by osteoblasts
> finally, epiphyses and metaphyses fuse and growth plate disappears. (15yr in female, 21yr in male) - after this bone no longer grow in length, only grow by appositional growth causing it to widen.
What features helps to identify bone age in a radiograph?
in an Xray of a child, bones may appear to have gaps - these are cartilaginous growth plates at the end of growing bones
As they age to adult, growth plates decrease in size / close
Define the order of bone healing following fracture
After a #, haematoma forms around the broken ends
the area get inflammed
Proliferation of osteoblast and chondroblast from periosteum and endosteum > lay down cartilaginous and osteoid (non-mineralised) components between 2 broken ends forming soft callus
Soft callus is eventually replaced by mineralised, hard (lamellar) bone to form hard callus
The bone undergoes further remodelling to return to original structure.
What are the classification of connective tissue?
Cartilage and bone are specialised connective tissue
Name the 3 basic components of connective tissue
Cells - fixed or transient
Protein fibres (ECM)
Ground substances (ECM)
What are the different types of cartilage?
Define chondrogenesis
Formation of cartilage by chondroblasts
Cells of cartilage - Chondroblasts (immature) secrete ECM
These get ‘trapped’ by the matrix as they secerete more matrix > Chondrocytes (mature) which maintains cartilage
The chondrocytes sits in small spaces called lacunae (see pic below)
Cartilage lacks blood and nerve supply.
Has high water content (80%) and the nutrients diffuse through the cartilage.
What is the protective layer of the cartilage known as?
Perichondrium (top of the image ‘P’))
A dense irregular connective tissue, found surrounding hyaline and elastic cartilage (NOT found in fibrocartilage).
Vascularised and has 2 layers:
Outer fibrous - fibroblasts produce collagen fibres
Inner chondrogenic (Cg) - gives rise to chondroblast (Cb)
‘C’ - chondrocytes
Identify the type of cartilage on this histology
Hyaline Cartilage
Found in synovial joints, foetal skeleton, larynx, trachea, costal cartilage.
It is approx. 5% cells and 95% matrix (translucent and clear)
Consists of mainly type II collagen fibres
The chondrocytes can exist individually or in isogenous groups (they divide to form groups) - see pic
Surrounded by perichondrium (not found on articular surfaces)
Identify the type of Cartilage and list the features
Elastic Cartilage
Found in auricle of ear, auditory tube, epiglottis
Mainly type II collagen fibres
Singular and isogenous groups of chondrocytes are also present (see circle in pic)
Matrix features elastic fibres (differes from hyaline) which allow cartilage to be flexible - see arrow on pic, black lines
Surrounded by perichondrium
Identify the type of cartilage and its features
Located in intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, menisci. Acts as a shock absorber
Mix of hyaline cartilage and dense regular connective tissue
Mainly type I collagen fibres
Chondrocytes often exist as columns (see pic)
There is no perichondrium
What pathological change is seen here?
Osteoarthritis - This is a degenerative joint disease
Features the erosion of hyaline cartilage in synovial joints
Can be due to aging, wear and tear, injuries and genetics
There is an inability of repair
Complete loss of cartilage leads to the bones rubbing against one another (eburnation)
Note: the wavy line at the bottom of the pic seperates the bone at the bottom from cartilage at home.
What type of connective tissue is a bone?
‘Specialised’ connective tissue - ECM mineralises - calcium phosphate as hydroxyapatite
Matures into - Trabecular (20%) and cortical bone (80%)
Both types have lamellar organisation matured - parallel collagen bundle
Woven bone = immature bone - collagen fibres are randomly arranged
Name and list the functions of the cells in the bone
Cells secreting ECM (osteoid).
They are predominantly found along bone surfaces
cells maintaining bone = trapped osteoblasts in lacunae
Osteoclasts
Cells resorbing bone in Howship's Lacunae
They have a macrophage-monocyte cell line
What structure surrounds the inner and outer bone surface?
Endosteum - thin single inner osteogenic layer
Periosteum covers outer bone surfaces. Not present in articular surfaces / tendon / ligament. Its a dense fibrous CT. Contains osteo-progenitor cells
What are oesteo-progenitor cells?
osteoblast precursors (Op) - Narrow spindle shape (inactive)
Osteoblasts (ob): broad spindle shaped / cuboidal - active
cells secreting unmineralised matrix - osteoid
Predominantly found along bone surfaces
Osteocytes (oc) are inactive ‘trapped’ osteoblasts in lacunae - maintains bone
Dendric processes within canaliculi allows communication between osteocytes e.g nutrient exchange
How does osteocytes communicates between them?
Using Dedric processes within canaliculi allows communication between osteocyes. E.g. exchange of nutrients
What is the cell on this histology?
Osteoclasts (O)
Bone resorbing cells - seceretes acid that dissolves the mineral component
Big nucleated cells
Resides in Howship lacunae (H) / resorption bays
Bone remodelling = balanced activity of osteoblast and osteoclast.
Describe the process by which most bones are developed?
Osteogenesis = bone development
Most bones are developed by Endochondral ossification (other type is intramembranous ossification)
forms long bones, vertebrae, pelvis and base of skull
Hyaline cartilage is the precuror of bone (blue on the pic) - replaced by bone
Primary ossification centre - begins at diaphysis (shaft), presence of blood vessel
Secondary ossification centre - mineralisation of epiphysis (ends)
What are the 2 ossification centres?
Most Bone development occurs via Endochondral ossification.
Starts with hyaline cartilage which later get replaced by bone.
Primary ossification centre = Replacement of bone begins at the diaphysis (shaft)
Secondary ossification centre = next the mineralisation begins at the epiphyses (ends)
Describe the 2 types of bone growth
Appositional growth is growth in width, matrix is added at the periosteal surface
Interstitial growth is growth in length, this occurs at the epiphyseal growth plate
What is an epiphyseal growth plate?
Also known as ‘physis’ - its a hyaline cartilage plate located at the ends of long bones
plays crucial role in longitudinal growth of bones during childhood and adolescence
Consits of chrondrocytes in a collagen mix, blood supply from epiphyseal arteries.
Amount of cartilage being produced equals amount of ossification → consistent thickness of epiphyseal growth plate
Addition of new cartilage “pushes” epiphyses away from diaphysis = increase in length
What are the different zones of epiphyseal (growth) plate?
Growth plate zone (reserve zone), consists of chondrocytes, ready to start dividing
Proliferative zone - chondrocytes divide and multiply
Hypertrophic zone - chondrocytes enlarge and prepare to calcify cartilage
Calcified cartilage zone - chondrocytes undergo apoptosis, the ECM undergoes calcification
Zone of ossification - tissue is calcified, bone tissue & blood vessels form
Which bones develop by the process of intramembranous ossification?
Forms the flat bones of skull, mandible, clavicle
Mesenchymal cells aggregate to form ossification centres (pointy bits on the skull of a child)
These cells differentiate into osteoblasts (ob).
Initially forms woven bone (B) before becoming lamellar
Collagen fibres are randomly distributed in Woven (immature) bone, while in a matured bone its organised neatly.
What is the functional unit of the cortical bone known as ?
Cortical bone has Circumferential lamellae > around the peri (outer)/endosteal (inner) surfaces. Between this lies:
Osteons (Haversian system): functional unit of the bone - responsible for strength and mineralisation of the bone tissue.
central canal (Haversian canal) surrounded by concentric layers of bone tissue called Lamellae
Haversian = longitudinal canal contains nerves and vessels
Volkmann = transverse canals connects one Harvesian canal to other
Interstitial lamellae > between osteons
Within the lamellaes are lacunae that house osteocytes - they communicate via dendric processes of osteocytes in canaliculi
Name the longitudinal and transverse canals found in the cortical bone?
Haversian Canal (logitudinal) - at centre of osteons, contains nerves and vessels - (2 arrows)
Volkmann canal (transverse) - connects Haversian canals
The circle on the pic shows circumferential lamellae
What type of bone is seen here?
Has a sponge/meshwork like appearance of trabeculae.
Spaces filled with bone marrow and adipose tissues
Doesn’t have osteons but still has lamellar organisation in mature tissue
There are few or no Haversian systems.
It is strong but lighter than compact bone
Define Bone remodelling
Balanced activity of osteoclasts and osteoblasts
Osteoclast removes, osteoblast forms new osteoid into cavity > new osteon
Maintains bone by replacing old tissues - cyclic process that occurs throughout life.
Response to biomechanical stress
What are the different types of osteons formed during bone remodelling?
Primary osteons - formed during appositional growth
This get replaced by secondary osteon - bones becomes more packed
Fragmentary osteons are the remnants of osteons being replaced.
Throughout life, more and more osteons are packed into compact bone
What is osteoporosis and its features?
Metabolic bone disease where bone resorption (osteoclastic activity) exceeds bone formation (osteoblastic activity) causing a loss in bone mass.
Starts with thinning of trabecular bone > progresses to cortical bone (trabecularisation)
Huge gaps (resorption bays) seen in cortical bone = increased intracoritcal porosity due to widening of Haversian canals within osteon.
Bones becomes more fragile > prone to #. Common sites are where high compression forces e.g. vetebrae or neck of femur
What are primary and secondary osteoporosis?
Primary osteoporosis exists as 2 types:
postmenopausal (Type I) - occurs due to decreased oestrogen levels
senile (Type II) e.g elderly
Secondary osteoporosis is due to disease/ medication/ lifestyle (sedentary)
What facilitates healing post fracture in a bone?
High vascularity
Haematoma - due to bleeding > vasoconstriction + clotting
Soft callus - formed of fibrous tissue
Primary bony calus - osteoblast invade, lay down bone (1st type is Woven = immature bone)
Secondary bony callus - Woven bone replaved by lamellar bone
remodelled to restore shape and medullary cavities
List the main components of the upper limb.
Pectoral girdle (scapula & clavicle), shoulder joint (glenoid cavity of scapula + head of humarus, arm, elbow joint, forearm, wrist joint, hand
What bones form the pectoral girdle?
Scapula and clavicle
The pectoral girdle is the collection of appendicular bony structures - Attaches upper limb to the axial skeleton
Also known as shoulder girdle, supports the upper limb.
Name the three joints of the pectoral girdle.
Sternoclavicular joint - Between sternum and clavicle
Acromioclavicular joint - Between clavicle and scapula
Glenohumeral joints - Between humerus and glenoid cavity of scapula.
What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint?
Ball-and-socket synovial joint
The shoulder (glenohumeral) joint is a ball and socket synovial joint between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula
What is a rotator cuff?
The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and their tendons which support the shoulder joint and facilitate movement
Which bone forms the only bony connection between the upper limb and axial skeleton?
Clavicle
the ‘collar-bone’
S-shaped, articulates with sternum and scapula
Attachment site for ligaments and muscles
Only bony attachment between the upper limb and axial skeleton - the pectoral girdle is joined to the axial skeletal to the sternum via clavicle
Palpable for its whole extent
Develops by process of intermembranous ossifications
Note - the superior (top) view of the clavicle is smooth, the inferior (bottom) is rough as it attaches ligaments
Where does the clavicle most commonly fracture?
The clavicle transmits force from the upper limb to the trunk and is therefore prone to fracture.
Fracture most frequently occurs at the junction between the middle one third and lateral one third of the bone.
Dislocation can also occur, more likely at the acromioclavicular joint - the clavile moves superiorly which can be felt as a raised bump on the skin on the shoulder
What type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?
Saddle synovial joint
clavicle forms the sternoclavicular joint between sternal end of clavicle and claviclular notch of manubrim (upper part of the sternum)
A saddle synovial joint - articular ends lined with fibrocartilage (most synovial joints are usually lined by hyaline cartilage)
Articular disc present in joint cavity and several ligaments blend witth joint capsule
allows most clavicular movement
What type of cartilage lines the sternoclavicular joint surfaces?
What type of joint is the acromioclavicular joint?
Plane synovial joint
Acromial end of clavicle + acromion of the scapula
It has uniaxial mobility - limited movement
It is strengthened by a acromioclavicular ligament and a large coracoclavicular ligament made of the Trapezoid and Conoid ligaments
What movements does the clavicle allow?
Elevation, depression, protraction, retraction, and rotation
The clavicle permits movement in the superior-inferior and antero-posterior planes.
It permits a small amount of rotation.
The majority of the movement occurs at the sternoclavicular joint rather than the acromioclavicular joint
Describe the general shape and position of the scapula.
Flat triangular bone on the posterolateral thoracic wall
Known as ‘shoulder blade’
‘Floats’ in a musclular suspension with only a small articulation to axial skeleton, the clavicle.
Has many prominence due to muscle attachment sites
How many borders, angles, surfaces, processes, and fossae does the scapula have?
2 angles -superior and inferior angles + glenoid cavity
3 borders - lateral, superior and medial borders
2 surfaces - costal (anterior) and dorsal (posterior)
3 processes - acromion, spine, and coracoid process
3 fossae - supraspinous, infraspinous, subscapular fossa
Which scapular process articulates with the clavicle?
Acromion
Lateral projection of the spine, articulates with the clavicle in the acromioclavicular joint
Name the fossae found on the posterior (dorsal) surface of the scapula.
Supraspinous and infraspinous fossae and the spine process
It also possesses the acromion
The costal (anterior) surface features subscapular fossa
What joint is formed by the glenoid cavity?
Glenohumeral joint
From lateral view of scapula, the coracoid process provide attachment site for muscles such as pectoralis minor and short head of biceps brachii.
Glenoid cavity articulates with head of humerus to form glenohumeral joint
Name the attachments of the supraglenoid and infraglenoid tubercles.
Superior and inferio to the glenoid cavity are 2 tubercles:
Supraglenoid Tubercle –attach long head of biceps brachi
infraglenoid turbercle – attach long head of triceps brachi
List the movements of scapula
The scapula is capable of
Protraction and retraction
Rotation, through shoulder abduction and adduction
Elevation and depression
This is achieved through the muscles of the scapula
Name the muscles that contributes to the movement of scapula
Trapezius - rotates, elevate, retract, depress
Levator - elevate
Rhomboid minor and major - elevate and retract
State the actions of the trapezius muscle.
Innervation: Accessory nerve (CN XI)
It is a powerful rotator of the scapula
Upper fibres elevate the scapula
Middle fibres retract the scapula
Lower fibres depress the scapula
Which muscles elevate and retract the scapula?
Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor
Attach from the medial border of the scapula to the adjacent vertebrae
Elevate and retract the scapula
Innervated by dorsal scapular nerve
Levator scapulae
Elevates the scapula
Innervated by branches from anterior rami of C3 and C4 spinal nerves and branches of the dorsal scapular nerve
What muscle protracts and stabilises the scapula?
Serratus anterior
Fan-shaped muslce located on lateral wall of the thorax
Attaches from the medial border of the scapula to the ribs
Contributes to protraction (pulls scapula anteriorly), rotation and stabilisation of the scapula
Innervated by long thoracic nerve - condition winged scapula is caused by paralysis if the long thoracic nerve
The serratus and trapezius muscles maintains scapula in position during shoulder movement
Which nerve supplies the serratus anterior?
Long thoracic nerve
it is very superficial to the muscle, prone to damage > unable to contract the serratus muslce > pulls away from the rib > winged scapula
What is winged scapula and what causes it?
The condition winged scapula, is caused by paralysis of the long thoracic nerve.
This causes the inferior angle and medial border of the scapula to pull away from the thoracic wall.
Full abduction of the arm is no longer possible (difficulty to raise arm above the head)
Describe the scapular movement in arm abduction
serratus anterior and trapezius muscle maintain scapula in position during shoulder movement
GH joint only contributes to the 1st 120 degree
For full 180 degree abduction of the arm, serratus anterior and trapezius permit rotation of the scapula to achieve this movement.
So damage to long throacic nerve which supplies serratus muscle can impair the ablity to fully abduct.
The scapula muscles fix it in place. The trapezius and serratus anterior muscles rotate the scapula
What bones form the glenohumeral joint?
Head of humerus (ball) and glenoid cavity of scapula (socket)
Its a ball and socket synovial joint
Glenoid cavity is deepened by glenoid labrum (fibrocartilaginous structure, serves as rim for glenoid cavity)
Multiaxial (wide range of) movements in 3 planes
Low stability > prone dislocation
Hyaline cartilage lines articular ends of bone and synovial membrane attaches the margins of articular surfaces to make up the synovial cavity.
Why is the glenohumeral joint prone to dislocation?
Shallow socket and high mobility
List the movements permitted at the glenohumeral joint.
Abduction, adduction, flexion, extension, medial rotation, lateral rotation, circumduction
Where does the tendon of the long head of biceps brachii originate?
Supraglenoid tubercle and blends with glenoid labrum (deepens joint cavity)
Tendon passes within the joint cavity > intertubercular sulcus > deep to the transverse humeral ligament > attaches to the tubercle of the scapula.
Through which groove does the long head of biceps tendon pass?
Intertubercular sulcus (Bicipital groove) - between greater & lesser tubercle
Why is the inferior joint capsule of the glenohumeral joint redundant (loose)?
To allow abduction
Synovial membrane is redundant (loose) inferiorly to allow abduction.
Bursae (small sacs filled with synovial fluid) and synovial sheath reduces friction at the joint
Name three ligaments that reinforce the glenohumeral joint capsule.
Fibrous outer joint capsule has 3 locations where it is thickened:
Coracohumeral ligament
glenohumeral ligaments (superior, middle and inferior)
transverse humeral ligament
Name two arteries supplying the glenohumeral joint.
-> branches of axillary artery
Anterior circumflex humeral artery
posterior circumflex humeral artery
Suprascapular & circumflex scapular arteries
Name two nerves supplying the glenohumeral joint.
Suprascapular nerve, axillary nerve
Name two features of the proximal humerus involved in the shoulder joint.
Proximal humerus is the part that forms the ball of the glenohumeral joint. Distinct features:
Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle (or tuberiosity) - attachment site for muscle tendon that moves the GH joint
Intertubercular sulcus (bicipital groove) - occupied by the tendon of long head of biceps brachii muscle
Anatomical neck - between head of humerus and tubercle
Surgical neck - between tubercle and shaft of humerus. Common site of #
Which structure lies within the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus?
Tendon of long head of biceps brachii
What is the most common fracture site of the proximal humerus?
Surgical neck
A = fracture of the surgical neck of humerus
B = dislocation of the head of humerus
Identify - Clavicle, greater / lesser tubercle, acromioclaviclular joint, acromion, coracoid process, glenoid fossa, humeral head, anatomical and surgical neck
Name the four rotator cuff muscles.
Rator cuff = A group of four muscles that aids stabilisation and movement of the glenohumeral joint.
SITS = Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
Forms a musculotendinous collar that stabilises and holds head of humerus in glenoid cavity
Which rotator cuff muscle initiates abduction?
Supraspinatus
Sits in the supraspinous fossa
It inserts into the greater tubercle of humerus
It is innervated by the suprascapular nerve
Initiates abduction, the first 15 degrees (15-90 degree by deltoid and >90 degree by trapezius)
Which rotator cuff muscles cause lateral rotation?
Infraspinatus
Sits in the infraspinous fossa
Inserts into the greater tubercle of the humerus
Innervated by the suprascapular nerve
Teres minor
Origin: posterior surface of the lateral border of the scapula
Insertion: greater tubercle of the humerus
Innervated by the axillary nerve
Which rotator cuff muscle causes medial rotation?
Subscapularis
Sits in the subscapular fossa
Inserts into the lesser tubercle of the humerus
Innervated by the upper and lower subscapular nerves
Summarise the nerve innervation and the action of the rotator cuff muscles at the glenohumeral joint
Name three bursae found around the shoulder joint.
5 main bursae (small sacs filled with synovial fluid) in the shoulder which reduce friction:
Subacromial-subdeltoid
subscapular
subcoracoid
coracoclavicular
Supra-acrominal
What is rotator cuff syndrome?
Impingement or tendinopathy of rotator cuff muscle tendons
Tendinopathy = degenerative change in the tendon, due to to poor vasculator of the tendon. Heals very slowly.
Damage > calcium deposition > extreme pain > susceptible to partial or full thickness tears
Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly impinged?
Because it passes beneath the acromion and acromioclavicular ligament through tight space.
Impinged by swelling of the muscle or subacromial bursa, fluid build up or bony spurs
What type of shoulder dislocation is most common?
Anterior dislocation (and inferiorly) of head of humerus
Shoulder has highest range of motion of any joint in the body
Prone to dislocation
complications —> Anterior glenoid labrum may tear (increase chance of recurrence), can cause axillary nerve compression > deltoid paralysis
Which nerve may be injured in an anterior shoulder dislocation?
Axillary nerve > deltoid muscle paralysis and loss of sensation of the skin over the deltoid. = regimental badge sign
Name some other muscles that move the shoulder?
• Deltoid muscle
• Pectoralis major muscle
• Latissimus dorsi muscle
• Teres major muscle
• Pectoralis minor muscle
• Subclavius muscle
• Coracobrachialis
Which muscle abducts the shoulder from 15–90 degrees?
Deltoid muscle
Major abductor of the shoulder, between 15 and 90 degrees
The anterior fibres assist in flexion, Posterior fibres assist in extension
The tendon inserts onto the lateral surface of the humerus on the deltoid tuberosity
It is innervated by the axillary nerve
Which muscle is a powerful adductor and medial rotator of the shoulder?
Pectoralis major
Large powerful muscle that produces adduction and medial rotation of the glenohumeral joint.
Clavicular fibres flex the arm from an extended position
Sternocostal fibres extend the arm from a flexed position
It is innervated by medial and lateral pectoral nerves
Which muscle extends the shoulder from a flexed position?
Latissimus dorsi
Powerful extensor of the glenohumeral joint from a flexed position
It is responsible for medial rotation and adduction of the glenohumeral joint
It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve
What is the role of Teres major at Glenohumeral joint?
Responsible for medial rotation and extension at GH joint
Innervated by lower subscapular nerve
Describe the role of subclavius, pectoralis minor and coracobrachialis muscles in movement of the shoulder?
Pectoralis minor
Assists in protraction of the scapula
Innervated by medial and lateral pectoral nerves
Subclavius
Responsible for stabilisation of shoulder joint
Coracobrachialis
Flexion, adduction of the shoulder
Innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve
What permits full 180-degree abduction of the upper limb?
Rotation of the scapula by trapezius and serratus anterior
Name four key anatomical features of the proximal humerus.
Head, anatomical neck, surgical neck, greater and lesser tubercles and proximal shaft
Arm = region between shoulder and elbow. Humerus is the bone in the arm
Head of humerus articulates with glenoid fossa of the scapula to form shoulder joint.
Distal humerus articulates with ulna and radius to form elbow joint
Deltoid tuburosity is where deltoid muscle attaches
Which structure runs through the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus?
Greater and lesser tubercles are seperated by intertubercular sulcus (bicipital groove)
Tendon of the long head of biceps brachii runs through here
Which part of the proximal humerus is most commonly fractured?
3 terminal branches of brachial plexus runs very close to hunerus. Axillary, radial and ulnar nerve
fracture in these locations may affect the nerve / blood vessels.
Damage to which arteries during a surgical neck fracture (proximal humeral fracure) may cause avascular necrosis?
Circumflex humeral arteries - these supplies the tissues of the head of humerus
Which nerve lies along the mid-shaft of the humerus?
Radial nerve - This innervates the posterior arm and forearm muscles
Damaged during mid-humeral fracture
What clinical sign results from radial nerve injury at the mid-humerus?
Wrist drop
radial nerve is responsible for wrist extension so # leads to wrist drop —> inability to extend the wrist
Name the two articular surfaces at the distal humerus.
Capitulum and trochlea
It also had lateral and medial epicondyles - common sites of origin of common extensor and flexor muscles respectively
Trochlea of the humerus articulates with trochlear notch of the ulna
Capitulum of the humerus articulates with radial head of the radius
Which nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle (the funny bone)?
Ulnar nerve
What are the two fossae of the distal humerus used for?
They accommodate the forearm bones during flexion
2 fossas of distal humerus - coronoid fossa (anteriorly) and olecranon fossa (posteriorly)
How many bones and articulations form the elbow joint?
3 Bones - humerus, ulna and radius
2 articulations:
Humero-ulnar joint= between trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of the ulna
Humero-radial joint = between capitulum and radial head
What type of joint is the proximal radioulnar joint?
Pivot joint between head of radius and ulna
allows supination and pronation
What type of synovial joint is the elbow?
Hinge synovial joint. Features includes:
Articular surfaces are lined by hyaline cartilage
Joint is enclosed by fibrous capsule
Capsule is reinforced by extracapsular ligaments
Internal surfaces are lined with synovial membranes
fossas where the bones move into has fat pads to protect the bone
Has one set of opposing movement - Flexion / extension
Usually, the carrying angle of the women is slightly wider than men.
Name the four ligaments of the elbow joint.
Medial (ulnar) collateral ligament - located medially connects ulna to humerus
Lateral (radial) collateral ligament - located laterally, connects radius to humerus
Annular ligament - forms ring around head of radius, holding it tight against ulna
Quadrate ligament - connects radius to ulna
Note: Ligaments connects Bone-bone, static stablisers = limit movement. Can be intra (deep) or extracapsular (superficial)
What is elbow subluxation commonly called and in whom does it occur?
Radial head subluxation (nursemaid’s elbow), occurs in children
occurs due to incomplete formation of ligaments
Radial head moves away (subluxes) from annular ligament (which is loose in children)
Mechanism of injury - upward force on abducted arm (lifting a child holding their hand)
Injury to the medial collateral ligament may damage which nerve?
What are the 2 muscle compartments in the arm?
A muscle can only move a joint if it (or its tendon) crosses that joint
Muscles in the arm crosses the elbow so moves the elbow
2 muscle compartments in the arm: flexor / extensor
Muscles in the anterior flex the elbow
Muscles in the posterior extends the elbow
Deep facia surrounds the entire compartment then extends into becomes intermuscular septa.
Name the muscles of anterior arm
Anterior (flexor) has 3 mucles:
Biceps brachii - has 2 heads (short head attached to coracoid process, long head to supraglenoid tubercle)
Crosses shoulder and elbow joint (at radial tuberosity)
Elbow flexion, shoulder flexion, supination
Brachialis - deep to biceps brachii, proximal attachment is humeral shaft, distally to ulna.
Elbow flexion (only crosses elbow)
Coracobrachialis - small, attach to coracoid process, inserts on humeral shaft.
Weak shoulder flexion (only crosses shoulder)
Anterior muscles are innervated by Musculocutaneous n.
Intermuscular septa - continuous with deep facia. Deep investing facia attaches to humerus.
Neuro-vascular structures are usually medially to the arm.
Identify the anterior (flexor) muscles of the arm
BB = Biceps Brachii (long head laterally, short head medialy)
B = Brachialis
CB = coracobrachialis
arrow = musculocutanous nerve that supplies these muscles
Other structures on the pic:
D = deltoid
SA = serratus anterior
LD = satissimus dorsi
Pm = pectoralis minor
Name the muscles of the posterior arm
Posterior (extensor) has 2 muscles: supplied by radial nerve (C5-T1)
Triceps brachii - has 3 heads, all insert via common tendon on to olecranon of ulna. Extends the elbow
Long head - attaches to scapula > shoulder extension
Lateral head - attaches to posterior humeral shaft
Medial head - deep to lateral + medial, attach to humeral shaft
Anconeus - elbow extension, joint stability
What are the blood supply to the arm?
Arterial:
Brachial artery (main) > radial and ulnar arteries (forearm)
Profunda (deep) brachii artery supplies posteriorly
Venous:
Cephalic + basilic veins (superficial)
Brachial + axillary veins (deep)
Note: Subclavian > axillary > brachial artery
Blood test is taken usually from median cubital vein
What is the importance of cubital fossa?
Bicep brachii tendon, Axillary artery and median nerve pass through the cubital fossa.
ulna and radial nerve runs lateral to the fossa
Name the sensory and motor innervation of the arm
Musculocutaneous nerve (C5-7)
Motor: all muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm
Sensory: Lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm
Radial nerve (C5-T1)
Motor: All muscles in the posterior compartments of the arm and forearm
Sensory: Inferior lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
What are the 3 terminal branches of the brachial plexus that are likley to get damaged during humeral fracture?
3 of the terminal branches of the brachial plexus run very close to the humerus:
Axillary nerve = surgical neck
Radial nerve = radial groove
Ulnar nerve = medial epicondyle
Name four surface landmarks on the posterior elbow.
Cubital tunnel, lateral epicondyle, medial epicondyle, olecranon
What are the inflammatory muscle and tendon pathology of humeral epicondyles?
Medial epicondylitis = inflammation at the medial epicondyle tendon = ‘golfer’s elbow (common flexor muscles are injured)
Lateral epicondylitis = inflammation at the lateral epicondyle tendon = ‘tennis elbow’ (common extensor muscles are injured)
pain radiates into forarm along the muscles
Rx - rest, corticosteroids injections
What does inflammation at the olecranon called?
Bursa = fluid filled sac located around joint, areas of potential friction.
When inflammed > bursitis
Cause - excessive, repeated pressure and friction over the olecranon
Sx - bursa swells and painful
Rx - analgesia, compression
Identify the structures of the elbow xray
Where does a supracondylar fracture occur?
Above the epicondyles
may injure the median nerve > impaired forearm muscle function > sensory disturbances in the skin supplied by median nerve
Can also injure brachial artery > ischaemia of forearm muscles
Note: dislocation of the elbow posteriorly can affect / stretch ulna nerve
What is the diagnosis? What nerve is at risk? what assessment would help to identify if nerve been injured?
Dx - # surgical neck of humerus
Nerve - axillary nerve (innervates deltoid, teres minor and the skin over upper lateral arm.
Ax - deltoid abducts the shoulder beyond 15 degree, teres minor rotates shoulder laterally.
so ask patient to abduct arm
Test sensation over upper lateral arms B/L and compare
Diagnosis? which nerve and artery at risk? what assessment to see if nerve damaged?
Dx - humeral shaft fracture (spiral)
Nerve affected - Radial nerve (supplies posterior arm = extension)
Artery - profunda brachii artery
Ax - test extension of the arm and sensation of posterior arm.
Diagnosis? what is normal that may be confused as pathology? any neurovascular structure at risk?
Dx: Subluxation - head of the radius is pulled away from ulna.
Confusion: growth plate of the radius and ulna noted as it is normally found in children
Neurovascular - radius dislocates laterally and could stretch the radial nerve but its likley to be
A patient has been stabbed in the cubital fossa. what structures may have been damaged?
Brachial artery
Basilic vein
Median nerve
Bicep brachi tendon
Which muscle exception in the extensor compartment assists in elbow flexion?
Brachioradialis
Which nerve innervates brachioradialis?
Radial nerve
Which nerve supplies the posterior compartment of the arm?
Which nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the arm?
Musculocutaneous nerve
What structure separates the anterior and posterior compartments?
Intermuscular septum
Name the three muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm.
Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
Which muscle crosses both the shoulder and elbow joints?
Biceps brachii
Which anterior arm muscle only crosses the elbow joint?
Brachialis
Which anterior arm muscle only crosses the shoulder joint?
What is the main extensor muscle of the arm?
Triceps brachii
What movement does triceps brachii produce at the elbow?
Extension
Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the inferior lateral cutaneous arm?
Which muscle assists in supination in addition to the supinator muscle?
What are the specialised features of synovial joint?
Bursae
sacs of fluid filled synovial membrane that lie outside the joint capsule -> reduce friction e.g detoid bursa
Sesamoid bone
Develop within a tendon -> reduce friction & protects the tendone (prevent direct friction of the tendon agaist the bone) e.g. Patella
Labrum
Fibrocartilage ring to deepens the joint e.g. glenoid & acetabular labrum (deeper than glenoid labrum)
Articular discs
Fibrocartilage pads -> shock absorption e.g meniscus
Compare shoulder vs hip joint
Name the ligaments that stabilise the shoulder vs hip joints
Shoulder joint:
Coracoclavicular, Coracoacromial, Coracohumeral ligament
Superior, middle, and inferior glenohumeral ligaments
Transverse humeral ligament
Acromioclavicular ligament
Hip joint
Joint capsule - iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, pubofemoral
Ligamentum teres (ligament of head of humerus)
Transverse actabular ligament (conti with acetabular labrum)
Describe the bones, joints and ligaments involved in elbow joint
Its a synovial hinge joint between distal humerus + ulna + radius.
2 articular surfaces - Capitumum on humerus articulates with head of radius, trochlea on humerus articulates with trochlear notch on ulna
3 main ligaments - Medial (humero-ulna), lateral (humero-radial) and annular (around the radial head)
Describe the arterial tree that supplies the blood to the upper limb
Derived from arch of aorta > Left & right subclavian arteries
Left subclavian - direct branch from aorta > left UL
Right subclavian - branch from brachiocephalic artery, which branch from aorta > supplies R UL
L & R subclavian arteries (ends at lateral border of 1st rib). R subclavian ermerge at T1
Axillary artery (branches to give circumflex humeral artery)
Ends at inferior border of teres major
Brachial artery (branch > profunda brachii)
Ends at radial tuberosity
Ulnar + radial arteries (2 branches of brachial artery)
Deep + superficial palmer arches (radial & ulnar reunits distally in the hand)
Note: Subclavian artery emerges from aorta on the left side and from aorta > brachiocephalic artery at sternoclavicular joint (T1) on R side —> end at lateral border of 1st rib
State the landmarks of arteries that supplies UL = subclavian, axillary, brachial, ulna + radial
Subclavian artery: Left = aortic arch > lateral border of 1st rib. Right = sternoclavicular > lateral border of 1st rib
Axillary artery: Lateral border of 1st rib > inferior border of teres major
Brachial artery: Inferio border of teres major > radial tuberosity
Unla & radial: radial tuberosity > distal hand
Name the branch of the axillary artery and the structures it supplies
Circumflex humeral artery - at the level of surgical neck of humerus
Anterior branch - supplies teres major, teres minor, deltoid, long head of biceps brachii.
Posterior branch - supplies shoulder joint, teres major, teres minor, long and lateral heads of triceps brachii
Name the branch of the brachial artery and the structures it supplies
Profunda (deep) brachii artery
supplies the deltoid, triceps brachii, forearm muscles, and intermuscular septum
Runs close along the humerus, wraps around radial groove
Mid shaft fracture > damage to profunda Brachii artery and radial nerve
What are the pulse point at the Upper limb
There are 6 pulse points that can be felt in the upper limb
Axillary pulse - point is in axilla
Brachial pulse - in midarm, in the cleft between biceps brachii and triceps brachii - used to place BP cuff
Brachial pulse - in cubital fossa, medial to tendon of biceps brachii, used for listening to pulse during BP reading
Radial pulse - in distal forearm, immediately lateral to tendon of flexor carpi radialis muscle
Ulnar pulse - in distal forearm, immediately under the lateral margin of flexor carpi ulnaris tendon
Radial pulse - in anatomical snuffbox, between the tendons of extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
Describe the venous drainage of upper limb
Organised in 3 systems:
Superficial venous drainage - drains skin & superficial structures. Lies outside fascia, have valve to prevent back flow
-> Medial cubital vein in ACF > cephalic (lateral) & basilic (medial) veins > axillary vein > subclavian veins
-> These 2 forms the axial borders of the UL which forms the flexor & extensor compartments
Deep venous drainage - drains muscles & deeper structure. Lies deep into fascia
-> Reverse order of UL arterial tree = Deep + superficial parmer veins > ulnar + radial veins > brachial vein > axially vein > subclavian vein > SVC
Perforating veins - deliver blood from above 2. Perforate the layers of deep fascia
Remember: veins go back to the heart so follows reverse order of artery. Borders are therefore reversed. e.g brachial vein starts from radial tuberosity and ends at inferior border of teres major
State the landmarks of the deep veins that drains UL = subclavian, axillary, brachial, ulna + radial
Ulnar + radial vein: starts distal from venous arch > radial tuberosity
Brachial vein: radial tuberosity > inferior border of teres major
axillary vein: Inferior border of teres major > lateral border of 1st rib
Subclavian vein: starts at Lateral border of 1st rib > brachiocephalic vein > SVC
What are the clinical significance of the veins of upper limb?
-> Superficial veins - Cephalic is a pre-axial vein, Basilic is a post-axial vein. The boundary line between dermatomes supplied from continuous spinal levels is known as the axial line
-> Clinical significants of UL veins:
Lymphoedema - impaired venous drainage of UL > excess fluid buildup in tissues, overloading the lymphatic system. Lymph builds up in tissues causing swellings
Phlebotomy - taking blood sample
Venipuncture - continuous access to a vein for IVI, blood transfusion, or taking blood for a prolonged period of time
Describe the lymphatic drainage of upper limb
UL lymph drainage is through series of superficial & deep lymphatic channels. Starts from finer tip > axillary lymph nodes which are series of LN:
Humeral LN (drain UL) > central nodes > apical nodes > axillary LN.
Supratrochlear & infraclavicular LN also involved in drainage
Axillary clearance > impaired lymph drain > lymphodema
Describe the nerve supply to upper limb
The nervous supply of the UL originates from spinal roots C5-T1
The C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1 roots unite to form the brachial plexus.
The whole point of the brachial plexus is to form posterior and anterior divisions, which innervate their respective compartments.
List the distribution / branches of brachial plexus
Remeber To Drink Cold Beer
The branching of the brachial plexus is as follows:
Rootes (x5)– C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Trunks (x3)
-> C5 and C6 —> superior trunk
-> C7 alone —> middle trunk
-> C8 and T1 —> inferior trunk
Divisions (x6)
-> Each trunks divides into anterior (flexor) and posterior (extensor) divisions
Cords (x3) - Divisions form cords
-> Lateral cord contains anterior divisions of C5-C7
-> Medial cord contains anterior divisions of C8-T1
-> Posterior cord contains posterior divisions of all trunks (C5-T1)
Terminal nerves (x5)
-> Musculocutaneous (C5-C7) – via lateral cord (anterior divisions).
-> Radial (C5-T1) – via posterior cord. Only nerve that has all the root values C5-T1
-> Ulnar (C8-T1) – via medial cord (anterior divisions).
-> Median (C6-T1) – via medial and lateral cords (anterior divisions).
-> Axillary (C5-C6) – via posterior cord.
What are the motor innervation of the upper limb?
Musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C7) – innervates flexor compartment of arm.
Radial nerve (C5-T1) – innervates extensor compartments of arm and forearm.
Ulnar nerve (C8-T1) – innervates compartments of the hand (all except thenar and 2 lateral lumbricals) and some muscles of the flexor compartment of the forearm (flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus).
Median nerve (C6-T1) – innervates flexor compartments of forearm (all except flexor carpi ulnaris) and hand (thenar compartment and 2 lateral lumbricals).
Axillary nerve (C5-C6) – innervates the deltoid and teres minor.
Name some nerves that divisions & roots of the brachial plexus gives off?
Medial pectoral nerve (C8-T1) - innervates pectoralis major and minor
Lateral pectoral nerve (C5-C7) - innervates pectoralis major and minor
Lower subscapular nerve (C5-C6) - innervates teres major and subscapularis
Thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8) - innervates latissimus dorsi
Dorsal scapular nerve (C5) - innervates rhomboid major and minor, and levator scapulae
Suprascapular nerve (C5-C6) - innervates supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Long thoracic nerve (C5-C7) - innervates serratus anterior
Lesions of which nerve causes these palsies?
Lesions of these medial nerve can lead to signs such as:
Ape thumb - loss of thumb movement ability due to loss of opponens pollicis muscle function
Hand of benediction - inability to flex index, and middle fingers. - when attempting to form a fist/grip, only the ulnar 2 fingers can flex.
Pointing index - paralysis of flexor digitorum superficialis, leading to inability to flex index
This is also associated with sensory loss in the region supplied by the median nerve
Which nerve damages causes claw hand and wrist drop?
Ulnar nerve lesion > claw hand
Partial claw hand = involuntary flexion of 4th + 5th digits at the interphalengeal joints and hyperextension at MCP joint
due to damage or compression at the elbow
Radial nerve lesion > wrist drop
Inability to extend wrist > involntary drop of hand
Due to trauma, compression
What is a ‘dermatome’?
Derma = skin, Tome = segment
Specific area of skin supplied by sensory nerve fibres corresponding to single spinal nerve root (e.g. C5, C6).
-> The dermatome is a specific area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve, while the sensory nerve territory refers to the broader area of skin innervated by multiple spinal nerves.
State three aims of history taking in musculoskeletal disorders.
Identify cause, identify structures involved, determine time course, assess systemic involvement, assess precipitant, assess impact (any three)
What are the three MSK screening questions?
Pain or stiffness in muscles/joints/back; difficulty dressing (assesing upper limb); difficulty climbing stairs (assessing lower limb)
Name three common presentations of MSK problems.
Pain, stiffness/swelling, loss of function
Define monoarticular, oligoarticular, and polyarticular involvement.
Monoarticular = 1 joint; e.g Gout
oligoarticular = 2–4 joints e.g Psoriasis
polyarticular = more than 4 joints e.g. rheumatoid arthritis
List MSK causes of pain from fastest to slowest onset.
Trauma - ACL rupture
Infection - septic arthritis
Inflammation - RA
Degeneration - OA
Describe the key features (pain, stiffness, swelling, tenderness, redness, warmth) comparing inflammatory vs degenerative condition.
E.g of inflammatory - RA
E.g. of degenerative - OA
How does peri-articular pain typically present?
Diffuse and poorly localised around a joint e.g tendonitis
What is meant by radiation of pain?
Pain travelling along the path of a nerve
e.g sciatica, pain radiates down the leg. Neck pain radiates to fingers and hip pain radiates to knee
What type of pain is worse against resistance?
Tendinitis
What features suggest neuropathic pain?
Shooting, burning, electric shock like pain, tingling (parasthesia), numbness
Name three key questions to ask in trauma history.
When and how it occurred; mechanism; force involved; previous injury (any three)
What systems must be assessed following trauma?
Peripheral circulation, peripheral nervous system, central nervous system, fitness for anaesthetic
Give two examples of extra-articular features in inflammatory disease.
Psoriasis, oral ulcers, scleritis, alopecia
Which major organs or systems should be checked if patient has inflammatory conditions
Cardiovascular system - Raynaud's phenomenon
Kidneys - Blood in urine
GI tract - Change in bowels
Respiratory - Chest pain
Nervous system - Tingling/numbness
Why is travel history relevant?
Risk of infection-related arthritis
Food poisioning with E.coli can cause RA
What is meant by autoimmune diseases “hunting in packs”?
Autoimmune diseases cluster within families but may present differently
Name four localised MSK conditions with minimal systemic involvement.
Osteoarthritis, gout, tendonitis, bursitis, bone tumours
Give one example of a systemic inflammatory condition affecting joints.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic conditions that affect the whole body but also have prominent features at joints
Name two non-rheumatological conditions that affect the MSK system.
Sickle cell disease (bone pain); cancer metastasis; vitamin D deficiency (rickets in children)
What causes a painful arc in the shoulder?
Supraspinatus tendon impingement in subacromial space
supraspinatous tendon passes through the subacromial space. Inflammation of this tendon reduces the space > painful arc during shoulder abduction between 60-120 degrees
What injury commonly occurs in younger adults after a fall onto an outstretched hand?
Scaphoid fracture (in younger adults)
Forces transmitted through thenar eminence of lateral bones of carpus (trapezoid, trapezium and scaphoid)
In older aduts, this will result in Colle’s fracture (# lower end of radius)
Scaphoid is most commonly # carpal bone —> pain on dorsiflexion, tenderness in anatomical snuff box and pain on grip.
What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve > numbness and loss of power
Muslces it supplies - ‘LOFA’
Lateral 2 lumbricals
Opponens pollicis
Flexor pollicis brevis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Sx - Wasting of thenar eminence, weakness of thumb abduction
What branch of the median nerve supplies sensation in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Digital cutaneous branch
What type of ligament injury occurs in ankle inversion?
Sprain or rupture e.g fall from stairs or sports
Joint instability > Feeling of giving way or instability
Ligament injury takes longer to heal than fracture
Name the bones of the upper limb from proximal to distal.
Clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, Proximal, middle and distal phalanges
Elbow is a hinge joint - these joint usually has collateral ligaments.
At which two joints do the radius and ulna articulate?
Proximal radioulnar joint - at elbow, between head of radius, and radial notch of ulna
Distal radioulnar joint - at wrist, between head of ulna, and ulnar notch on radius. It is separated from the wrist joint by a fibrous articular disc
Annular ligament is the collateral ligament at the elbow that wraps around the radial head.
What type of synovial joint are the proximal and distal radioulnar joints?
Pivot synovial joints
Enable rotation in one plane
Size of Radius and ulna changes as they continue distally - Radius is narrow proximally and wider near the wrist, ulna is wide proximally and narrows towards wrist
What is the interosseous membrane?
A fibrous sheet (syndesmosis) connecting medial border of radius to the lateral border of ulna.
Seperates the anterior and posterior comparments of the forarm
Vessels pass between anterior and posterior comparments.
Keep the ulna and radius in place and enables supernation and pronation. (during pronation the distal radius crosses over the ulna)
Which bone primarily articulates with the hand?
Radius
Motility of the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joint as well as humero-radial joint allows radius to rotate medially or laterally > pronation and supination.
Movement of the hand is due to radius because this is the major bone attached to had not the ulna
wrist joint also able to adduct and abduct
Define pronation of the forearm.
Antero-Medial rotation of the radius crossing over the ulna > X shape.
Define supination of the forearm.
From pronated position, Lateral rotation of the radius returning to parallel with the ulna
Name the pronator muscles.
There are 3 muscles of pronation - 2 in anterior, 1 in posterior compartment
Pronator teres (main) - from medial epicondyle of humerus to lateral surface of radius
Pronator quadratus (main) - from distal end of ulna to distal end of radius
Anconeus (accessory) - it abducts the distal end of ulna to maintain the central position of the palm of the hands during pronation. Located in posterior compartment
from lateral epicondyle of humeral to proximal end of ulna
Name the two main supinator muscles.
powerful supinator, located in anterior comparment
Both heads insert into the radial tuberosity on the medial surface of the radius
Supinator - located in posterior comparment
Originate from ulna > latteral epicondyle of humerus > elbow ligaments > radial shaft
How many muscles are in the anterior compartment (flexor muscles) of the forearm?
Eight flexor muscles > movement at the wrist, flexion of fingers or pronation.
-> They all originate from medial epicondyl of humerus (common felxor origin) and are innervated by median nerve (C6-T1) - except flexor carpi ulnaris (innervated by ulnar nerve (C8-T1)
5 superficial = flexor carpi ulnaris, palmaris longus, flexor carpi radialis, Pronator teres and flexor digitorum superficialis
3 deep = flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus (unipennete) and pronator quadratus
Which nerve mainly innervates the anterior forearm compartment (flexor muscles)?
Median nerve (C6-T1)
Flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of flexor digitorum profundus are innervated by ulnar nerve (C8-T1)
Which superficial anterior forearm muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve?
Flexor carpi ulnaris
The medial half of flexor digitorum profundus is also supplied by ulna nerve (C8-T1)
Which muscle’s tendon is used to locate the radial artery pulse?
Flexor carpi radialis (pulse papated lateral to it) - a poweful flexor and abductor of wrist
Which muscle passes four tendons through the carpal tunnel and splits at the middle phalanx?
Flexor digitorum superficialis (to finers II, III, IV and V)
Responsible for flexion of each finger’s MCP and proximal interphalangeal joint + wrist joint
Innervated by median nerve
And Flexor digitorum profundus
Which muscle flexes the distal interphalangeal joints?
Flexor digitorum profundus
has 4 tendons which pass through carpal tunnel > phalanx of fingers II, III, IV, V.
Responsible for felxion of MCP, proximal and distal interphalangeal joints and wrist
How is flexor digitorum profundus innervated?
Lateral half by anterior interosseous nerve (median nerve); medial half by ulnar nerve
Which muscle flexes the thumb at the interphalangeal joint?
Flexor pollicis longus
extends one large tendon through carpal tunnel > thumb
Which nerve innervates pronator quadratus?
Anterior interosseous nerve (branch of median nerve)
flat, square shaped muscle
Responsible for pronation by rotating the distal end of the radius over ulna
How many muscles are in the posterior forearm compartment?
Twelve muscles > move wrist, extend fingers or supinate the hand.
-> All are innervated by radial nerve (C5-T1).
-> Common origin is lateral epicondyle
7 superficial muscles - Brachioradialis (flexes is semi ronation), extensor carpi (=wrist) radialis longus (=long), extensor carpi radialis brevis (=short), extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi ulnaris and anconeus
5 deep muscles - supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis
Which nerve innervates the posterior forearm compartment (extensors)?
What are the boundaries of the cubital fossa?
The cubital fossa is bound:
superiorly by an imaginary line between lateral and medial epicondyles
laterally by the brachioradialis
medially by the pronator teres
Describe the arrangement of the bones in the hand proximally to distally.
Wrist is a condyloid synovial joint
Carpals (8 bones)
Scaphoid, lunate, Triquetrum, pisiform - Trapezium, Trapezoid, capitate, Hammate
Metacarpals (5)
Proximal phalanges (5)
Middle phalanges (4, because thumb only has 2 phalanges)
Distal phalanges (5)
How many carpal bones are there and how are they arranged?
Eight carpals arranged in two rows of four bones (articulate with neighbouring carpals. ‘She Likes To Play, Try To Catch Her’
Proximal row - Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
scaphoid and lunate articulate with radius while lunate and triquetrum articulate with ulna.
Distal row - Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.
Articulate with metacarpals
They are arranged to form arch shape (carpal arc) which forms the base and side of carpal tunnel
What type of synovial joint is the wrist joint?
Condyloid synovial joint - formed by 4 joints > abduction, adduction, extension and flexion
carpometacarpal joint (distal carpal + Metacarpals)
Radiocarpal joint (Radius + Scaphoid + lunate)
Ulnocarpal joint ( Ulna + lunate + triquetrum)
Distal radioulnar joint
Which carpometacarpal joint is the most mobile?
First carpometacarpal joint (thumb)
there are 5 metacarpals (1-5), these are long bones, have base, shaft and head.
2-5 are very rigid with limited movement, 1st MCP joint is very mobile.
How many phalanges does the thumb have?
Two (proximal and distal)
other 4 fingers have 3 phalanges (proximal, middle and distal)
2nd - 5th metacarpophalangeal joints are mobile > adduction, abduction, flexion and extension.
What type of joint are the interphalangeal joints?
Hinge joints
What is the function of the deep transverse metacarpal ligaments?
Connect MCP joints of digits II–V and restrict relative movement
What are the boundaries of the anatomical snuffbox?
Lateral border: abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
medial border: extensor pollicis longus
Floor : Scaphoid and trapezium
Scaphoid bone can be felt here and # > tenderness.
Scaphoid bone get blood supply from the edge and # can cause avascular necrosis.
What is the palmar aponeurosis?
A triangular thickening of deep fascia covering the palm.
It extends longitudinal fibres to cover anterior bases of the digits
What is the function of the extensor hood?
Allows coordinated extension and fine finger movements
These are complex, triangular connective tissue structures covering the dorsal surface of the digits
Formed by the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor pollicis longus muscles.
It is attached to distal & proximal phalax (thumb) or middle (other digits)
What are the intrinsic hand muscles ?
Palmaris brevis
Interossei
Adductor pollicis
Thennar (3) - opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis
hypothenar muscles (3) - opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi and flexor digiti minimi brevis
Lumbricals (4) - 2 medial and 2 lateral
Which muscles abduct and adduct the fingers?
Interossei (dorsal abduct, palmar adduct)
Innervation: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
Which nerve innervates the thenar muscles?
What is the function of the lumbricals?
Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints
Lumbricals are main muscles of this action assisted by interosseous musles. Both attached to extensor hoods of the finger
Enables precision grip and writing
How are the lumbricals innervated?
Lateral two by median nerve; medial two by ulnar nerve
Briefly describe the early embryological development
Fertilised egg > morula > blastocyst
Day 6 = implantation of blastocyst
Week 2 = bilaminar germ disc formation
Week 3 = Gastrulation > trilaminar germ disc formation from epiblast (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm)
Mesoderm divides into paraxial, intermediate and lateral plate mesoderm on both sides
Folding > neurulation > formation of neural tube
What are somites?
Somites are paired structures that form from the paraxial mesoderm during early embryonic development.
They are located on either side of the neural tube and arise through a process known as somitogenesis.
They differentiate into several important structures, including:
Dermatomes: Contribute to the skin and connective tissues.
Myotomes: Give rise to skeletal muscles.
Sclerotomes: Form the vertebrae and rib cage.
How are somites organised?
Organise themselves into an inner sclerotome and outer dermomyotome
The Dermomyotome then divides into outer dermatome and inner myotome.
Sclerotome migrate to surround the notochord and neural tube - this is where the development of vertebral column begins.
How does sclerotome lead to the development of the spine?
Sclerotome surrounds the notochord and neural tube
In the middle of these migrated cells, the precursors of intervertebral disc begins to from
The caudal part of sclerotome grows downwards and meet cranial part of next sclerotome. Growth of the adjacent sclerotome likewise forms the vertebrae.
These vertebrae obliterate the notochord with some remnants in the intervertebral disc as nucleus pulposus (stem cells). This is surrounded by outer region known as annulus fibrosus
Which genes control vetebral differentiation?
HOX genes
master control genes that regulate large no of genes
Human have 4 clusters of HOX genes - these determines anterior-posterior body axis in B/L organisms
What are myotomes?
Somites that develop into skeletal muscles
1st they divide into 2 parts, then further proliferate to form different muscles:
A dorsal epimere - Gives rise to erector spinae and transversospinalis muscles
Ventral hypomere - forms hypaxial muscle (muscles of trunk). Includes the 3 layers of intercostal and 3 layers of anterolateral abdominal wall muscles.
How does the limb muscles develops?
The embryo develops limb buds (week 5) - these are made of mesoderm core, surrounded by ectoderm
Muscles from hypomere migrate towards the limb buds to give rise to all the muscles of the limbs.
This involves condensation of the mesenchyme within the limb buds to form bones of the limbs.
It is surrrounded by ventral muscle mass and dorsal muscle mass —> flexors and extensors of the limb respectively.
During which stage of the embryological development does primary ossification centres begin?
Week 8
Mesenchyme continues to condense during week 6
Primary ossification centres begin to form in the shaft of long bones in week 8
Cell death occurs to carve out and separate the digits
Name the limb defects caused by congenital malformations
Syndactyly - fused fingers or toes
Polydactyly - extra digits
Clinodactyly -bent digit (little finger)
Club foot - inverted feet
What types of ossification leads to formation of the skull?
Drives from mesoderm and neural crest (ectoderm)
Skull forms form combination of endochondral and intramembranous ossification:
Vault and face bones ossify by intramembranous ossification (mesenchyme is converted directly to bone)
Base of skull and elements of the maxillae and mandible undergo endochondral ossification
Which structures does the pharyngeal arches forms?
Forms many structures in the head and neck:
Mandible, hyoid bone, laryngeal cartilage, muscles of facial expression, muscles int he neck and larynx.
5 arches - each contains cartilage, muscle precursots, an artery and nerve.
what variables determines the severity of limb injuries?
Magnitude and direction of force
Type force (direct, indirect)
Age of individual (older individuals more likely to have osteoporosis or other medical problems, weaker soft tissues, slower healing, altered physiological response)
Sex of individual
Health of individual (osteoporosis can increase risk of bone fracture)
Injuries can be caused by various things however a common injury is FOOSH - Fall On Outstretched Hand
Name the structures of upper limb that can be damaged during an injury
Bones - fractures
Joints - dislocation and subluxation
Blood vessels - axillary, brachial, radial and ulnar
Nerves - brachial plexus, radial, axillary, ulnar and median
Muscles
Ligaments
How to assess a patient presents with an injury
History - mechanism, pain, swelling, PMH
Examination - look, feel, move (active and passive)
Active - patient tries to move the affected limb
passive - clinician tries to move the limb
Diagnosis - Xray
What are the similarities and differences between upper and lower limb?
Both have similar anatomy - ball and socket joint, long bone, hinge joint, 2 lower bones then compact bones
Differ in function - LL bears the body weight, UL more mobile but less stable.
What are the common mechanism of injury to soft tissues?
Involves damage to muscle, tendon, ligament.
Contusion – Blunt force injury leading to swelling, pain, and discoloration.
Sprain – Partial tear of ligament (e.g. wrist).
Muscle strain – Overuse/stretch injury to muscle.
Tendonitis – Overuse injury leading to inflammation of tendon.
Bursitis – Overuse injury leading to swelling of bursa.
Stress fracture – Small crack in bone due to overuse
What are the principle management of soft tissue injuries?
Rest (slings, splints plaster)
Ice - slows and reduces swelling
Compression - by elastic bandage, prevents swelling
Elevation (to decrease swelling)
Analgesia (for pain)
Early mobilisation - help reduce pain and improve function
In more severe injuries to ligaments, tendons, muscles (e.g. complete tear), surgery may be required
In which direction most commonly shoulder dislocates?
Anterior direction > squared off shoulder appearance with acromion more proment.
Initial Rx:
analgesia (entonox, morphine)
Assessment - patient unable to place their palm onto other palm. May also have neuro deficit due to axillary nerve damage (regimental badge sign)
Xray
Reduction - muscles of the arm and shoulder is stretched > humeral head guided back into glenoid cavity
What are the complication of shoulder dislocation?
Chance of recurrence is higher, especially if the glenoid labrum was damaged
Axillary nerve damage - deltoid paralysis and loss of sensation
Associated fractures
Stiffness
Joint instability
Which part of the clavicle is commonly fractured?
More likely occurs in the middle 3rd of the clavicle
Post fracture, lateral end pulled down due to the weight of the limb while medial end may be pulled up due to spasm of sternocleidomastoid msucle.
Causee - can occur due to FOOSH
Examination - pain, swelling, protrusion of # end
Xray for Dx
Rx - shoulder support with sling / brace. Usually heals after 2/12 and may have lump.
What are the possible complications of humeral fracture?
Fracture usually occurs following a fall. The fracture can be in different parts of the humerus such as:
Anatomical neck
Shaft
Distal end
Treatment is in the form of immobilisation and allowing the bone to heal. Immobilisation can be achieved by:
Plaster
Internal fixation (plates and screws or nails)
External fixation
Complications - Radial nerve damage > weakness in finger or wrist extension > wrist drop
What are the radiological features of elbow injury?
Injuries occurs directly due to fall on the elbow or indirectly due to FOOSH.
Xray shows elevation of fat pad of the elbow and visible posterior fat pad
What are the common injuries that occur at the elbow joint ?
Olecranon (ulna) # - due to direct blow / avulsion # during FOOSH with contracted tricep > displacement of # end of the olecranon. Rx with surgical fixation / reduction
Displaced supracondylar fracture - common in children & adolescents due to FOOSH. Usually occurs at the thin region between olecranon fossa posteriorly and coronoid fossa anteriorly.
Brachial artery, radial nerve and median nerve are close proximity and may be damaged
Elbow dislocation - post fall, can be anterior or posterior (common). Reduced by gently flexing the forearm at the elbow joint with forearm supinated then stablised with splint.
What is the notable feature of Buckle # in children?
Injury to hand/wrist - children’s bones are soft so they can bend without breaking > bump in the bone
What is a greenstick fracture?
Occurs in children
An incomplete fracture of a long bone on one side with otherside still intact.
Usually remodel well and Rx with rest in plaster.
Which fractures gives dinner fork deformity appearance?
Colles fracture - # of distal end of radius causing it to bend posteriorly (dorsal angulation)
Most common wrist #
Rx with open (surgical) or closed (manipulation) reduction followed by fixation by plaster or internal fixation with plates.
complications - malunion, pain, weak grip, reduced movement, carpal tunnel syndrome, arthritis
What is the diagnosis?
5th Metacarpal # (Boxer’s #)- usually extra-articular
Rx by stabilisation using buddy strapping
What is the common injury to fingers?
Dislocation at MCP, PIP, or DIP
Associated with tear in supporting ligaments (collateral or accessory)
Rx by reduction, ring block method, buddy strapping.
LT > the ligament can be lax > increase risk of recurrent dislocation or misalignment.
What are the key functions of the skull?
Protects brain
House and protects sense organs - eye, cochlea, vestibular apparatus)
permitting passage of neurovascular structures
housing of upper parts of digestive and respiratory tract (organs of oral and nasal cavity)
Providing attachment for muscles involved in mastication and facial expression
Name the two main divisions of the skull.
Neurocranium (cranium - house the brain) and viscerocranium (facial skeleton)
How many bones form the neurocranium?
Eight
1 occipital, 2 parietal, 2 temporal, 1 frontal, 1 sphenoid and 1 ethmoid bone
How many bones form the viscerocranium?
Fourteen
which include 2 maxillae, 2 palatine bones, 2 nasal bones, 2 inferior nasal conchae, 2 zygomatic bones, 2 lacrimal bones, as well as 1 vomer and 1 mandible
What are the two subdivisions of the neurocranium?
Calvarium (cranial vault) and cranial floor (base of the skull)
Calvarium covers the brain and brain sits on the cranial floor
Cranial floor has many framina > passage of brainstem and neurovascular structures
Which bone forms the roof of orbit?
Frontal bone
Covers the frontal lobe, part of calvarium and cranial floor
Forms the roof of the orbit
Which bone covers the parietal lobe?
Parietal bone (L+R)
It is part of calvarium , flat bone
Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
Occipital bone - located posteriorly
Covers the occipital lobe and cerebellum
Part of calvarium and cranial floor
Articulates with C1 to form atlanto-occipital joint
Brain stem pass through the foramen magnum (largest in the skull, locted in the occipital bone)
Name the multiple parts ad processes of temporal bone
covers the temporal lobe. It is part of the calvarium and cranial floor. It has multiple parts and processes
Squamous part (flattened on the side)
Petrous part (wedge-shaped, dense)
Tympanic part (external auditory meatus)
Mastoid process (felt behind the ear, attaches sternocloid mastoid muscle )
Zygomatic process (articulates with zygomatic bone)
Styloid process
Mandibular fossa (temporomandibular joint)
Which bone contains the sella turcica?
Sphenoid bone - wing shaped, sits centre of calvarium
part of the calvarium and cranial floor.
It contains the sella turcica (pituitary gland).
It forms the posterior wall of the orbit
The tipis of the temporal lobes sit on the greater wings.
The pterygoid plate of the bone is the attachment site of mastication muscles
Which bone forms the roof of the nasal cavity?
Ethmoid bone
situated in the midline, below the frontal lobe.
It is part of the cranial floor.
It forms the roof of the nasal cavity, also contains the cribriform plate (tiny holes that allows passage of olfactory nerves).
It contributes to the nasal septum, superior and middle conchae in the nasal cavity
What is the function of skull sutures?
Holds adjacent skull bones together and allow skull growth
Sutures = fibrous joints, contains fibrous CT
Immovable
Ossification of the suture lines begins in 20s and complete by 50s
Name the three major skull sutures.
-> Coronal (purple) - Between frontal and parietal bones
-> sagittal (blue)- Between left and right parietal bones
-> lambdoid sutures (yellow) - between parietal and occipital bones
What is the bregma?
(Red) Junction of coronal and sagittal sutures
What is the lambda?
(Green) Junction of sagittal and lambdoid sutures
What is the pterion?
Junction between 4 bones (temple of the skull): frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones
Thinnest part of the skull = easy to # post trauma
Why is the pterion clinically important?
It is thin so prone to # and overlies the anterior division of middle meningeal artery, risk of epidural haematoma
How many fontanelles are present in the newborn skull?
Six (1 anterior (large), 1 posterior, 2 mastoid and 2 sphenoid)
Fontanelles are spaces between skull bones where formation in incomplete.
Made of soft CT membrane and present in newborns.
They close as the adjacent flat bones grow
Which fontanelle closes last?
Anterior fontanelle
Posterior & sphenpoid- closes in first 3 months
2x mastoid - closes within the first year
Anterior - last fontanelle to close (within first 2 years)
What is craniosynostosis?
Premature closure of skull sutures
Fontanelles permits changes in the shape of calvarium as it pass through the birth canal as well as permits growth of post natal brain
Premature closure > limits growth of skull + brain > impaired cognitive development
Anterior fontanelle > bregma and the posterior > lamba
Which cranial nerves may be affected in a basilar skull fracture of the temporal bone?
Facial nerve (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
Basilar skull # occur at the temporal bone due to high velocity blunt trauma e.g motor collision
Sx - periorbital ecchymosis (brusing = racoon eye), postauricular ecchymosis (battle sing = bruising behind ear) and CSF leak
Compromise the structures that pass through temporal bone - CN VII, CN VIII and internal carotid artery
Identify the bones 1-10 around the orbit
-> Orbit (eye socket) are B/L symmetrical cavities in the end which encloses eyeball.
1: Ethmoid bone
2: Frontal bone
3: Lacrimal bone
4: Mandible*
5: Maxilla
6: Nasal bone*
7: Palatine bone
8: Sphenoid bone
9: Temporal bone*
10: Zygomatic bone
** = not the bone of orbit but present in image
Name the bones forming the superior wall (roof) of the orbit.
Frontal bone and lesser wing of sphenoid
Name the bones forming the inferior wall (floor) of the orbit.
Maxilla, palatine, and zygomatic bones
Maxillae - contains upper set of teeth, contributes to hard palate / floor of nasal cavity (palatine process of maxilla)
Zygomatic bones - ‘cheek bones’, forms lateral border of orbit.
Temporal process of zygomatic bone articulates with zygomatic process of temporal bone > Forms zygomatic arch
Which bone forms the majority of the medial wall of the orbit?
Ethmoid bone, and maxilla, lacrimal and sphenoid bones
Which bone contributes to the lateral wall of the orbit?
Zygomatic bone and greater wing of sphenoid
Which part of the temporal bone contains the inner ear?
Petrous part
Through which foramen does the facial nerve exit the skull?
Stylomastoid foramen
What are the three groups of muscles of facial expression?
Orbital, nasal, and oral groups
Facial expression muscles attach from bone and fascia to skin superficially and the pull the skin when contracted
Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?
Facial nerve (CN VII)
Passes through the substance of parotid gland - branch begins within the parotid gland but it does NOT innervates the gland.
So surgical removal of parotid gland sparing the facial nerve is difficult without damaging the branches
Name the five terminal branches of the facial nerve in the face.
Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical
What is the function of the orbicularis oculi (orbital part)?
Forcible closure of the eyelids (muscle forms the ring around the eye)
-> The orbital group of muscle consists of:
orbicularis oculi which divides into:
outer orbital part > closes eyelids forcefully
inner palpebral part > gentle closing of eyelids
corrugator supercili and Procerus
draws eyebrows medially and inferiorly > frowning
What action does the corrugator supercilii produce?
Draws eyebrows medially and inferiorly (frowning)
What is the function of the nasalis nasal group?
-> Nasal group of facial musles consits of procerus, nasalis and depressor septi nasi.
-> Nasalis is further divided into:
Nasalis transverse - compresses nostrils
Nasalis alar part - opens nostrils
What is the function of orbicularis oris (oral group)?
Closes and narrows the mouth
The oral group muslces intersects lateral to corner of the mouth, the modiolus (fibromuscular structure)
Oral group muscles move the lips and cheeks
Includes orbicularis oris, buccinator, upper and lower groups of muscles.
Orbicularis oris - concentric muscle, completely encircles the mouth. Contraction > narrow closed lips
What is the function of buccinator?
Compresses cheek against teeth during mastication
Buccinator occupies the space between maxilla and mandible B/L
The fibres blend with orbicularis oris. Pierced by parotid duct (drains from parotid gland into buccal area)
It press the cheek against the teeth > prevents food accumulation between teeth and cheek during mastication
What is the modiolus?
Fibromuscular convergence point lateral to the mouth where fibres of several muscles converge.
Name the upper group of oral muscles
Risorius – retracts corner of mouth (grinning)
Zygomaticus major – Draws corner of mouth superiorly and laterally (smiling)
Zygomaticus minor – Draws lateral side of upper lip superiorly (smiling)
Levator labii superioris – Raises the central area of the upper lip and deepens the nasolabial furrow during sadness. (Levetor = elevate, labii = lips, superioris = superiorly)
Levator anguili oris - raises corner of the mouth superiorly
(anguii = angle, oris = mouth)
Name the lower group of oral muslces
Depressor anguli oris – Depresses the corners of the mouth during frowning
Depressor labii inferioris – Depresses the lower lip and moves it laterally. (labii =lips, inferioris = inferiorly)
Mentalis – Raises and protrudes lower lip as it wrinkles the skin of the chin
Which muscle elevates the corner of the mouth during smiling?
Zygomaticus major
Which muscle depresses the corner of the mouth during frowning?
Depressor anguli oris
What is the function of mentalis?
Elevates and protrudes lower lip, wrinkles chin
Which muscle wrinkles the forehead?
Frontal belly of occipitofrontalis
-> other facial muslces
Occipitofrontalis (occipital to frontal)
Has anterior (frontal) and posterior (occipital) belly connected by aponeurosis > moves scalp and wrinkles forehead
Auricular muscle > moves the ear
platysma
What is the function of platysma?
Tenses skin of neck and depresses lower lip and corners of the mouth
Its the superficial muscle of the neck
Runs from mandible to clavicle
What condition results from unilateral facial nerve paralysis?
Bell’s palsy > weakness / total paralysis to unilateral facial muscles due to viral infection involving facial nerve.
What is the main arterial supply to the face?
Facial artery
additional supply from branches of external carotid artery
Which vein primarily drains the face?
Facial vein
additional drainage from tributaries of external jugular vein
Which sphenoid foramina transmit the maxillary and mandibular nerves?
Foramen rotundum (maxillary) and foramen ovale (mandibular)
What key anatomical difference exists between neonatal and adult skulls regarding sutures?
Presence of fontanelles and unfused sutures in neonates
What are the borders of mandible ?
Consists of body anteriorly, ramus posteriorly - they meet at angle of mandible
Superior border it has a head (condylar process) - this articulates with mandibular fossa of the temporal bone
Also has coronoid process
Alveolar process border the teeth
What type of joint is a temporomandibular joint?
A modified hinge synovial joint
Articulation - between head of mandible (condylar process) and mandibular fossa of the temporal bone
The articular surfaces lined by fibrocartilage (rather than hyaline cartilate).
the joint cavity divides into upper and lower parts by articular disc (dense fibrous CT)
Attached to joint capsule anteriorly and posteriorly (subdivided and act as entry point for neurovascular structures)
Describe the function of upper and lower joint cavity part of the TMJ
Upper and lower part divided by an articular disc
Lower part > hinge-like movement - depression and elevation of mandible
upper part > gliding movement - permits protrusion of mandibular head anteriorly onto articular eminence
These movements > open and closing jaw
What is the function of articular eminence at the TMJ?
The articular eminence is the anterior limit of the mandibular fossa. It provides a surface for the articular disc to slide anteriorly onto but also limits how far the jaw can open.
Name the ligaments at the TMJ
-> TMJ joint has a synovial membrane, fibrous capsule and 3 extracapsular ligaments: The ligaments are-
Sphenomandibular ligament - from sphenoid bone to lingula of the mandible
Lateral ligament - closest to the joint, and runs diagonally backwards from the margin of the articular tubercle to the neck of the mandible
Stylomandibular ligament - passes from the styloid process of the temporal bone to the posterior margin and angle of the mandible
What is TMJ disorder and the symptoms?
TMJ and external acoustic meatus are in close proximity
TMJ disorder - pain and inflammation of TMJ > ear pain
Which nerve innervates TMJ?
originates from the Auriculotemporal nerve fibres of the mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V3)
Innervates the capsule and ligaments
What are the vascular supply and drainage of TMJ?
Arterial supply – superficial temporal and maxillary branches of the external carotid artery
Venous Drainage – Superficial temporal, maxillary and pterygoid plexus of veins
Name the 4 possible movements of the mandible
-> Protrusion, retraction, elevation and depression
Name the 4 main muscles of mastication that allows the movement of the mandible
Masseter muscle - Elevation of the mandible
Temporalis muscle - Elevation and retraction of the mandible
Medial pterygoid muscle (deep) - Elevation and side-to-side movement. It also assists in protrusion
Lateral pterygoid muscle (deep) - Protrusion and side-to-side movement. It attaches to the neck of mandible and directly to the joint capsule, it pulls the joint capsule and articular disc anteriorly
Where is the medial and lateral pterygoid muscles located?
Infratemporal fossa
What is the additional function of suprahyoid muscles in the movement of TMJ?
Retraction and depression (opens jaw) movements are also assisted by suprahyoid muscles (geniohyoid and mylohyoid and digastric)
Which muscles of the madible results in side-to-side movements?
Side to side movements results from:
Protraction on one side - lateral and medial pterygoid
Retraction on another - temporalis and masseter
Which nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?
Branches of mandibular nerve of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3)
Name the arterial and venous supply of the muscles of mastication
Arterial Supply – External carotid artery > Maxillary artery > Branches > supply these muscles
Venous drainage – Muscles are drained by the pterygoid plexus > into the maxillary vein and facial vein > into the external and internal jugular veins
What are the causes of TMJ dislocation / subluxation?
acute and forceful opening of the mouth (trauma or intubation)
on the pic, the mandibular condyle moved anteriorly from the fossa = dislocation
Name the pathology on the Xray
B/L dislocation of the Mandible (the mandibuler condyle moved anteriorly) > wide opening of the mouth
Name the 5 vertebral regions
Cervical (7)
Thoracic (12)
Lumbar (5)
Sacral (5)
Coccyx (3-4)
Learn to identify the key osteological features of the vertebrae
-> All cervical verterbrae have foramina transversaria - Holes in the transverse process where vetebral artery and vein pass
Small/kidney shaped body, uncovertebral joints, large/triangular foramen and has bifid spinous process.
-> Thoracic vertebrae have palpable spinous processess and articulates with ribs.
Heart shaped body, small/circular foramen, long + inferiorly sloping spinous process and thick + horizontal transverse process
-> Lumbar vertebrae doesnt have foramina transversaria or costal facets.
large/heavy/kidney shaped body, small+triangular foramen, thick+horizontal spinous process and thin+horizontal transverse process
Describe the key features of Atlas (C1)
-> An atypical vertebrae - just a ring of bone
-> Most superior vertebrae
-> Has No body / spinous process
-> Has superior and inferior articular facets (silver), foramina transversaria, anterior + posterior arches and tubercles.
-> Also has lateral mass and facet for dens
Describe the key features of Axis (C2)
-> Atypical cervical vertabrae
-> Has vertebral body, bifid spinous process, superior + inferior articular facets, foramina transversaria, facet for anterior arch of atlas on the dens + transverse ligament of atlas
-> Aslo has dens (odontoid process - looks like a teeth) - this is the vertebral body of C1 that migrated down
Note: C7 is also an atypical cervical vertebra
Which feature of the thoracic vertebrae articulates with the ribs?
Costal facets (demifacets)
What are the lacking features of lumbar vertebrae?
Doest have foramina transversaria or costal facets.
List the key features of sacrum and coccyx
-> Both are fused
Sacrum
Has sacral promontory - it pokes out into pelvic inlet and articulates with L5
Alae - wings that spread out laterally
Also has Auricular surface for articulation with the pelvic bone, Anterior sacral foramina (where anterior rami of spinal nerves emerge), Posterior sacral foramina (where posterior rami of spinal nerves emerge), Narrow sacral canal (cauda equina is thin) and Sacral hiatus
Coccyx
Has cornu (hornes) and 3-4 fused vertebrae
Articulation of which 2 features forms atlanto-occipital joint?
-> Between atlas (C1) and occipital bone
-> Occipital condyles (L+R) articulates with superior articular facets of the atlas
-> Movements: flexion and extension
Articulation of which 2 Bones forms atlanto-axial joint?
-> Between atlas (C1) and axis (C2)
-> A synovial pivot joint - atlas rotate around the axis
-> Dens articulates:
Anteriorly with facet on atlas anterior arch
Posteriorly with transverse ligament of atlas
-> Movement: axial rotation (‘No’)
Note: the ligament is transverse ligament of atlas - it holds the dens of C2 against the anterior arch of C1 - movement of the dens can lead to compression of the brain
Name the 2 joints between the vertebrae
Interverterbral joint - between vertebral bodies of adjacent vertebrae
Zygopophyseal (facet) joint - between inferior articular facet of superior vertebra and superior articular facet of inferior vertebra
-> These joints are related to spinal nerve
-> Intervertebral foramen (where spinal nerves exit) is made up of the inferior vertebral notch of the superior vertebra and the superior vertebral notch of the inferior vertebra
-> Problem with these joints > nerve impingement e.g herniated lumbar disc
Name the components of intervertebral disc
It is a secondary cartilaginous joint. The disc has:
Annulus fibrosus - outer, concentric rings of fibrocartilage
Nucleus pulposus - inner gelatinous part
Cartilaginous endplate - formed from hyaline cartilage on upper and lower surfaces of vertebral bodies
-> when the load is placed superiorly, the nucleus pulposus flattens and annulus fibrousus stretch > this prevents movement and compression.
-> when leaning backwards, the posterior disc compress while anterior stretch (this prevents further movement)
cartilagenous joint
How does zygapophyseal joint differ between different regions of the spine ?
-> This is a synovial plane joint between the inferior articular facets of superior vertebra and superior articular facets of inferior vertebra
-> Cervical
The superior articular facet faces posteriorly and superiorly
The inferior articular facet faces anteriorly and inferiorly
This permits flexion, extension and rotation
-> thoracic
The superior articular facet faces superior and slightly lateral
The inferior articular facet faces inferior and slightly medial
Permits rotation, some flexion, extension
-> Lumbar
Superior articular facet faces medial
Inferior articular facet faces lateral
Rotation is very limited
Name the ligaments that stablises the vertebral column
Anterior longitudinal - Thick and strong, Tightly attached
Posterior longitudinal - Within the vertebral canal, Narrower, Less firmly attached
Interspinous ligaments - Between the spinous processes
Supraspinous - Between the tips of the spinous processes
Intertransverse ligaments - Between transverse processes
Ligamentum flavum - Attached to lamina of vertebra (if stretched doesnt return to its normal shape > impinges)
Name the muscles of the back
-> Exterior (superficial muscles) e.g trapezius, rhoboid
-> Intermediate layer - serratus posterior
-> deep layer
mainly erector spinae (= it erects the spine)- extends the back. All one muscle but forms 3 bands lateral to medial > extension
Iliocostalis - attaches to the ilium and ribs
Longissimus (from sacrum to skull)
Spinalis - attached to spinous processes.
Name the classification of atlantoaxial, facet and intervertebral joints between verterbral bodies
atlantoaxial - synovial pivot joint
Facet - synovial plane
intervetebral - secondary cartilagenous
Which muscles carry out axial rotation, extension and flexion of the trunk?
Axial rotation - external abdominal oblique
extension - erector spinae
flexion - rectus abdominis
Why is pelvis so important?
-> Defining elements of human evaluation = bipedalism
-> Houses important viscera and structures
Urinary system - Bladder, Urethra, Ureters
Reproductive system - Uterus, Vagina, Prostate
Digestive system - Rectum, Anal canal
Name the bones of the pelvis
Bones of the pelvis can be divided into:
Pelvic (hip) bones - ilium, ischium and pubis. They unite at the acetabulum, a spherical depression which forms the ball-and-socket joint with the head of the femur
Which 2 joints form the bony ring of the pelvic?
The bones of pelvis form a bony ring which has 2 joints:
Anteriorly - the pubic symphysis joining the 2 pubis bones
Posteriorly - the sacro-iliac joint joining the sacrum and the ilium bones.
Which pelvic bone forms the superior part of the hip bone?
-> Ilium - has 2 parts (upper and lower)
-> Upper -is flat, fan-shaped ‘wing’, provides attachment site for lower limb muscles and supports lower abdomen.
-> Lower part - makes up the wall of true pelvis
-> Superior margin (ilac crest) > anteriorly ASIS and posteriorly PSIS
Iliac fossa is anterior surface, gluteal surface is posteriorly
Has 4 spines - ASIS, AIIS, PSIS, PIIS
Arcuate line forms part of pelvic inlet
Ilium has greater sciatic notch
Which pelvic bone forms the inferior & posterior part of the hip bone?
Ischium - has several parts
-> Body = joins with ilium and superior ramus of pubis
-> Ramus = projects anteriorly to join inferior ramus of pubis
-> Ischial tuberosity = ‘sit bone’ - postero-inferior aspect of the bone, site for lower limb muscle and support body when sitting
Ischium has lesser sciatic notch
Which pelvic bone forms the anterior -inferior part of the hip bone?
Pubis - has body and 2 arms
-> Body = articulates with the body of other pubis at pubic symphysis
-> Superior pubic ramus = projects posterolaterally to join ilium and ischium. Obturator groove which forms upper margin of the obturator cana is found on the inferior surface
-> Inferior pubic ramus = projects inferolaterally to join ischial ramus.
-> Pectineal line is continuation of the arcuate line of ilium
Which verterae fuses to form the sacrum?
Sacrum is part of vertebral colum - fused S1 to S5 —> fusion lines are visible as transverse ridges anteriorly
-> Intervertebral discs are absent
-> Base of sacrum articulate with L5, apex articulates with coccyx, laterally alae (wings) arteculates with ilium.
-> Superior anterior margin of S1 prjects anteriorly —> Sacral promontory
-> 4 pairs of anterior and posterior sacral foramina - anterior, posterior rami of spinal nerves S1-S4 emerges
-> Sacral canal - its the continuation of vetebral canal where S5 & CO spinal nerves exit
Name the terminal part of the vertebral column
Coccyx - consisits of 3-5 fused vertebrae > tail bone
-> Vertebral canal is absent = no nerves running in
-> Articulates superiorly with the sacrum via cornua (horns), these are modified articular processes
Name the 2 joints and the supporting ligaments at the lumbosacral joint
Lumbosacral ligament run between L5 and S1 vertebral bodies
-> Lumbosacral symphysis - at vetebral bodies
-> zygapophyseal (synovial plane joints) between adjacent inferior and superior articular facets
-> Transmits weight into pelvis
-> Ligaments= iliolumbar (L5- ilium) and lumbosacral (L5-sacrum) ligaments which expands from transverse process
Name the ligaments that stablises the Sacro-iliac joint
-> The joint is between articular surfaces of ileum and sacrum - posteriorly
-> The joint transmits forces from vertebral column to LL
-> Have irregular surfaces that restrict movements
-> Anteriorly its a synovial plane joint and posteriorly its a fibrous joint
-> Ligaments - Anterior, posterior & intraosseus sacroiliac ligaments (attaches to iliac tuberosity)
What type of joint is pubic symphysis ?
Its a secondary cartilaginous joint = limited mobility (increased during pregnancy)
Between both pubic bones anteriorly
Each joint surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage and is linked across the midline by fibrocartilage
Ligaments - Superior, inferior, anterior and posterior pubic ligaments
What is the anatomical landmark of inguinal ligament?
Spans between ASIS and pubic tubercle
Forms the floor of inguinal canal and superior border of the femoral triangle.
Formed from thick free edge of aponeurosis and external oblique muslce.
Role is to support the soft tissues in the groin area
Inferior to the mid point is the site of palpable femoral pulse
Name these 2 ligaments of the pelvis
Name the structures that forms the pelvic inlet
Pelvis inlet (pelvic brim) - the superior ring-shaped opening of the pelvic cavity - continuous with abdominal cavity
Formed by:
Pubic symphysis anteriorly, body of S1 (promontary) and its alae posteriorly, arcuate line of ilium laterally
It divides pelvis into:
False (greater) pelvis = superior to pelvic inlet and is part of abdominal cavity
True (lesser) pelvis = inferior to pelvic inlet = pelvic cavity
Name the structures that forms the pelvic outlet
Its a diamond shaped inferior opening of the pelvis. formed by:
Pubic symphysis (anterior), pubic arch (antero-laterally), Ischeal tuberosity (laterally), sacrotuberous ligament (postero-laterally) and coccyx (posterior)
How does the pelvic shape differ between male and female?
In the anatomical position, the front edge of the top of the pubic symphysis and the ASIS lie in the same vertical plane. - this is due to tilting of the pelvis
Male
-> heart shape inlet, narrow pubic arch angle, outlet and greater sciatic notch (‘V’)
Female
-> Oval shaped inlet, wider pubic arch, outlet and greater sciatic notch (‘U’)
Name the muslces of the pelvic wall
The pelvic wall muscles act at the hip joint and stablise the pelvis. Muscles below > lateral walls of pelvic cavity, attach peripherally to femur.
Piriformis - Nerve to piriformis S1 & S2
Obturator internus - Nerve to obturator internus L5-S2
Function - Hip abduction & lateral rotation
Name the superficial gluteal muscles and their function
Gluteus maximus - largest, superficial
Supplied by inferior gluteal nerve (L5-S2)
-> lateral rotation, extension, abduction, adduction
Gluteus medius & minimus (lies deep to glut max)- prevents pelvic drop when walking
Supplied by superior gluteal nerve (L4-S1)
-> Abduction, medial rotation
Name the Deep gluteal muscles and their function
The deep gluteal muscles (superior to inferior) are:
Superior gemellus – lateral rotation hip and abduction
nerve to obturator internus (L5-S2)
Inferior gemellus – lateral rotation hip and abduction
nerve to quadratus femoris (L4-S1)
Obturator externus – lateral rotation of the hip
Quadratus femoris – lateral rotation of the hip
obturator nerve, post. division (L2-L4)
Note: all these muscles > lateral rotation of hip
Which muscles does lumbosacral plexus supplies?
-> Innervates pelvic wall and gluteal muslces
-> Lumbosacral plexus is formed by spinal nerve roots from lumbar and sacral regions
• L1-L4 (lumbar plexus)
• L4 & L5 (lumbosacral trunk)
• S1-S4 (sacral plexus
Which structure does the sciatic nerve runs through?
-> Sciatic nerve is the largest nerve (L4-S3) - also part of lumbosacral plexus
-> Exit via greater sciatic foramen & muscles (Piriformis)
-> Compression > sciatica
Identify the clinical pathologies
Inferior & superior pubic ramus fracture
Pubic symphysis ‘open book #’
Causes - high impact e.g RTA or osteoporosis in elderly
Complications - distrupt content of the pelvis / urethra, bowel rupture and nerve damage
What are the causes of sacro-iliac joint disease?
Degenerative changes may > inflammation, pain
Causes - sports injury, fall, arthritis, jogging
Inflammation can cause fusion of the normal joint space > ankylosing spondylitis
What does a positive Trendelenburg sign indicative of?
Weakness in hip abductor muscles (gluteus medius and gluteus minimus) which may be due to damage to superior gluteal nerve.
Pelvic drop = when leg lifted, pelvis on unsupported side drops down.
What are the differences between Mallet finger and Jersey finger injuries?
Mallet finger
Extensor tendon injury - can be avulsion of tendon from bone or tendon injury
Jersey finger
Flexor tendon injury
22 yr old footballer, fall onto lateral shoulder. diagnosis?
Acromio-clavicular sprain
Clavicle is intact but withdrawn from acromion.
ROCKWOOD classification
What type of joint is the hip joint and what movements does it enables?
-> Largest joint in the body
-> Ball and socket synovial joint
-> Enables Flex, ext, Abd/Adduction, rotation and circumduction
Which part of the hip bone does the femur articulates with?
-> Hip bone (Aka Innominatum) - formed by fusion of 3 bones forming lateral cup shaped socket = The acetabulum
-> Head of femur articulates with acetabulum > hip joint
Which bones form the obturator foramen?
-> Ilium, ischium and pubis meet to form the acetabulum - these bones are united by tri-radiate cartilage which ossify by 25yr
-> Ischium and pubis unite along the ischiopubic junction forming ishio-pubic ramus
This forms obturator foramen
Identify the features A-I of the femur bone
A - Head of femur (articulates with acetabulum > hip joint)
-> Head is lined with hyaline cartilage except fovea capitis.
B - Greater trochanter
C - Neck of femur
D - lesser trochanter
E - Shaft
F - medial epicondyle
G -
H - lateral epicondyle
-> Fovea capitis (shallow pit on the centre of the head) - attachment site of ligamentum teres of femur
-> Joint capsule run along the intertrochanteric line and crest
Which type of bone is the neck of femur composed of?
-> The neck holds femur away from the pelvis
-> Formed by cancellous bone, reinforced wtih cortical bone inferiorly.
-> Normally at an angle of ~125 degree - this allows the force on head & neck to be evenly distributed.
What are coxa vara and coxa valga?
The angle of femur inclination is usually ~125 degree
Coxa vara
-> angle of inclination is less than 125
-> LL shortens, reduces the load on femoral head but increases load on neck. Can lead to knocking knee syndrome
Coxa valga
-> Angle of inclination is greater than 125 degree
-> LL lengthens, increase load on head and less on neck
Name the 2 protrusions on the femur shaft and the muscles attached to them
Greater trochanter:
Superior to the shaft - Medially it is grooved, and possesses a trochanteric fossa
Site of attachment for: gluteus minimis, gluteus medius, obturator externus (to trochanteric fossa), obturator internus, gemelli muscles, and piriformis
Lesser trochanter
More inferior and on the medial side of the shaft
Site of attachment for psoas major and iliacus muscles
-> Anteriorly, the two trochanters are joined by a ridge known as the intertrochanteric line. It extends inferiorly as pectineal line
-> Posteriorly, the two trochanters are joined by a more prominent intertrochanteric crest.
-> Gluteal tuberosity lies posteriorly - attachment site for gluteus maximus
-> Pectineal line + gluteal tuberosity join to form a ridge posteriorly called linea aspera
Describe the articular surfaces of the hip joint
2 bony surfaces articulates - medially the cup shaped acetabulum of hip bone (socket), laterally the head of femur (ball)
Acetabulum is the region where ilium, ischium & pubis fuse, joined by triradiate cartilage which ossify at age 20-25.
acetabular cup is further deepend by acetabular labrum (cartilaginous rim)
Describe the articulatory and non-articulatory surfaces of the acetabulum
-> The surface of the acetabulum is split into:
Articular (lunate) surface
Smooth, thickened region lies peripherally and lined by hyaline cartilage - this articulates with head of femur.
Non-articular surface
central rough region known as acetabular fossa (tendon of the femur attaches here).
Not covered on hyaline cartilage and does not articulate with femur. Ends inferiorly at the acetabular notch (blood vessels and nerve pass through here).
The acetabular fossa is covered by pad of fat which is covered by synovial membrane.
Name the ligament that occupies the acetabular notch
Acetabular notch is the C-dends of the lunate surface
Occupied by transverse acetabular ligament
a strong, load bearing ligament
Ligamentum teres originate from the inferior margins of the acetabular notch and passes to the fovea capitis on the femoral head = stablises the joint
Name the 4 main groups of extracapsular ligaments that contribute to the stability of the hip joint
The ligaments are outside the joint capsule & stablise the joint
Iliofemoral ligament
Ischiofemoral ligament
Pubofemoral ligament
Transverse acetabular ligament
Present at acetabular notch
What are the attachments and function of the iliofemoral ligament ?
-> Thickest and strongest inverted Y shaped ligament
-> Attaches proximally to anterior inferior iliac spine + acetabular rim and distally to intertrochanteric line of femur
-> function: prevents over extenstion and adduction of the hip during standing
Name the attachments of the pubofemoral ligament
-> arises from pubic part of acetabular rim > blends with medial part of iliofemoral ligament > attach distally to intertrochanteric line of femur
-> Strengthens anterior / inferior fibrous capsule part of hip joint
-> Prevents over abduction of thigh
Which ligament supports the posterior aspect of hip joint?
-> Ischiofemoral ligament
-> Thinnest and weakest > posterior dislocation of the joint
-> Arise from ischial part of acetabular rim > spirals & inserts to greater tronchanter
-> limits flexion of the hip
Name the ligament of head of femur (intracapsular ligament)
Only one ligament of the femoral headl:
Known as ligamentum capitis femoris / ligamentum teres
Widest part attaches to acetabular notch & transverse acetabular ligament
Narrowest end attaches to fovea of the head of femur
Contains branch of obturatory artery (major blood supply to head of femur in children)
What are the arterial blood supply to the hip joint ?
External iliac artery > deep femoral artery > medial and lateral circumflex arteries (anteriorly) (most important)
-> The lateral Cx artery branches to supply head of femur
Internal iliac artery > superior and inferior gluteal arteries (posteriorly)
Obturator artery branch- pass within ligamentum terest and enters head of femur via small foramina in the fovea.
-> this supply is only relevant till age 7
Femoral nutrient arteries - enters head via diaphysis
What are the 3 main causes of avascular necrosis?
Hip dislocation - occurs posteriorly due to weak ishchio-femoral ligament
Intracapsular # of head of femur - common in elderly + osteoporotic & post menopausal population > damage to cx artery supply to femoral head
Congenital slipped epiphysis
Which 3 nerves supplies the hip joint?
Occurs via the branches of:
Femoral nerve (L2-L4) - lumbar plexus
Sciatic nerve (L4-S3) - sacral plexus
Obturator nerve (L2-L4) - lumbar plexus
Name the hip flexion muscles
Ilio-psoas (iliacus + psoas major)
Rectus femoris
Sartorius
Pectineus
Extensor muscles are inhibited during flexion
Name the hip extensor muscles
Gluteus maximus
The hamstrings - semimembanosus, semitendinosus and long head of biceps femoris
What are the deep and superficial adductor muscles of the hip?
Deep muscles - Adductor brevis, adductor magnus and obturator externus
Superficial - Adductor longus, pectineus and gracilis
What are the vertebral levels of - cord, conus medullaris and cauda equina?
Cord - C1 to T12
Conus medullaris (tapered end of spinal cord) - T12 to L1
Cauda Equina - L2 to sacrum
Name the functions of - spinothalamic, corticospinal and dorsa columns of the spine
Spinothalamic - pain and temprature
Corticospinal - motor
Dorsal colimn - light touch, proprioception and vibration
What is a dermatome?
Areas of the skin that are supplied by specific nerve - this helps to find out which nerve root is being compressed in an injury by identifying where the pain lies on the body
Define the terms - Radiculopathy, myelopathy, quadriplegia, paraplegia and paraparesis
Radiculopathy - Injury to nerve root
Myelopathy - Injury to the spinal cord itself
Quadriplegia - Loss of function in upper and lower limbs
Paraplegia - Loss in function of lower limbs
Paraparesis - Weakness in legs due to compression of nerve root or spinal cord
What symptoms / complications would patient have if the develop compression at:
above C4, C5, C5-T1, T1 - L1, L2 to L5 and L5 below
Above C4 - Loss of ventilation
C5 - Quadriplegia
C5-T1 - Decreasing arm function
T1-L1 - Paraplegia
L2-L5 - Decreasing leg function
L5 and below - impaired sphincter and sexual function. May also lead to foot and ankle weakness
What is the initial assessement of the suspected spinal trauma as per ATLS protocol?
Assess airways
Assess cervical spine control
Assess breathing
Assess circulation - This is so we can differentiate between hypovolaemic and neurogenic shock
What Xray views are preferred when analysing spinal cord injury?
Coronal and sagittal view and anaylse using ABCD:
A – Adequacy and alignment
B – Bony abnormality
C – Contours and cartilage
D – Disc spaces
What is Deni’s column principle of stability?
Denis’ 3 Column principle of stability divides the vertebral column into 3 parallel columns: an anterior, middle and posterior column. It states that disruption to at least 2 of these columns causes instability.
What are the 4 main mechanism through which spinal injury occurs?
Wedge compression
Flexion distraction
Burst fracture
fracture dislocation
Which verterbral feature is affected in wedge compression fracture?
-> Anterior column disruption = front from vertebral body collapses due to crushing, back remains intact
-> Usually stable > but can be unstable and lead to 50% loss of height and 30 degree kyphosis
How does flexion distraction type of spinal injury managed?
-> Its an unstable injury caused by distractive forces (seatbelt #) > failure of both posterior and middle columns
-> Can lead to facet joint dislocation
-> Requires reduction and surgical fusion to fix
Which vertebral columns are involved in burst fracture?
unstable injury > vertebral body crushed in all direction > failure of anterior and middle columns
Need to Ax posterior ligamentous complex and requires surgery
What is the most unstable spinal injury?
-> Fracture dislocation - occurs due to translational displacement of vertebrae
-> leads to rotation or shearing of spinal cord
-> all column fails > paralysis and requires surgical stabilisation
Name the primary and secondary injuries of the spine
Primary —> Contusion, compression, traction, shear
Secondary —> hypotension, hypoxia, oedema, ischaemia
Describe hypovolaemic vs neurogenic shock
Hypovolaemic shock occurs due to excessive blood loss (20% or more)
Neurogenic shock occurs due to disruption to the sympathetic nervous system as a result of spinal cord injury. This leads to hypotension, hypothermia and bradycardia due to unopposed vagal activity (causing vasodilation). It requires treatment by vasopressors.
What are the two main articulations of the femur?
The hip joint and the knee joint.
longest bone, has anterior, medial and lateral surfaces
What structure connects the greater and lesser trochanters anteriorly and posteriorly ?
-> Proximal end of femur has 2 tronchaters - greater & lesser
-> Joined anteriorly by Intertrochanteric line
-> Joined posteriorly by intertronchanteric crest
Proximal femur is the area of attachment for muscles which abduct, rotate and flex the hip
What depression on the head of the femur provides attachment for the ligament of the head of the femur?
Fovea.
Head of femur articulates with acetabulum of hip bone > hip joint.
What is the name of the prominent ridge located on the posterior surface of the femoral shaft?
Linea aspera.
Femoral shaft has anterior, medial and lateral surface
Linea aspera diverges up > pectineal line & gluteal tuberosity. Diverges down > lateral & medial supracondylar line. Muscles attach along these line
What structures separate the medial and lateral femoral condyles posteriorly?
Intercondylar fossa.
Distal femur has lateral and medial condyles of femur - articular surfaces at the knee. These are seperated by intercondylar fossa
Patella sits anterior to the patellar surface of femur
What type of synovial joint is the knee joint classified as?
Modified hinge synovial joint.
It has the following main functions:
Weight bearing: the flattened surfaces of the femoral condyles articulate with the tibia in full extension
Movements of the leg: the curved surfaces of the femoral condyles articulate with the tibia in flexion
Which three bones form the knee joint?
Femur, tibia and patella.
Joint stability & movement is enabled by other structures - Hylaline articular cartilage, menisci, fat pad, bursae, synovial membrane, fibrous capsule, ligaments & tendons.
What is the name of the large anterior prominence of the proximal tibia where the patellar ligament attaches?
Tibial tuberosity.
Tibia is the medial & larger of the 2 bones in LL. Its the only one that articulate with femur at the knee joint
Triangular bone, has medial / lateral / posterior surfaces
Proximal end has medial and lateral condyles
Intercondylar region is found between these condyles - site of attachment for cruciate ligament & menisci
Articular surface of these condyles + intercondylar eminence forms tibial plateu - articulates with distal femur
Tibial tuberosity lies anteriorly
What type of bone is the patella?
Sesamoid bone - formed within the tendon of quadriceps femoris muscle. It has:
-> Apex - points inferiorly for attachment to the patellar ligament which connects the patella to the tibia
-> Base - attachment of quadriceps tendon.
-> Lateral & medial facets - articulates with lateral & medial condyles of femur.
Function - Protects knee joint
What are the two menisci found in the knee joint?
Medial meniscus and lateral meniscus.
Menisci are fibrocartilaginous C-shaped structures located on tibial plateau on lateral & medial condyle of tibia
Attached to eachother by transverse ligament of knee. Also attached to intercondylar eminence
Function: Improve congruency between femoral condyles and tibial plateau and Shock absorption
Which meniscus is more commonly injured and why?
Medial meniscus, because it is attached to the medial collateral ligament and joint capsule, making it less mobile.
Name the collateral ligments of the knee and their function
2 Collateral ligaments:
Medial (tibial) collateral ligament – runs from the medial femoral epicondyle to the proximal tibia. It is also attached to the medial meniscus and acts to prevent knee abduction
Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament – runs from the lateral femoral epicondyle to the proximal fibula. It acts to prevent knee adduction.
Function:
Stablinise knee joint medially & laterally, tensed during extension and relaxed during flexion
Which ligaments prevents anterior and posterior displacement of the tibia? (also prevents rotationo of the knee)
2 Cruciate (“cross”) ligaments: connects femur & tibia
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) prevents anterior displacement. Attach from lateral femoral condyle > inferiorly & medialy > anterior tibia.
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) prevents posterior displacement. Attach from medial femoral condyle > inferiorly & laterally > posterior tibia
What is bursitis?
The synovial membrane of the knee joint attaches to margin of the articular surfaces & the menisci.
-> Cruciate ligaments are outside synovial cavity
-> Synovial cavity is continuous with suprapatellar bursa anteriorly
The bursa > reduce friction between musles/tendons, bone, ligament, patella and skin.
Strain & overuse > inflammation of the bursa in the knee joint > bursitis. (prepatellar & pes anserinus bursae commonly affected).
Sx: swelling, tenderness, pain
Identify the knee structures
1 Anterior cruciate ligament
3 Apex of head of fibula
4 Biceps femoris tendon
5 Capsule of superior tibiofibular joint
6 Fibular (lateral) collateral ligament
7 Lateral condyle of femur
8 Lateral condyle of tibia
9 Lateral meniscus
10 Medial condyle of femur
11 Medial condyle of tibia
12 Medial meniscus
13 Popliteus tendon
14 Posterior cruciate ligament
15 Posterior meniscofemoral ligament
What movements are possible by the knee joint?
Flexion and extension
Medial and lateral rotation – This can only occur when the knee is flexed. This is because when it is extended, rotation is prevented by the tension of the collateral ligaments
What muscle unlocks the knee joint during initiation of movement?
Popliteus muscle.
When standing, knee joint locks to reduce energy expenditure by muscles needed to remain standing > stablise the knee joint.
Flat surfaces of femoral condyles contact with tibia, locking the codyles on tibial plateau > femur slightly medially roted when standing.
Popliteus muscle: deep posterior compartment muscle of leg ‘unlockes’ it by lateral rotation of femur when initiating gait.
What are the innervation and blood supply to the knee joint?
According to Hilton’s Law, joints are innervated by nerves that supply the muscles acting on the joint.
Innervation – Genicular nerves which arise from the obturator, femoral, tibial and common fibular nerves.
Arterial Supply – Anastomosis of Genicular arteries which arise from the femoral, popliteal, anterior tibial and circumflex fibular arteries
Venous Drainage – Genicular veins named similarly which drain into the popliteal vein
What injuries does valgus and varus test help to identify?
‘Unhappy triad’ = injuries to medial collateral ligament/meniscus (tear, note these both attach together so injuries affects each other) and ACL rupture.
Medial collateral ligament injury – Occurs due to excessive inwards force to the lateral side of knee (valgus force test)
Lateral collateral ligament injury – Occurs due to excessive outward force to the medial side of knee (varus force test)
Note: Damate to meniscus (tear) occurs due to rotational movements on flexed knee bearing weight. Medial is common
What tests are used when assessing injuries to cruiciate ligaments?
Anterior cuiciate ligament rupure is more common than PCL
Occurs due to rotational movement on flexed knee bearing weight (football) > complete or partial tear.
+ve anterior draw test = ACL rupture —> pulling proximal tibia > anterior movement (ACL usually prevents this). Requires surgical fix
PCL rupture - rarely occurs as it need significant force.
Can occur due to hyperextension of knee or direct blow (car dash) > posterior displacement of tibia.
+ve posterior draw test = PCL rupture > tibial sag!
What are the entry paths of thigh?
-> The thigh has a number of routes of entry including the obturator canal, femoral canal and the greater and lesser sciatic foramina
-> Thigh is covered by investing fascia – fascia lata
-> Divided into anterior, posterior and medial compartments which are separated by intermuscular septae
Name the muscles of anterior compartment of the thigh
-> Act on hip and knee joints
-> Suppied by femoral artery and innervated by femoral nerve
Iliopsoas muscle - made of psoas + iliacus muscle > thigh (hip) flexion
Quadriceps femoris (vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedius & rectus femoris) > knee extension
(Rectus femoris >hip flexion as it crosses hip & knee)
Sartorius - long strap muscle > hip & knee flexion > help cross the legs
What nerve primarily innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the thigh?
Femoral nerve.
What are the four muscles that make up the quadriceps femoris group?
Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius and rectus femoris.
Which quadriceps muscle crosses both the hip and knee joints?
Rectus femoris. > hip flexion & knee extension
What is ilio-tibial band and its innervation ?
-> It is a thick band of fibrous tissue, inserts onto proximal tibia laterally.
-> The tensor fascia lata muscle and ¾ of the gluteus maximus are inserted into this tract and help with stabilising the knee joint. -> Innervated by the superior gluteal nerve and responsible for:
Hip abduction, flexion and medial rotation
Knee flexion
Name the 6 muscles of medial compartment of the thigh
Gracilis, pectineus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus & obturator externus
All, except petineus are innervated by obturator nerve & mainly supplied by obturator artery
All, except obturator externus adduct the thigh
Obturator externus > lateral rotation of thigh at hip
Adductor longus / brevis / magnus > medial rotation of hip
“ Please Let Ben Make (Onion) Gravy” - all are hip adductors except obturator externus
Which nerve innervates the pectineus muscle of the medial thigh compartment ?
Femoral nerve
It adducts and flexes the thigh at hip joint
Which muscle of the medial compartment is the largest and deepest?
Adductor magnus
Contains lateral ‘adductor’ part (innervated by obturator nerve) and medial ‘hamstring’ part (sciatic nerve)
Opening at the distal end = adductor hiatus -> passage of femoral artery & vein to enter popliteal fossa.
What are the three muscles collectively known as the hamstrings (posterior compartment of the thigh)?
Biceps femoris, semitendinosus and semimembranosus.
Posterior compartment of the thigh has 3 long muscles known as hamstrings.
All are supplied by deep femoral artery
All exteds the thigh at hip & flex the knee
Biceps femoris > lateral rotation at hip & knee
Other 2 > medial rotation at hip & knee
What nerve innervates the hamstring muscles?
Sciatic nerve.
What is the primary action of the hamstrings at the knee joint?
Flexion of the leg at the knee joint.
they also extend the thigh at hip joint
Name the three muscles that form the pes anserinus.
Tendons of Sartorius, gracilis and semitendinosus muscles
Pes anserinus (“goose’s foot) - 3 muscles with common area of insertion below the knee
Gracilis is most superficial & medial muscle of medial compartment > adducts thigh at hip & knee flexion
Remember “GSSt” = Gracilis, sartorius, semiTendinosus
Name the borders of femoral triangle
Femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped depression formed by muscles in upper thigh.
Base – inguinal ligament*
Medial border – adductor longus muscle*
Lateral border – sartorius muscle*
Floor – iliopsoas, pectineus and adductor longus muscles
Roof - Layer of deep fascia
Which muscle forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle?
Sartorius muscle.
Which muscle forms the medial border of the femoral triangle?
Adductor longus muscle.
List the main structures within the femoral triangle from lateral to medial.
Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, lymphatics, and femoral canal (site for femoral hernia).
Femoral artery, vein & lymphatics enclosed by femoal sheath, continuous with transversalis fascia.
Through which opening do the femoral vessels pass to enter the popliteal fossa?
Adductor hiatus. - found in the adductor magnus muscle
Name the boundaries of popliteal fossa
Popliteal fossa - diamond-shaped space behind the knee joint formed between muscles in the posterior compartment of the thigh and leg. Its boundaries are as follows:
Superolateral – biceps femoris
Superomedial – semimembranosus and semitendinosus
Inferomedial – medial head of gastrocnemius
Inferolateral – lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris muscle.
Floor – capsule of the knee joint and popliteus
Roof – fascia lata of the thigh and deep fascia of the leg
What are the two nerves located within the popliteal fossa?
Tibial nerve and common fibular nerve.
Also the femoral artery & vein enters the popliteal fossa through adductor hiatus to > Popliteal artery & vein.
Which structures lies superficial to the popliteal fossa?
Superficial to this fossa lie deep fascia, the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh and the small saphenous vein.
What is the name of the fascia covering the thigh?
Fascia lata.
What is the name of the canal that connects the femoral triangle to the popliteal fossa
Adductor canal.
Describe the features of the bones of the leg
Leg is between knee and angle joint. Has 2 bones:
-> Tibia
Triangular shape, medial bone of the leg, weight-bearing
Articulates with knee + ankle joint.
Distally > medial malleolus
-> Fibula
Lateral bone, serves as muscle attachment site
superiorly only articulates with lateral codyle of tibia = proximal tibio-fibular joint (plane synovial joint)
distally > lateral malleolus, Articulates with ankle joint as well as tibia = distal tibio-fibular joint (fibrous joint)
Note: Both have a fibrous interosseous membrane between them
What are the compartments of the leg?
The leg is divided into 3 compartments
Anterior compartment - Muscles in this > dorsiflex the ankle, extend the toes, and invert the foot.
Structures pass through: deep fibular nerve and anterior tibial artery & vein
Lateral compartment - Muscles in this evert the foot.
structures pass through: superficial fibular nerve.
Posterior compartment - Muscles in this compartment plantarflex the ankle, flex the toes, and invert the foot.
structures pass through: tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery & vein.
-> Anterior intermuscular septum separates anterior : lateral
-> Posterior intermuscular septum separates lateral : posterior
-> Transverse intermuscular septum separate deep : superficial posterior compartment
Name the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg
-> All muscles are innervated by deep fibular nerve, supplied by anterior tibial artery (branch of popliteal artery)
Tibialis anterior - dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot
Extensor hallucis longus - extension of great toe and dorsiflexion of foot
Extensor digitorum longus - extension of lateral 4 toes and dorsiflexion of foot
Fibularis tertius - dorsiflexion and weak eversion of foot
What are the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg?
-> 2 muscles, innervated by superficial fibular nerve
Fibularis longus - eversion & planter flexion
Fibularis brevis - eversion
Lateral & fibular retinaculum keeps these muscles intact
What are the muscles of posterior compartement of the leg?
Divided into deep & superfical group, seperated by layer of deep faccia. All are innervated by postrior tibial nerve
-> Superficial group (x3) (planter flexion)
Gastrocnemius, plantaris (both also does knee flexion) and soleus
All inserts onto heel (calcaneus) via achilles tendon
-> Deep group (x4)
Popliteus - mainly act on knee to laterally rotate the femur to ‘unlock’
Flexor hallucis longus - flexion of great toe
Flexor digitorum longus - flexion of lateral toes
Tibialis posterior - inversion & planter flexion
What are the neurovascular supply of the legs?
Anterior compartment - Deep fibular nerve, anterior tibial artery
Lateral compartment - superficial fibular nerve, perforating branches of fibular artery
Posterior compartment - tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery & fibular artery
What is the location of the tarsal tunnel and name the structures that pass through the tunnel?
Located on the postero-medial side of the ankle
Passage for structures from posterior compartment > foot:
posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial nerve, tendons of Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus & flexor hallucis longus
Name the bones of the foot
Can be divided into ankle (tarsal), metatarsal and digits
-> Tarsal bones: 7 bones form the ankle
Proximal - Talus, Calcaneus, joined by subtalar joint (plane synovial joint). Middle: Navicular
Distal (L>M) - Cuboid, lateral , intermediate and medial cuneiform
-> Metatarsals
5 bones
-> Phalanges
Similar to hand, each toe has 3 phalanges except great toe which has 2. Joined by synovial joints
What type of joint is the ankle joint?
-> Ankle joint (Talocrural joint) - synovial hinge joint
-> Involves talus, tibia & fibula. The borders are:
Medial: medial maleolus of tibia
Lateral: lateral maleolus if fibula
Roof: inferior surface of distal tibia
-> articular surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage
-> Movements: Dorsiflexion, planterflexion
Which joints are involved in Eversion and inversion of the foot?
Subtalar joint - between talus and calcaneus
Talonavicular joint
Calcaenocuboid joint
What are the main ligaments of the ankle joint?
-> 2 main ligaments are lateral and medial collateral ligaments
Medial (deltoid ligament) - Attached to medial malleolus.
Divided into: tibionavicular, tibiocalcaneal, posterior tibiotalar and anterior tibiotalar parts.
Lateral (3 ligaments) - anterior and posterior talofibular ligaments, and calcaneofibular ligament.
what are the 2 types of arches of foot and their purpose?
-> Bones of the foot form arches to help absorb shock, distribute downwards forced from the body when moving and standing and protects vessels & nerves. Types of arches:
Longitudinal arch - formed between the posterior end of the calcaneus and the heads of the metatarsals.
Consists of a higher medial part and lower lateral part
Transverse arch - It is highest in a coronal plane through the head of the talus. But it disappears near the metatarsals, where the bones are held together by deep transverse metatarsal ligaments
Name the ligaments and muscles that support the arches of the foot
Ligaments: Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring ligament), plantar calcaneocuboid (short plantar ligament), long plantar ligaments and plantar aponeurosis.
Muscles: tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior and the fibularis longus provide dynamic support for the arches during walking.
Which ligament of the foot is commonly injured in ankle sprain?
Ankle sprain = mostly inversion injury > torn ligaments
Involves twisting of weight-bearing planterflexed foot
Damage to lateral collateral ligament of ankle - commonly anterior talofibular ligament
Rx: RICE (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation) and MEAT (movement, exercise, analgesia, treatment)
-> Eversion injury is less common due to strong detoid ligament
What is the clinical term for lateral deviation of the great toe?
Hallux VaLgus (L=lateral)
Medial deviation of 1st Metatarsal > reduces the medial longitudinal arch of the foot
Can occur due to improper footwear
Rx: surgical correction
What is clubfoot?
Foot twisted > inverted, planterflexed and forefoot adducted
Congenital deformity involving subtalar joint
Sx: unable to put heel & sole flat > bear wright on lateral surface of forefoot
Corrected by casting, bracing & surgery
Name the dermatomes that are relavent to movements at the ankle and foot
Dorsiflexion -> L4, L5
Planterflexion -> S1, S2
Eversion -> L5, S1
Inversion -> L4, L5
Damage to which nerve causes foot drop?
Common fibular nerve (common peroneal nerve)
Located superficially > prone to direct trauma
Damage > flaccid paralysis of all muscles in the anterior & lateral compartments of leg > loss of dorsiflexion > high stepping gait to prevent toe from dragging the floor
Loss of dorsiflexion > foot drop
Also lead to loss of sensaiton over the lateral leg & dorsum of the foot
Learn the brachial plexus
Roots > trunks > division > cords > terminal branches
Each terminal branches of brachial plexus is responsible for sensory innervation of different areas of the upper limb.
Which nerve supplies sensory innervation to the skin on the upper lateral part of the arm?
Axillary nerve C5, C6.
Which nerve supplies sensation to the posterior arm and forearm, lower lateralnsurface and the dorsal lateral hand?
Radial nerve C5-C8, T1
Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the lateral side of the forearm?
Musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C7).
Which nerve supplies sensation to the medial one and a half digits of the hand?
Ulnar nerve.
innervates skin over the palmar + dorsal surface of medial 1 1/2 digits, associated palm and wrist.
Which nerve supplies sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand?
Median nerve.
supplies the palmar surface of lateral 3 1/2 digits, lateral side of pal and midde of wrist
Define myotomes
Portion of skeletal muscle innervated by single spinal cord level
e.g Abduction of arm C5, Add/abduction of fingers T1
What scale is commonly used to grade muscle strength in neurological examinations?
Medical Research Council (MRC) scale.
Which nerve innervates the flexor compartment of the arm (Motor) ?
Musculocutaneous nerve C5-C7
Function: motor to all the muscles in the anterior compartment of arm and sensory to skin on lateral side of formarm
Origin: lateral cord
Test if affected- flexion of the arm and supination
Which nerve innervates the extensor compartments of the arm and forearm?
Radial nerve C5-T1
-> Origin: posterior cord
-> function:
Motor - all muslces in posterior compartment of arm & forarm
Sensory - skin on posterior arm & forarm, lower lateral surface of arm and hand
Which nerve innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles?
Axillary nerve C5-C6
Origin: posterior cord
Function: Motor to deltoid, teres minor and sensory to skin over upper lateraal part of arm
Deltoid allows abduction of arm beyond ?15 degree (supraspinatous does the initial lifting)
What other nerve may be damaged if C5 nerve root is damaged?
Phrenic nerve
Which area / muscles of the UL does ulnar nerve supplies?
Ulnar nerve (C8-T1)
origin: medial cord
Motor: innervates all intrinsic muscles of the hand (except thenar and 2 lateral lumbricals) and some muscles of the flexor compartment of the forearm (felxor carpi ulnaris and medial half of flexor digitorum profundus).
sensory: skin over palmar surface of medial 1 1/2 digits, palm & wrist side
Test: add/abduction of fingers
Which area / muscles of the UL does medial nerve supplies?
Origin: Medial and lateral cords
Motor: innervates all muscles in anterior flexor compartments of forearm (except flexor carpi ulnaris & medial half of flexor digitorum profundus), 3 thenar muslces of the thumb and 2 lateral lumbrical muscles.
Sensory: skin over the palmar surface of lateral 3 1/2 digits, lateral side of palm and middle of wrist
Sx can vary depends on where the damage is
What term describes damage to a single peripheral nerve?
Mononeuropathy.
Resulting in loss of movement, sensation and function of the nerve.
Tend to be compression, entrapment or irritation of the nerve
e.g saturday night palsy, carpal tunnel, common fibular nerve compression.
What is the term for radial nerve compression caused by sleeping with the arm over a chair?
Saturday night palsy.
compression of radial nerve against the humeral shaft in the proximal arm - due to falling asleep with arm draped over a chair > wrist drop
Which nerve may become entrapped behind the head of the fibula?
Common fibular nerve.
when sitting leg crossed for long time
Which nerve is commonly entrapped in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Get entrapped in carpal tunnel > compression / irritation
Which part of the brachial plexus is injured in this child?
Erb’s palsy > waiter’s tip posture
C5 & C6 roots damaged (upper brachial plexus injury)
Sx - Arm adducted & internally rotated, forearm is extended and pronated (damage to musculocutaneous nerve), wrist flexed and fingers are flexed.
How to differentiate between axially nerve and C5 nerve root damage?
Axillary nerve damage —> involves axillary nerve itself (its part of posterior cord of brachial plexus). Provides motor innervation to teres minor and deltoid muscles.
Trauma / compression / traction injuries > weakness and loss of sensation over upper lateral arm
C5 nerve damage —> Involves C5 nerve root (part of anterior cord of brachial plexus). Provides motor innervation to supraspinatus muscle.
Injury > weakness and loss of sensation along medial aspect of forearm and hypothenar eminence.
What is the name of the palsy caused by C8 & T1 root damage?
Klumpke paralysis
Lower roots of the brachial plexus injury > weakness or paralysis in muscles of forearm and hand > “claw hand”
Loss of sensation in C8, T1 dermatome distribution - medial forearm & inner upper arm
The classic presentation is a claw hand, where the forearm is supinated, the wrist extended, and the fingers flexed.
-> Kulmpke vs ulnar = Klumpke is lower plexus injury (C8,T1) affecting ALL small hand muslces + forearm flexors +/- Horner’s sings. Ulnar (only one nerve) affecting lateral little fingers, no forarm issue, no Horner’s signs
What are the mechanism / risk factors of entrapment neuropathies?
Ischaemia - compromise blood-nerve interface with oedema formation
Fibrosis - extraneural fibrotic changes > reduced gliding of the compressed nerve
Neuroinflammation - Can be found in associated dorsal root ganglia
What term describes compression of a spinal nerve root?
Radiculopathy.
Common cause of root compression
Can be due to cervical or lumbar disc protrusion > compression of roots in cervical, brachial or lumbosacral plexus. (slipped disc)
At what vertebral level would a C6 nerve root typically be compressed by a disc protrusion?
C5/C6 intervertebral disc level.
Cervical roots emerge above their corresponding verterbrae in close proximity to disc.
Note there are 8 cervical nerve roots but only 7 cervical vertebrae.
Other roots emerge below thier corresponding vertebrae
An area of skin supplied by a single spinal cord level.
What elements does a physical neurological examination involves?
Nerological bedside exam - checking sensory (reflex responses) and Motor (muscle strength) ?location of nerve lesion
Neurosensory testing - In context of both dermatomal & peripheral nerve distributions e.g vibration, monofilament, pin, proprioception, thermal
Neurodynamic testing - mechanically delivering stimulus e.g. nerve stretch
What bedside test is commonly used to assess diabetic neuropathy?
Monofilament test.
Which branch of the median nerve does not pass through the carpal tunnel?
Palmar cutaneous branch.
Recurrent, lateral and medial branches all pass through carpal tunnel, along with 4 FDP + 4 FDS + 1FDL tendons.
LOAF =
lateral & medial branch motor innervates lateral 2 lumbricals
Recurrent branch motor innervates opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollcis brevis
Name two intrinsic hand muscles supplied by the median nerve.
Opponens pollicis and abductor pollicis brevis.
What provocative test involves flexing the wrist to reproduce symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Phalen’s test = wrist flexion (inverted prayer sign)
Carpal tunnel > can be compressed due to repetitite motions > compress median nerve > pins & needles, weakness of thenar muscles.
Exam: thenar atrophy, weak thumb abduction & opposition, paper grip by medial digits
What test involves tapping over the median nerve to produce paraesthesia?
Tinel’s sign.
What diagnostic investigation is considered the gold standard for nerve entrapment (carpal tunnel) ?
Electromyography (EMG) - gold standard nerve conduction study
Other - USS or MRI —> ?swelling of median nerve or bowing of flexor retinaculum indicating an increase pressure
What is the first-line treatment approach for most entrapment neuropathies (e.g. Carpal tunnel)?
Non-invasive (conservative) management.
activity modification, night splints to keep wrist in neutral extension, decrease pressure with NSAIDs
Single corticosteroid injection
What is the purpose of wrist splints in carpal tunnel syndrome?
To keep the wrist in a neutral position and reduce pressure in the carpal tunnel.
What surgical procedure is used to treat severe carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel decompression surgery.
– In this procedure, an incision is made in line with the ulnar (medial) border of the tip of the flexed ring finger. It is important to dissect bluntly and carefully around the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve, which lies superficial to the flexor retinaculum.
What test can be used to test damage to femoral nerve?
Knee extension
Obturator nerve: L2, 3, 4
Femoral nerve: L2, 3, 4
Sciatic nerve: L4, 5, S1, 2, 3
Summarise the imaging modalities
X-ray beam penetrates structures > varying absorption by tissues > Bone = dense (white), soft tissue = less dense (grey), air = radiolucent (black). Ix bony injuries
CT
Xray beam rotate around body > cross sectional image. Used to Ix bony injuries
MRI (Non-ionising)
detects change in direction of rotational axis of protons in water > produce images in axial/sagittal/coronal planes. Used to Ix soft tissue injuries
USS (non-ionising)
High frequency sound waves interacts with soft tissue > generates characteristic appearances (acoustic impedance). Used to Ix structural integrity, had doppler function
Common joint pathologies
What are the defining characteristics of synovial joints?
Articular surfaces lined by hyaline cartilage
A joint cavity lined by a synovial membrane
Joint cavity is filled with a viscous synovial fluid for lubrication, shock absorption, nutrient distribution
What are the accessory structures of the synovial joints?
Surrounded by fibrous capsule which is reinforced externally or internally by fibrous ligaments
Bursae - fluid-filled sacs that facilitate smooth movement between articulating structures
Muscles acting over the joint move it to normal range
Tendons anchor muscles to the bone
Tendons, muscles, ligaments provides stability
Menisci - Fibrocartilaginous disks present in the knee joint; improve congruence and act as shock absorbers
What are the risk factors and route of entry to cause infection in septic arthritis?
Septic arthritis is inflammation of a joint caused by infection (baterial). Commonly S. aureus, mostly affects knee.
-> Risk factors:
Common in children & elderly, breach of skin barrier (wound), immunosuppression, joint replacement & underlying inflammatory arthritis
-> Roue of entry:
Haematogenous route (via blood stream), Direct route (wound or a needle injection to joint), through infection of skin or surrounding tissues or from a bone infection.
-> Symptoms:
Fever, joint pain, swelling, redness, warmth, reduced joint movement
-> Investigation:
FBC, joint aspiration (crystals -ve in SA, G+ve cocci, culture grows bacteria)
-> Treatment: - joint aspiration / drain, IV abx
What are the pathological consequences of septic arthritis?
If the infection is left untreated, consequences include:
Joint destruction
Osteomyelitis – Infection of surrounding bone.
Sinus – Draining to the skin surface.
Sepsis – Spread of bacteria into bloodstream.
Excess bone formation leading to fusion of joint and loss of function
What are the primary and secondary causes of Gout?
Crystal-induced arthritis is inflammation of a joint due to the deposition of uric acid crystals into the joint. Most commonly, it affects the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint (big toe).
-> Primary gout
Idiopathic cause of kidney impairment > impaired uric acid excretion. More likely in those with family history
-> Secondary gout
Increased production of uric acid due to - high alcohol consumption, diet purine intake, leukaemia Rx > high uric acid turnover of cells.
Impaired excretion - due to kidney disease or diuretics
Joint inflammation (asymmetrical, monoarticular in acute gout & polyarticular in chronic gout), erythema, joint stiffness, extreme pain, tophi = subcut uric acid deposits > visible hard bumps in the skin.
Name the pathological changes that occurs in gout
Cartilage degeneration and Bone erosion
Secondary degenerative change in joint (osteoarthritis).
Synovial hyperplasia – synovial membrane thickening due to increased number of cells.
Investigation:
FBC, synovial fluid under polarised light (shw long needle shaped crystals), Gram -ve (no bacteria), elevated serum uric acid level.
Treatment:
NSAIDs, corticosteroids, colchicine to reduce inflammation.
To reduce serum uric acid levels - loose weight, reduce alcohol, stop diuretics and avoid purine rich food.
Describe the pathophysiology of OA
-> OA - degenerative disease associated with imbalance between destruction & repair of joint tissue. Commonly affects hands, knees & hips. > in older age
Excess degeneration of ECM of articular cartilage in joint > progressive loss of articular cartilage (fibrillation & erosion) and thickening of subchondral bone.
Joint margin hypertrophy > formation of osteophytes > lead to tendonitis
Joint capsule and synovial membrane hypertrophy (synovial metaplasia)
Pseudocyst formation (fluid-filled sacs under the cartilage covering the bone)
What are the clinical presentation of OA?
-> OA can be:
Primary - arises without other joint disorder causing it
Secondary - due to other joint disorder such as crystal or rheumatoid arthritis, trauma, congenital joint deformity
Asymmetrical pain in joints (knees, hips, hands, neck)
Pain made worse after activity & relieved by rest.
Intermittent swelling.
Stiffness in the morning, lasts for less than 30 minutes.
Bony enlargement of finger joints.
Crepitus - sensation or noise when moving joint.
What are the radiological features of OA?
Diagnosis can be made by:
Nature of affected joints – Mostly DIPs, PIPs, 1st MCP, spinal facet joints, hips, knees, and 1st MTP joints.
X-Ray – shows joint space narrowing due to loss of cartilage, osteophytes, subchondral bone sclerosis (thickening), marginal osteophyte formation & bone cysts.
Bloods - Normal inflammatory markers, -Ve rheumatoid factor, normal FBC
What does features of the joints are seen in RA?
RA - auto-immune, chronic, symmetrical inflammatory (polyarthritis) joint disease.
-> Incident:
Female > male, age 35-35, associated with other inflammatory conditions.
-> Clinical presentation:
Symmetrical joint inflammation - Involvement of small joints of the hand & feet + medium and large joints.
If untreated > ulnar deviation of MCP joints, swan neck deformity (hyperextension of PIP joints), or Boutonniere deformity (hyperflexion of PIP joint).
-> Ix and Rx:
Clinical features, +ve rheumatoid factor (70%)
Rx - NSAIDS, corticosteroids & other anti-inflammatories
What pathological changes are seen in RA?
Synovial hyperplasia – thickening of the synovial membrane
Inflammatory infiltration into joint tissue – leads to formation of a pannus (extra growth)
Invasion and destruction of articular cartilage
Joint space narrowing
Bone erosion
Osteopenia – reduced bone density
Nerves and vessels of LL
What are the bifurcation of the descending aorta?
Descending aorta commences at the end of the aortic arch > down into abdomen
Two parts: Thoracic & abdominal aorta
Ends by bifurcating into left & right common iliac arteries
What is the anatomical landmarck of where the thoracic aorta starts and ends?
-> Starts at sternal angle of Louis (thoracic plane)
-> Ends at aortic hiatus of diaphragm (T12)
-> Supplies blood to chest wall muscles & spinal cord
-> Continues as AA
What are the 3 phases (Segments) of abdominal aorta?
-> AA starts at T12 and ends at L4 > common iliac arteries
-> 3 Phases = Suprarenal, renal and infrarenal segment
Name the arterial tree of lower limb
Descending aorta > Common iliac artery > external (internal) iliac artery > femoral artery (profunda femoris) > popliteal artery > tibial (posterior & anterior) arteries > dorsalis pedis & posterior tibial artery
Femoral artery - begins at lower border of inguinal ligament > pass mid inguinal ligament point (femoral pulse palpable) > ends at apex of femoral triangle > enters adductor canal > popliteal artery .
Internal iliac artery > inferior and superior glutea arteries + obturator artery (supplies medial thing compartment)
CIA + EIA + IIA supplies pelvis, the rest supplies LL
What is the significance of the adductor hiatus?
Apex of the femoral triangle is the opening in the adductor Magnus - this is the adductor canal.
Femoral artery enters the adductor canal and bocomes popliteal artery at the end of the adductor canal - the end of the canal is known as adductor hiatus.
The popliteal artery then enters diamond-shaped popliteal fossa (gives off branches of geniculate arteries to supply knee joint)
Popliteal artery ends at lower border of popliteus muscle > bifurcates to anterior & posterior tibial artery
Where can you palpate anterior tibial artery?
-> Palpated at level known as dorsalis pedis (supplies the foot)
-> Above the navicular bone or medial to tendon of the extensor hallucis longus
-> The posterior tibial artery pulse can be palpated posterior and slightly inferior to the medial malleolus. (supplies posterior compartment of the leg)
What adaptation does the LL venous system have to move blood to the heart?
LL veins move bloods towards heart against gravity
One-way valves present in the veins prevent the backflow of blood, and can split the veins into segments
The muscles compress the veins as they have thin walls > lumen collapses > movement of blood up from one segment to next = ‘musculo-venous pump’
Name the 3 sets of veins in LL
Deep veins - follow similar naming to the arterial tree.
Superficial veins
Small saphenous vein - drains into popliteal vein
Great saphenous vein - drains into femoral vein, can be accessed at medial edge of patella or front of medial malleolus
Perforating veins - allow blood to flow from superficial veins to deep veins.
What is the major division of the nerve supply to the LL ?
-> LL is supplied from lumbar and sacral spinal segments (L1-S4) L1,2,3,4,5, S1,2,3,4)
-> Organised into 2 main nerve networks
Lumbar plexus - Anterior rami of L1-L3 and half of L4
Sacral plexus - Anterior rami of remaining half L4-S4
-> Only nerves originating from L1 to S3 enters the LL
-> S4-S5 innervates perineum
-> Connection between lumbar & sacral plexus is via lumbosacral trunk (L4 & L5).
Remeber: mixes segmental nerve = mixed nerve (dorsal (sensory) + ventral root (motor) > spinal nerve.
Name the main nerves of lumbar and sacral plexus
Lumbar - Femoral nerve (L2-L4) & obturator nerve (L2-L4)
Sacral - Sciatic nerve (L4-S3)
Which areas of the lower limb are supplied by obturator nerve?
Obturator nerve (L2-4) - from lumbar plexus > emerge medial to psoas muscle > obturator canal > medial compartment of the thigh.
Split into anterior and posterior branches
Sensory innervation : hip, knee & medial skin of thigh
Supplies muscles of medial compartment = adductors
Adductor longus, brevis, magnus, gracilis and obturator externus. (doesnt supply pectineus - by femoral nerve does)
Which areas of the lower limb are supplied by Femoral nerve?
Femoral nerve (L2-L4), lumbar plexus > lateral to psoas major > anterior compartment of thigh > cutaneous, articular & muscular branches.
Sensory: anterior skin of thigh + medial surface of leg (cutaneous branch) and hip +knee joint (articular branch)
Motor: anterior compartment muscles of thigh
sartorius, quadricep femoris (vastus medialis, lateralis, intermedius & rectus femoris). Also pectineus from medial compartment
Which areas of the lower limb are supplied by Sciatic nerve?
Sacral plexus > sciatic nerve (L4-S3) - biggest nerve in the body
From pelvic cavity > greater sciatic foramen > 2 branches:
Common fibular (peroneal) nerve:
Motor: biceps femoris (posterior thigh) + all muscles of anterior & lateral compartment of leg.
Sensory: skin on antero-lateral surface of leg + dorsal surface of foot
Tibial nerve:
Motor: All muscles of posterior thigh (except bicep femoris), all muscles of posterior compartment of leg + sole of the foot
Sensory: posterior + lateral surfaces of the foot + soles
Which muscle borders does the lumnar plexus emerges?
Lumbar plexus forms behind the psoas major muscle
Emerge either medial or lateral to borders of psoas major
Emerging laterally - Iliohypogastric nerve, ilio-inguinal nerve, femoral nerve (L2- half L4), lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
Emergin medially - Obturator nerve (L2-L4) & lumbosacral trunk (half L4, L5)
What does the sacral plexus composed of?
-> Plexus forms within pelvic cavity - lies in relation to priformis
-> Composed of - anterior rami of S1-S4 spinal nerves, + contribution from the L4 and L5 anterior rami, which descend together as a lumbosacral trunk.
Supplies pelvic, gluteal, perineal region and LL via sciatic nerve
Describe the sensory supply of the LL (dermatome)
Front of the limb supplied by- lumbar segments of the lumbosacral plexus
Back of the limb - sacral segments of the lumbosacral plexus
Saddle & perineal area - sacral segments
What are the axial lines of LL?
-> Line of junction of 2 dermatomes supplied from discontinuous spinal level - reflection of embryological development of LL
-> There are dorsal and ventral axial lines - marks the boundary between the pre-axial and post-axial compartments of LL
-> The boundaries between the compartments are also marked by the great saphenous vein (pre-axial) and small saphenous vein (post-axial).
What is sensory nerve territories of LL?
sensory nerves of lumbar plexus supply the skin in territorial domains known as sensory nerve territories.
Sensory Nerve Territories are Not Dermatomes
Name the pelvic ligaments that help to stabilise it.
2 Anterior ligaments - stabilises pubic symphysis:
Superior & inferior pubic ligament (arcuate ligament)
Relatively weak > pubic symphysis injury is common
3 secondary ligaments - prevents forward tilting of sacrum & keep pelvic ring stable
Sacrotuberous ligament, sacrospinous ligament & iliolumbar ligament
3 posterior ligaments - stablise sacroiliac joint > weight bearing
Anterior, interosseous and posterior sacroliac ligaments
what is the common mechanism of injury to pelvis?
APC - antero-posterior compression = RTA on motorcycle
-> Force applied to anterior pelvic > damage to anterior ligaments > may distrupt the sacro-iliac joint > pevis hinges open
-> Pelvic # -> pelvic haemorrhage
What are the 3 types of hip fracturs?
More common than pelvic #, occurs in elderly with osteoporosis
Intracapsular # - Common, # within the capsule around NOF. Rx by THR due to avascular necrosis
Trochanteric # - between greater & lesser tronchanters.
Rx by internal fixation
Subtrochanteric # - lies 5cm below lesser tronchanter, rare. Rx with intramedullary fix by nailing
What causes shortening of the leg in case of hip fracture?
Characteristic feature of hip # > shortening & external rotation
Shortening occurs due to the actions of muscles that cross the hip joint, particularly the hip abductors, gluteus medius and minimus + the hip flexors, iliacus and psoas major. These muscles pull against the weight of the lower limb, resulting in shortening of the limb
Xray - disruption of Shendon’s line = curve line along inferior border of superior pubic ramus > infero medial border of neck of femur = intracapsular #
What is the potential complication of intracapsular fracture of hip?
Fracture in the capsule around NOF
Femur head receives blood supply from medial & lateral circumflex arteries which are branches of deep femoral artery. These branch out to retinacular arteries > head
Intracapsular # > displacement > damage to retinacular arteries > avascular necrosis > subchondral collapse.
# need repair by internal fixation - hemiarthroplasty or THR
What are the key gait / motor milestones in children
By 12 months - walk
By 3 yrs - Hop
Describe the structured clinical observation of gait
Systematic observational gait assessment:
-> General symmetry and pace
-> Posture - ?upright or hunched
-> Head to toe range of movements
-> Do arms swing naturally?
-> pelvis & hip - is it controlled, flex / extend normally
-> Knee - ?hyperextension / felxion
-> Ankle and foot - ?correct position
What are the locomor unit?
The locomotor unit is made up of 11 joints:
The Lumbar spine
2 hip joints
2 knee joints
2 ankle joints
2 subtalar joints
2 metatarsal-phalangeal joints
What are the 2 main stages of gait cycle?
2 main stages: the Stance Phase and the Swing Phase. These phases are split in a 60:40 ratio in normal walking, but may vary depending on speed.
-> A complete Gait cycle occurs across a single stride, from one heel strike to the next heel strike of the same limb. Therefore one step = half a stride
Initial Contact - the heel first strikes the ground.
Stance Phase - the foot that made the heel strike is flat on the floor.
Swing Phase – The foot that made the heel strike is in the air.
-> During the cycle there are 2 double limn stance = both feet on the floor bearing the body weight.
-> The duration of these stances decrease with speed & omitted in running = only one foot on the ground bearing body weight.
What is the function of the stance and swing phase of the gait?
Stance Phase – absorbs the shock of initial impact, provides stability whilst propelling the body forwards.
Knee flexion contributes the most to shock absorption due to action of quadriceps.
Swing Phase – couples hip flexion, knee flexion and dorsiflexion of the ankle. This allows the limb to clear the ground and achieve a reasonable step length for the body to advance.
What are the 4 Rockers of gait?
Rockers of gait are pivots by which the whole leg rocks over the foot in different stages. This is known as tibial progression.
There are 4 rockers of gait:
The heel rocker
The ankle rocker
The forefoot rocker
The toe rocker
Name the 6 major displacement that help to maintain body’s centre of mass at a constant height above the ground.
Pelvic rotation
Pelvic tilt
Stance knee flexion
Foot and ankle mechanism
Tibiofemoral angle
Pelvic lateral displacement
Describe the springing pendulum theory of human gait
This theory involves pivoting of mass over the stiff stance leg. This is facilitated by the following factors:
Passive movement of the swing leg
Propulsion of the ankle pushing off the swing leg
Rotation of hips in an axial plane to increase stride length
Tilting of the hips in a coronal plane to improve balance during stance
Name the muscle that operating during stance and wing phases at the pelvis, hip, knee and ankle.
Stance Phase
Pelvis (stability) - via tensor fascia lata & iliotibial band
Hip - flexion via Psoas major, sartorius, rectus femoris. Extension via semitendinosus, biceps femoris, gluteus maximus, adductor magnus
Knee - flexion via rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis
Ankle - Planterflexion via gastrocnemius, soleus. Dorsiflexion via tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus
Swing phase
Pelvis - as above
Hip - Flexion via Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
knee - Flexion via sartorius, Extension via rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis
Ankle - as above
What factors can influence gait?
Bony skeleton
Muscle function, soft tissue
Inflammation
Congenital anomaly
Neurological function
Weakness
Trauma
Psychology
Pain
What causes antalgic gait?
-> Mainly as a reaction to pain > limp > shortened stance phase on the painful side.
-> Reduced time spent in stance phase compared to swing phase to avoid weight bearing on the affected limb.
Which movement is excessively seen in circumduction gait?
-> Affected leg excessively abducts in swing phase.
-> When walking, they drag their affected leg in semicircle
-> Knee is very stiff
-> Caused by long or stiff leg due to arthritis or stroke
What are the common causes of spastic gait?
-> Pt walk with one stiff leg due to uper motor neurone pathology e.g. stroke or cerebral palsy.
-> Increased tone in the legs
-> Charecterised by factors such as: circumduction at hip, medial rotation of leg, dragged feet, stiff knee and hip, increasing swing phase and decreased stance phase.
-> Due to tightness of the adductors, one leg may cross over the other during the swing phase (known as scissoring gait).
Which movement is weak in Trendelenburg gait?
-> Characterised by weak hip abduction > destabilisation of the hip in stance phase > cause pelvis to tip down.
-> Patient waddles to try maintain pelvic position.
Which gait is commonly seen in cerebellar disease?
Ataxic gait
-> Unstable gait > patient swag back/forth “drunk” when standing still > very uncoordinated movements.
-> Unable to walk heel to toe or in straight line.
-> Broad based gait for greater stability
What common causes can lead to toe walking, especially in children?
-> They walk on the balls of the foot without heel or other part
-> Usually habitual but can be Sx of tight calf muscles, autism or neuromuscular disorder
What causes foot drop?
-> occurs due to weakness in dorsiflexion of the foot > inability to lift the barefoot > planterflexion at the ankle.
-> To keep the foot clear of the ground, whole leg lifted in swing phase > high stepping gait.
-> Excess hip & knee flexion seen.
-> Common causes - polio or spinal bifida
What are the characteristic features of Parkinsonian gait?
-> Short, shuffling steps - walking on forefoot = "‘festinant gait’
-> Combined with stooped posture & lack of arm swing
What is crouch gait?
-> Defined as excessive ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion and hip flexion during the stance phase.
-> It tends to occur with weakness in the quadriceps and is common amongst patients with cerebral palsy.
-> may be iatrogenic due to excessive calf lengthening in surgery.
What are the red flags when assessing gait in a child ?
Define motor unit
Motor unit - it consits of an alpha motor neurone + all the muscle fibres it supplies. Its the minimal functional unit of the motor system
It could supply few x10 (extra-occular) or many x1000 (quadriceps) muscle fibres
Less fibres supplied by single motor neurone = increased precision but decreased power. Vice versa
What is a reflex?
A reflex is an involuntary, unlearned, repeatable, autonomous reaction to a specific stimulus that does not require the brain to be intact.
The neuronal pathway describing a reflex is known as a ‘reflex arc’. Reflex arcs consist of 5 components:
Receptor > Afferent fibre > Integration centre > Efferent fibre > Effector organ
What role does stretch reflex play in the body?
It determines all motor tone of the body = tension within a relaxed muscle
It sets a neural circuit that underlies all the movements & tone of muscles in the body
It relies on receptors known as muscle spindles which detect changes in muscle length
The reflex circuit involves afferent nerve connected to muscle spindle > synaptically connects to effector nerve (alpha-motor neurone). Synapsing occurs in the spinal cord
Muscle stretch reflex arc is Monosynaptic
How does the stretch reflex work?
-> Reflex is a stretch-activated reflex = activated by elongation of muscle = when muscle is relaxing. e.g patellar tendon:
Muscle is stretched (relaxing)
Strecth is detected by muscle spindle > generates AP in the sensory neurone
Sensory neurone synapses with alpha-motorneurone in the IX lamina of the spinal cord > activation
Activated efferent neurone > directly stimulates contraction of the muscle.
Circut also inhibit the antagonistic muscle by afferent synapsing with inhibitory interneurone > antagonising muscle e.g hamstring
-> A-motorneurone is not the only structure receive the stimulus, the message also transmitted to brain via dorsal column, to cerebellum via spino-cerebellar tracts
What is a ‘muscle tone’?
Also known as motor tone
During normal awake state, the LMNs supply the muscles with BG electrical impulses > minimal contraction in the BG
This gives the muscles small amount of force = muscle / motor tone
This tone allows us to maintain posture / hold limb high
This tone is suppressed in newborn & returns few months post-partum. = high muscle tone in newborn = brain injury / cerebral palsy
What happens to muscle tone during sleeping?
Inhhibited during deep (REM) sleep but it remains active in some muscles:
muscles of breathing, extra-occular muscules, urinary and anal sphincters
E.G of other areas of normal muscle tones (pic)
What causes hypo or atonia?
Hypotonia = very low muscle tone.
Atonia = complete loss of muscle tone
Consequences = body unable to hold weight, loss of posture > floppy
Occurs due to lower moto neurone damage
Other LMN sings - flaccid muscle weakness, hyporeflexia, muscle atrophy, fasciculation, muscle wasting
What causes hypertonia?
Hypertonia = increased muscle tone > stiff muscles & joints
Both agonists & antagonist becomes stiff simultaneously
Consequences - impaired body posture, loss of ability to move limbs, spastic paralysis, exaggerated reflexes
Occurs due to upper motor neurone damage
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