What are the boundaries of oral cavity?
Anterior opening (lips, oral fissure), posterior opening (oropharyngeal isthmus)
Lateral - cheeks
Roof - Hard palate (anteriorly) and soft palate (posteriorly, and it extends inferolaterally to form palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches)
Floor - tongue and other soft tissues (mylohyoid muscle and geniohyoid muscles)
Between teeth and cheeks - oral vestibule
What are the major salivary glands and their function ?
Three major salivary glands - Parotid (largest) CNIX, submandibular CNVII and sublingual CNVII glands
Salivary glands opens into oral cavity
Opening of submandibular and sublingual - Sublingual caruncle (under tongue)
Opening of parotid - parotid papilla (stensen’s duct), located in upper second molar
Secrete saliva - mix of ions, water, mucus and enzymes
What is the location of the parotid gland?
Its an extraoral gland
lies antero-inferior to the ear
superficial to the masseter muscle
superior to the angle of mandible
What are the location of submandibular and sublingual glands?
Submandibular glands are located inferior to the mandible
Sublingual glands are located inferior to the tongue
How are the secretion of the salivary glands controlled ?
Stimulated directly by parasympathetic input
Sympathetic nerves reduce it by causing vasoconstriction of blood vessels that supply tha glands
What are the muscle groups of the tongue?
Muscles of the tongue can be grouped into intrinsic and extrinsic
Intrinsic muscles are confied to the tongue. Runs longitudinal (superior / inferior), transverse or vertical to change the shape of the tongue by lengthening, shortening, curling and flattening. > allow precise movements required for speech, eating and swallowing.
There are four extrinsic muscles - Genioglossus, Hypoglossus, styloglossus and palatoglossus > helps protrude, retract, depress and elevate the tongue
What are the nerve innervation to the muscles of the tongue?
Intrinsic muscles are supplied by CN XII (hypoglossal nerve)
Extrinsic Genioglossus, hypoglossus and styloglossus are supplied by CN XII but the palatoglossus is supplied by CN X (vagus)
What are the functions of the tongue?
• Functions: taste, speech, manipulate food for chewing
• V -shaped terminal sulcus separates into anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3.
• Terminal sulcus: forms the inferior margin of the oropharyngeal isthmus
• Apex of terminal sulcus: foramen cecum (the middle of cross in bottom pic) its the point of attachement of thyroglossal duct and is formed during embryological development of thyroid gland
What is the arterial and venous supply to the tongue?
Tongue is supplied by lingual artery - branch of external carotid artery
Tongue is drained by dorsal lingual and deep lingual veins > internal jugular vein in the neck
What are the extensions of the soft palate?
extends inferolaterally to form palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches.
The arches lie anterior and posterior to the palatine tonsil
B/L they form oropharyngeal isthmus
What are the 3 parts of the pharynx and their location ?
Nasopharynx - posterior to the nasal cavity
Oropharynx - posterior to the oral cavity
Laryngeopharynx (posterior to the larynx)
then it continues distally as oesophagus
Name the structures of Pharynx
Name the pharyngeal constrictors of posterior wall of pharynx
Superior - primarily consits of skeletal muscle (controls swallowing)
middle - mix of smooth and skeletal muscle
inferior constrictors - entirely smooth muscles = involuntary = controlled by autonomic nervous system
Describe the passage of the food
Muscles of tongue manipulate food to form bolus > swallowed
When the bolus touches the soft palate, swallowing reflex initiated
Blous pass through oropharyngeal isthmus into oropharynx (lies anterior between C1-C6)
Define the origin and of the oesophagus and how it desends into the abdominal cavity?
Oesophagus is a muscular tube, begins in the neck at the lower border of C6
Descends through superior and posterior mediastinum of the thorax
Enters abdominal cavity by piercing the diaphragm at the oesophageal hiatus (level of T10)
Inferior to the diaphragm, it opens into stomach at the cardiac orifice.
Describe the anatomical orgin of the stomach
Stomach is J-shaped hollow organ
Extends from the cardiac orifice to the duodenum distally
Occupies the left hypochondriac, epigastric and umbilical region of the abdomen.
What are the divided portions of the stomach?
Stomach is divided into multiple portions:
Cardia (gastro-oesophageal junction)
Fundus (adjacent to cardia)
Body (largest portion of stomach)
Antrum (between body and pylorus)
Pylorus (where stomach and duodenum meets) with pyloric sphincter
Other features:
Greater curvature
Lesser curvature
Cardiac Notch
Angular incisure - common site for gastric ulcers and early cancerous changes (endoscopy site)
What is the blood supply to the stomach?
Stomach receives blood from celiac artery which supplies left and right gastric arteries.
celiac truck (located under diaphragm) has 3 branches:
left gastric artery - curves to left > lesser curvature
Splenic artery - runs posterior to stomach > spleen then divides into upper short gastric artery (supplies fundus) and left gastroepiploic artey (supplies greater curvature)
Common hepatic artery - into 2 branch: gastro duodenal artery (goes down to join R gastroepiploic artery) and proper hepatic artery
How are the greater and lesser omentum of the abdominal cavity related to the stomach?
They connect the stomach to other organs in the abdominal cavity
GO hangs down (anteriorly) from the greater curvature of the stomach covering the intestine. Provides protection and insulation to abdominal organds.
Also contains immune cells to help fight infection
LO connects lesser curvature of the stomach to the liver (posteriorly). Serves as a support structure for the stomach and liver
What is the name of the space posterior to the lesser omentum and stomach ? What are the clinical pathologies associated?
Space is called Lesser sac / omental bursa
Prone to pancreatitis (behind the stomach) or gastric ulcer rupture .
Whic muscle does the partid duct penetrates to reach the oral cavity?
Penetrates Buccinator muscle of the cheek opposite crown of 2nd upper molar tooth
What are the four location where the oesophagus is compressed (noramal) by surrounding structures ?
The clinical importance of these are in swallowing (swollen objects likley to lodge) and manipulation of instruments during endoscopy.
Which structure ensures right passage of the food from the mouth?
The epiglottis is a flap of connective tissue made of elastic cartilage, it is present in the posterior floor of the oral cavity to close the trachea during swallowing to prevent food entry into the larynx and trachea
What are the 9 regions of the abdomen
What are the blood supplies to the GI tract - foregut, midgut and hindgut?
Foregut - Celiac trunk
distal oesophagus, stomach, 1st/2nd part duodenum, spleen, liver
Midgut - Superior mesenteric artery
jejunum, ileum, ascending colon and proximal 2/3 of transverse colon
Hindgut - inferior mesenteric artery
distal 1/3 of transverse colon, descending, sigmod colon and anus
What are the four lobes of liver and the associated ligament attachements?
Liver - largest gland, produces bile, stores glycogen and does detoxification of ingested contents .
Four lobes - Right, left, caudate and quadrate lobes
Attachments - Falciform (red), Round (blue), Coronary (green) and triangular ligament (yellow)
Name the 3 structures found within region of porta hepatis
Porta hepatis - hepatic hilum
Common bile duct (leaving)
Proper hepatic artery (enters)
Hepatic portal vein (enters)
Name the parts and arterial supply of gall bladder
Stores bile produced by liver
3 parts - neck, body and fundus
Supplied by cystic artery - branch of right hepatic artery
Cholelithiasis = gall stones formed withing GB from precipitated bile components
What are the parts of pancreas and the exocrine / endocrine function
Parts - uncinate process (behind superior mesenteric vessel), head (adjacent to 2nd part of duodenum), neck, body and tail
Exocrine - Production of pancreatic juice > into duodenum
Endocrine - insulin by Islet of langerhans > blood
Define the pathway of biliary drainage and the ducts involved
The common bile duct (desends from GB) joins main pancreatic duct at the opening into the duodenum called hepatopancreatic ampulla
What are the sensory innervation of the oral cavity?
The palate, upper teeth, and upper parts of the cavity are innervated by the maxillary nerve branch of trigeminal (V2)
The lower parts, including teeth and oral part of tongue are innervated by the mandibular nerve (V3)
Taste from the oral part of the tongue (anterior 2/3s) is carried by branches of the facial nerve (VII)
Parasympathetic fibres to the glands are also carried by the facial nerve
What are the sensory innervation of the tongue?
The anterior 2/3rds (oral portion):
General sensation is supplied by the mandibular nerve (V3) via the lingual nerve
Special sensation (taste) is supplied by the facial nerve (VII) via chorda tympani
The posterior 1/3rd of the tongue (pharyngeal) has both general and special sensation supplied via the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
What are the three main ways the mouth initiates digestion?
Mastication by teeth - tear and grind food to increase SA
Bolus formation by the tongue - also has sensory and speech role
Enzymatic digestion and lubrication by saliva.
What enzyme in saliva begins carbohydrate digestion?
Salivary amylase.
Name the three major salivary glands and the functions of the saliva.
Parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands. - responsible for producing saliva.
Functions of the saliva - Protection, buffering (neutralise the acidic contents), maintain tooth integrity, tissue repair, digestion, taste and antimicrobial activity
Describe the structure of the salivary gland?
Normal saliva production varies between 0.5 to 1.5L. Saliva is hypotonic and alkaline.
The rate of secretion reduces during sleep and inc when eating.
Structure consits of series of ducts that end in either spherical or tubular secretory acini.
The serous Acinar cells produce water and enzyme, the mucous acinar cells produce mucous = both leads to saliva.
The duct cells dilute the secretions allowing them to flow
Why is saliva hypotonic when it reaches the mouth?
Duct cells dilute and modify the initial acinar secretion.
Which branch of the autonomic nervous system produces high-volume watery saliva?
Parasympathetic nervous system.
What are the immune and additional functions of the chemical composition of saliva?
IgA Ab - binds to pathogenic Ag
Lactoferrin - peptide protein that binds iron in antimicrobial action
Lysozymes - enzyme that attack bacterial cell wall
Bicarbs, PO4 and proteins - maintains pH between 6-7.5
Alkaline nature - protects from bacterial acid and acid reflux
Contains glucose, urea, cortisol, sex hormones and blood group substances helps with screening
What immunoglobulin is found in saliva?
IgA - binds pathogenic antigens
How does saliva protect tooth integrity?
It is supersaturated with calcium hydroxyapatite, preventing dental demineralisation.
The salivary epidermal growth factor enhances the speed of oral mucosal healing and protects oesophageal mucosa.
What is xerostomia and what causes it?
Reduced saliva production causing dry mouth.
Associated with numerous medications
Can also be caused by Sjogren’s syndrome, mumps (parotitis) and RT
Give two consequences of xerostomia.
Reduced lubrication (difficulty chewing and swallowing)
low amylase (impaired oral carb digestion)
low bicarb can affect buffering
increased oral microbial dysbiosis (caries / oral infection)
Can cause dysphagia due to poor bolus formation > inefficient oesophageal transit > increase friction
Reduced antibicrobial activity
What is sialorrhea?
Excessive salivation.
Can be due to excess production and stimulation or due to decreased clearance (swallowing)
Common in those with neurodegenerative disorder
What is the primary function of the oesophagus?
To transport the food bolus from the pharynx to the stomach.
Starts with upper OS and ends with lower OS
Which muscle type predominates in the proximal oesophagus?
Striated muscle.
under control of central control system from the brainstem
This is the swallowing reflex (primary peristalsis)
Which muscle type predominates in the distal oesophagus?
Smooth muscle.
controlled by the nerve plexus in the oesophagus
Responsible for secondary peristalsis
What is primary peristalsis?
Swallow-initiated contractions controlled by the brainstem.
(Proximal oesophagus involved, has striated muscles)
What is secondary peristalsis?
Distension-induced contractions controlled by the enteric nervous system.
(Involves distal oesophagus, has smooth muscles)
What is the function of the upper oesophageal sphincter?
To prevent aspiration / regurgitation back into airways and excess air entry into the gastrointestinal tract.
high pressure area located between pharynx and upper oesophagus
What is the function of the lower oesophageal sphincter?
To prevent reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus and allow passage of food into stomach.
High pressure zone at the end of the oesophagus
List the four phases of swallowing.
Oral preparatory - bolus undergoes mastication in the mouth
oral phase - bolus reaches the pharynx and swallowing begins
pharyngeal - Once swallowing iniated, the glottis is shut by the movement of epiglottis, breathing stops and the upper OS is relaxed to allow passage of food
oesophageal phase - bolus travel down the oesophageal body, this triggers relaxation of lower OS
What is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)?
Chronic symptoms or mucosal damage due to abnormal reflux of gastric acid into the oesophagus.
Associated with over relaxation of the lower OS
Treatment:
Conservative - weight loss, avoid food / alcohol close to bedtime
Medical - PPI (decrease acid), histamine blockers, antacids in increase pH, alginates (gaviscon or rennie)
Surgical - anti-reflux (fundoplication), repair of hernia, vagotomy to decrease acid production.
Name the risk factors for GORD.
Obesity - an increased intra-abdominal pressure and hormonal changes can contribute to the relaxation of the LOS
Hiatus Herniae - sliding or rolling hernias.
Pregnancy - same reasons as obesity, intrabdominal pressure and oestrogen and progesterone can relax the LOS
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - cancer of G cells in the stomach (gastrinomas). These cells produce Gastrin which in turn causes oversecretion of stomach acid. These gastrinomas can be found in many places e.g. pancreas or duodenal wall
What are the complications of GORD?
Oesophagitis, stricture, Barrett’s metaplasia and oesophageal adenocarcinoma
What is erosive oesophagitis?
Inflammation with erosion or ulceration of the oesophageal mucosa.
How does a peptic stricture develop?
Chronic acid irritation leads to scarring and narrowing of the oesophagus.
can present as dysphagia or food impaction
What is Barrett’s metaplasia?
Replacement of normal stratified squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium in the distal oesophagus.
Prolonged and continuous acid exposure causes this metaplasia change
Columnar epithelium is resistant to stomach acid
Increases risk of oesophageal cancer
Seen as change in texture and colour of the tissue - Normal squamous epithelium is pale and glossy > salmon coloured with velvety texture in metaplasia.
Dx by cytosponge
Rx with PPI, endoscopic eradication (heat by laser /radiofrequency / argon plasma coagulation / cold cryotherapy or photodynamic therapy)
What cancer risk is associated with Barrett’s oesophagus?
Increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.
Why are routine screening programmes not established for Barrett’s oesophagus?
Low absolute cancer risk, high cost, and limited effectiveness of surveillance.
What are the 2 types of hiatus hernia?
Sliding hernia (80%) - GOJ, abdominal part of the oesphagus and the cardia of the stomach slides upwards through the diapragmatic hiatus into the thorax
Rolling hernia - upward movement of gastric fundus, causing it to lie alongside a normally positioned GOJ.
Which cells are commonly involved in oesophageal cancer ?
Squamous cell carcinomas are significantly decreasing. Adenocarcinomas are significantly increasing
Adenocarcinomas are cancers that start in mucus-producing glandular cells
Incidence of adenocarcinomas of the distal oesophagus and GOJ increase rapidly due to Barrett's metaplasia as more genetic defects become acquired
What is achalasia?
Failure of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter due to loss of the myenteric plexus.
Name two symptoms of achalasia.
Dysphagia to solid and regurgitation, chest discomfort and halitosis
What is the classic radiological sign of achalasia?
Bird’s beak appearance towards the oesophageal sphincter on barium swallow.
Name one treatment for achalasia.
Heller’s myotomy or botulinum toxin injection at LOS.
What is eosinophilic oesophagitis?
A chronic immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the oesophagus. Characterised by trachealisation of the oesophagus.
causes dysphagia and reflux
What endoscopic feature is seen in eosinophilic oesophagitis?
Trachealisation with concentric oesophageal rings throughout the entire length of the oesophagus.
How is eosinophilic oesophagitis diagnosed?
Oesophageal biopsy showing increased eosinophil counts.
What is oesophageal manometry used for?
To measure oesophageal high pressure zones (upper OS and Lower OS) and motility.
What does integrated relaxation pressure (IRP) measure?
The degree of lower oesophageal sphincter relaxation.
Oesophageal monometry probe is inserted through the nose > oesophagus > down the lower OS.
Pressure sensors on the catheter measures the pressure produced by contraction and relaxation of oesophageal muscles.
Patient then swallows 5ml water to initiate upper OS opening. Tracing produced allows observation of the pressure changes during peristalsis as well as degree of relaxation of the lower OS. this is IRP
What are the major regions of the stomach?
The stomach has 3 major regions
The fundus - upper region
Main body - corpus
Antrum - lower region
Has thickened muscular walls that grind the food bolus before it enters the duodenum
What are the folds in the stomach called and their function?
The folds are called rugae on the inner surface of the stomach.
These flatten out as the stomach fills and expands.
The purpose of the rugae is to increase surface area and stretch out to increase stomach volume when the stomach is full.
What are the tissue layers of the stomach wall?
Mucosa - Inner lining, consists of simple columnar epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosae and gastric glands (pits)
Submucosa
Muscularis externa - contains circular (inner) and longitudinal (outer) muscles. On the cardiac/LOS end there is extra layer called oblique muscles. These muscles aid distension of stomach and storage of food.
Serosa - connective tissue
The external surfae of the stomach is lined by peritoneum
What are the main functions of the stomach?
Reservoir - passes only small amounts of the food bolus into the small intestine at a time. It stores food not yet passing into the intestine
Mixing/Churning - the food bolus is mixed and churned by secreting and mixing it with gastric juices
Acid production (digestion + protection) - involved in both chemical digestion of the food bolus and protection against microorganisms
Name the specialised cells of the stomach, their secretion and location in the stomach
What is the function of Goblet cells in the stomach and their location ?
simple columnar epithelial cells characterized by their goblet-like shape, which is due to the accumulation of mucus granules in their apical portion
Known as ‘mucous neck cells’ - secrete mucus along with alkali bicarbonate ions (HCO3) which protects the lining of the stomach
Present in both the corpus (body) and antrum
What is the function of Parietal cells in the stomach and their location ?
Parietal (aka oxyntic) cells - these secrete gastric acid (HCl), which helps break down food and kill harmful bacteria.
Also secrete intrinsic factor which is essential in vitamin B12 absorption
Present in the corpus (body) only
What are the function and location of D cells, G cells and ECL cells in the stomach
D cells - involved in the secretion of somatostatin which inhibits acid secretion by inhibiting gastrin release, these cells are mainly located in the antrum, some in the corpus
G cells - stimulate release of gastrin, which stimulates acid secretion. Located in antrum, some in corpus
ECL cells - these stimulate release of histamines which are also involved in stimulating acid secretion, these cells are present in both the corpus and antrum
Describe how acid is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach
Acid release is mediated by H+/K+ pump located in apical (lumen side) membrane of parietal cells. This is an ATP-driven pump. Process as follows:
CO2 from blood plasma diffuse into parietal cells
CO2 then combines with water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3). This reaction is catalysed by carbonic anhydrase.
The carbonic acid dissociates into H+ and HCO3- ions (it is a weak acid)
The HCO3- are transported into the blood, down a concentration gradient, in exchange for Cl- ions via an antiporter on the basolateral membrane
H+ and Cl- ions are then transported from the parietal cell into the lumen of the stomach, against their concentration gradients. H+ via the H+/K+ pump and Cl- a chloride channel
This cause pH of 1-3 in stomach —> activates pepsin (protease enyzyme) and microbial activity.
When protons are pumped into the stomach lumen, where does the co-ions (bicarb) go? what would this do to the solution that they go into?
Carbonic acid (CO2 + H2O) dissociates into H+ and HCO3
H+ (proton) get pumped into stomach lumen by parietal cells.
HCO3 get transported into blood. Since it is ‘basic’ we expect an increase in pH of the blood post meal > alkaline.
However, this doesn’t happen - As stomach empties its contents into duodenum, the cells senses acid > secretin from S cells > triggers pancreas to release bicarb alkaline rich fluid to neutralise the contents in duodenum.
So in the pacreas, the HCO3 goes into the lumen, while H+ goes into the blood (the opposite of what happens in the stomach).
‘Acid tide’ - These two opposing effects neuralises and prevents blood getting too alkaline post prandial.
Gastrectomy patients can develop distruption in acid-base balance. Using the role of carbonic anhydrase, explain why?
Gastrectomy = removal of stomach partly or fully
This leads to loss of carbonic anhydrase in the stomach = lack of H+ into lumen + lack of HCO3 into the blood
Carbonic anhydrase is present in the pancreas —> H+ into blood and HCO3 into duodenum.
We therefore expect these pt’s blood to be acidic > CO2 build up > hyperventilation.
However, this doesn’t happen - This is because, usually, the duodenum triggers pancrease to produce HCO3 into the lumen (H+ into blood) to neutralise the acid contents from the stomach.
In patients with gastrectomy, there is loss of acid production by stomach > no need for duodenum to trigger neutralisation = no H+ into blood to cause acidity.
How is acid secretion in the stomach regulated?
By controlling the activity of H+/K+ pump. Can be done directly or indirectly. Parietal cells, G cells, D cells, ECL cells (last 3 are ‘supplementary cells’) are all involved in regulation of acid secretion.
Vagus nerve innervates all cell types (M3/Ach)
Parietal cell can be stimulated to produce acid by both protein kinase A and C
Direct stimulation features Ach, histamine and gastrin. Indirect features Ach and gastrin mediated histamine release by ECL cells.
Histamine from ECL cells promotes acid secretion
Gastrin promotes acid secretion from parietal cell
Somatostatin halts acid secretion
What are the direct stimulation of acid secretion in the stomach?
Vagus Nerve
Innervates parietal cells. When stimulated, the post ganglionic fibres release Ach onto parietal cell plasma membrane.
Ach binds to M3 receptors on the cell > increased activity of H+/K+ pump > increased acid release
Histamine stimulation
Histamine is produced and released by ECL cells found in same gastric pit as parietal cells. Can be due to vagus (Ach binding to M3 receptor on ECL) / gastrin binding.
Histamine binds to H2 receptors on parietal cell > promotes H+ release.
Gastrin stimulation
Gastrin is produced by G cells of antrum + duodenum.
Due to vagus stimulation or presence of peptone (AA) in stomacl.
It is a weak CCK (cholecystokinin) agonist, acts on CCK-B receptors on parietal cell > H+ release
What are the indirect stimulation of acid secretion in the stomach?
Involves release of histamine by ECL cells due to binding of Ach from vagus nerve or gastrin from G cells.
Histamine > H+ relese by parietal cells
What substance inhibits acid secretion ?
Somatostatin inhibit H+ release by parietal cells. It is released by D cells of the antrum. It inhibits by:
Binding to receptors on parietal cells, reducing H+/K+ pump activity
Binding to receptors on ECL cells, inhibiting histamine release
Binding to receptors on G cells, inhibiting gastrin release
D cells can be inhibited by Ach from vagus nerve.
Somatostatin release is inhibited when the luminal acid is neutralised.
What are the actions of Vagus nerve in the corpus?
Distension of stomach causes Ach release by vagus nerve. Ach:
Direct stimulation of Parietal cell —> Increases H+
Direct stimulation of ECL cells —> increases histamine
D cells —> inhibit somatostatin release
What are the actions of Vagus nerve in the antrum to regulate H+ secretion?
G and D cells are subject to vagal stimulation.
G cells —> increases gastrin release using GRP (gastrin releasing peptide) rather than Ach. > triggers parietal cell to release acid directly, and also indirectly via ECL cells.
D cells —> Ach binds and inhibits somatosatin release
What are the negative and positive feedback loop in acid production?
Negative = High luminal H+ stimulates D cells to release somatostain > reduce acid secreretion
Positive = Products of protein digestion (peptones) stimulates G cells to release gastrin > stimulates acid secretion.
Other than somatostain from D cells, what other substances inhibits H+ secretion?
Secretin
Released by duodenal S-cells.
Stimulated by presence of fat and acid in duodenum
Inhibits acid secretion by inhibiting antral gastrin release and promotes somatostain release
CCK
Released by duodenal I-cells
Stimulated by fat in duodenum (stimulates pancreatic enzyme release)
Binds to CCK receptors on D cells to stimulate release of somatostain > inhibits H+
Why is important to keep neutral pH in the duodenum?
When stomach empties its contents to the duodenum, the acid can destroy the epithelium lining the duodenum
Low pH can destroy the digestive enzymes in the duodenum.
Bile and bile salts which emulsify fats also doesn’t work at lower pH.
So when gastric emptying occurs, the cells in the duodenum senses the acid > stimulates pancrease to release secretin > inhibits antral gastrin > inhibits acid secretion.
Secretin also promotes somatostain release
Give examples of commonly used pharm inhibitors of acid secretion
Proton pump inhibitors (PPI) - e.g. Omeprazole, Esomeprazole, Lansoprazole
Histamine receptor antagonists - e.g. Ranitidine, Famotidine, Cimetidine, Zantac
Antacid medications - e.g. Gaviscon and pepto-bismol
What are the different phases of acid secretion?
Basal
Follows circadian rhythm, no external stimuli
Highest in the evening and lowest in the morning
Cephalic
Food smell, sight and taste sends sensory signal to medulla oblongata > triggers parasympathetic stimulation of vagus nerve > HCl and pepsin release by corpus (directly by parietal cells) and gastrin release by antrum (indirect) > stimulates corpus to release more acid.
Also release histamine (indirect) and inhibit somatostain release
30% acid produced before food enters stomach.
Gastric phase
50-60% of total acid, activated by stomach distension by food> Medulla > prasympathetic vagus stimulation > acid by various mechanisms.
Antral G cells release > gastrin due to peptones in antrum
Intestinal
Partially digested peptides (peptones) in the duodenum > gastrin by duodenal G cells > 5-10% of acid secretion.
What is pepsinogen and its role digestion ?
Pensinogens are proteolytic pro-enzymes (inactive) produced by chief cells in response to Ach.
Converted to Pepsin (active enzyme) spontaneously at pH <5 (most active at pH <3).
Pepsis is an endopeptidase which initiates protein digestion.
Irreversibly inactivated at pH 8
Pepsin is the major agressive agen responsible for oesophageal and laryngeal tissue damage during acid reflux
How does the mucosal lining of the stomach protects it from damage by acid?
Mucosal layer traps local HCO3 to neutralise and maintain pH 7
Epithelial and endothelial cells in stomach produce prostaglandins - it maintains mucosal diffusion barrier.
Fibre (Roughage) in the food stimulates mucous protection.
How does NSAID increase risk of stomach ulcer?
Prostaglandins stimulate mucous and HCO3 secretion by mucous cells in stomach. IT also inhibit acid secretion.
NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins > increase acid > prone to ulcers
What causes peptic ulcer disease?
Discontinuation in the inner lining of the GI tract due to gastric acid or pepsin.
Damage extends to muscularis propria layer of the gastric epithelium.
Can be gastric ulcer or duodenal ulcer
Gastric ulcer causes epigastric pain 15-30 mins after eating, whereas duodenal uncler pain tends to occur 2-3 hrs after a meal.
What is the leading causative organism that damages stomach acid mucosal barrier?
H.pylori
Bacteria that induces acid production > damage to mucosal barrier > peptic ulceration.
Responsible for 90% duodenal ulcer and 70-90% gastric ulcers
Wide spectrum of virulence factors > adhere to and inflame gastric mucosa > increased acid production > damage
In the corpus - H.pylori damages parietal cells > decrease acid secretion > gastric atrophy (ulcer)
In the antrum - its main target > D cell damage > increase acid production.
What is the association between H.pylori and anaemia?
H.pylori > hypochlorhydria pH >4 (low stomach acid level) > reduce iron absorption due to impaired reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+
Fe3+ must be reduced to fe2+ to enable absorption by enterocytes.
How is H.pylori diagnosed and managed?
Diagnosis
Urea breath test —> H.pylori releases urease enzyme which breaks down urea into NH3, CO2 and H2O.
During test, patient ingest tablet or liquid containing carbon-isotope labelled urea. H.pylori breaks this urea down and produced CO2 which is labelled.
Pt exhales the CO2 which is measured
CLOtest —> Biopsy of mucosal tissue in the antrum taken via endoscopy.
Placed into a medium containing urea and an indicator such as phenol red. The urease enzyme produced by H. pylori hydrolyzes urea to ammonia, which raises the pH of the medium, and changes the color of the specimen from yellow (NEGATIVE) to red (POSITIVE).
Stool antigen test —> Stool sample added to chemicals + colour developer. Blue colour = H.pylori antigen +ve
Treatment
Tripple therapy - PPI with 2 Abx (amoxicillin, clarithromycin and metronidazole)
Note: Urease neutralises acid and ammonia cause mucosal injury
What is pernicious anaemia and what causes it?
Its an autoimmune condition which causes atrophic gastritis. Auto-Ab caused parietal cell destruction
Parietal cells produce intrinsic factors which are essential for absorption of vitamin B12
B12 is important for erythrocyte production. Deficiency can cause megablastic anaemia.
Large immature RBC
What crucial roles does pancreas play in the body?
Digestion of nutrients, fat, protein, carbohydrates
Provides appropriate environment for enzymatic digestion in the small bowel
Important in regulating fed and fasted states using insulin and glucagon etc.
What are the two main functional components of the pancreas?
Exocrine and endocrine components.
The endocrine tissue secretes hormones such as insulin and glucagon
Exocrine tissue secretes pancreatic juice - containing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich fluid.
List the exocrine pancreatic structures
Pancreas is divided to lobules (Acinar + islet of Langerhans) that drains into ducts
Acinus > intercalated duct > Intralobular ducts > interlobular ducts > main pancreatic duct which connects the gland into lumen of the GI tract
Major pancreatic duct merges with common bile duct to form ampulla of vater.
If gallstones blocks the duct distally > pancreatitis
Muscular wall around it thickens to form sphinchter of Oddi - regulates ductal flowand prevent reflux
Duct empties secretions into descending part of duodenum at major duodenal papilla
point where foregut transition to midgut, celiac trunk no longer supplies the gut and superior mesenteric artery takes over.
What is the function of the sphincter of Oddi?
To regulate pancreatic and bile duct flow and prevent reflux.
Where does the main pancreatic duct empty?
Into the descending part of the duodenum at the major duodenal papilla.
What are the two components of a pancreatic secretory unit?
They resides within pacnreatic lobules. Each unit composed of:
Acinus cells and an intercalated duct.
under microscope, the acinar cells have lots of mitochondria and RER (essential for large amount of protein synthesis) - these secretory cells produce zymogens > ducts
Name the different pancreatic cell types:
Acinar cells —> produce proteins (zymogens - inactive)
Duct cells —> transport electrolytes (HCO3) to neutralise pH
Centroacinar cells —> located at junction of acinar and ductal cells
Goblet cells —> produce mucus (mucin) important for hydration, immunological function.
What do acinar cells of pancreas secrete?
Specialised / polarised for production of large quantity of proteins.
Produce Zymogens (inactive enzyme precursors), digestive enzymes, and isotonic fluid.
Note: Acinus = cluster of acinar cells
Which intracellular organelle is abundant in acinar cells due to high protein synthesis?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum. > secretory granules > exocytosis at apical pole
What is the main function of pancreatic duct cells?
To secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid that alkalinises acid content in the duodenum and it hydrates acinar secretions.
contain specific membrane transporters and an abundance of mitochondria to provide energy for active transport of electrolytes
Which hormone is the most potent stimulus for bicarbonate secretion?
Secretin.
released by S cells of duodenum due to acidity > triggers pancreas to secrete bicarb rich fluid.
What is the main function of pancreatic Gobet cells?
Produce mucous (in the form of mucin, which when hydrated forms mucous) - important for lubrication, hydration, mechanical protection of surface epithelial cells
The mucous also has an immunologic role, the binding of pathogens and interacting with immune competent cells, ultimately preventing pancreatic infections
How are acinar cells stimulated?
When unstimulated - they secrete low levels of digestive proteins via constitutive secretory pathway.
Two routes to stimulation:
CCK and Ach (muscarinic receptors)- located on the basolateral membrane.
Both activates PKC + Ca2+ release
Signal > CCK/muscarinic Ach receptor > Gq > PLC > DAG / IPC > PKC activation (DAG) and Ca2+ ion release (IP3) > enzyme secretion from acinar cells.
VIP and secretin - Both binds to their receptors > Gs > activates adenyl cyclase > increased cAMP and PKA activation
What receptor pathway does secretin use to stimulate duct cells?
Gs protein pathway increasing cAMP and activating PKA.
How are pancreatic duct cells activated?
Their prime role is to secrete HCO3 rich fluid that alkalanise and hydrates the secretions of acinar cell. Done via:
Cl-/HCO3 exchanger —> Cl- into duct cell, exchanged with HCO3 into the duct lumen
Carbonic anhydrase —> in the cytoplasm it catalyses the formation of HCO3 from CO2 and OH-
Secretin, a potent stimulus for HCO3 (Gs pathway) induces CFTR channel and Na-HCO3 co-transporter
Secretin via Gs > adenylyl cyckase > high cAMP > activates PKA > opening of CFTR channels > Cl- diffuse into lumen.
This Cl- then re-enters the cell via Cl-HCO3 exchanger > HCO3 secreted into the lumen. = Cl- recycling.
Ach (Gq pathway) —> increased Ca2+ > activates Ca2+ dependent PKC in duct cells
How is bicarbonate secreted into the duct lumen?
Via the Cl⁻/HCO₃⁻ exchanger.
Cl- into the duct cell, HCO3 into the duct lumen
What is chloride recycling in pancreatic ducts?
Chloride exits through CFTR into the lumen and re-enters via the Cl⁻/HCO₃⁻ exchanger to allow continued bicarbonate secretion.
CFTR (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) is a cAMP activated Cl- channel present on apical membrane of pancreatic duct cell
When open, it allows Cl- to diffuse from cytoplasm > lumen.
Then the Cl- cycle back into the cell via Cl-/HCO3 exchanger to allow secretion of HCO3 into the lumen.
How does cystic fibrosis impairs pancreatic function?
CF results from mutation affecting CFTR > premature degradation > loss of CFTR expression at the plasma membrane. > impaired Cl- levels
This disrupt the apical transport process of the duct cell > decreased HCO3 + water secretion > thick protein rich secretion > ductal obstruction / pancreatic tissue destruction
Low HCO3 > low pH > disrupts the digestive enzyme
Leads to pancreatic enzyme deficiency > maldigestion, diabetes and steatorrhoea.
What is the composition and function of pancreatic secretion?
Product of acinar, duct and goblet cells > pancreatic juice serection rich in protein and alkaline
Pancrease is highest protein synthesis and secretory organ in the body ~1.5L a day containing 5-15g protein
Secretes over 20 proteins - either inactive zymogens (e.g trypsinogen,chymotrypsinogen, proelastase, procarboxypeptidase A, procarboxypeptidase B ) or active digestive enzymes (e.g Lipase and co-lipase).
Rate of secretion depends on fed or fasted state
tightly linked with biliary and gastric secretion + instestinal motility
Levels low in fasted state, increase 15-20 x more in fed state.
What is the role of CCK in pancreatic secretion?
It stimulates acinar cells to increase enzyme (zymogens) secretion. Also stimulates gall baldder to contract > bile
CCK is released from I cells of the duodenum in response to fatty meal (lipids)
Also stimulated by CCK-releasing factor e.g. LCRF (luminal CCK releasing factor) - these are endogenously produced and secreted into gut lumen > stimulates CCK
In fasting state, LCRF are degraded by digestive enzmyes > no CCK
Which hormone inhibits pancreatic secretion?
Somatostatin.
Produced by D cells of the islets of Langerhans.
Inhibits release of CCK and secretin > inhibits pancreatic secretion
In which phase of digestion does most pancreatic secretion occur?
The intestinal phase.
What are the phases of pancreatic secretion ?
Cephalic —> stimulated by sight, taste and smell > 25% secretion. Mediated by Ach > Ach receptor stimulation on acinar cell. (no involvement of CCK or secretin
Gastric —> 10-20% secretion, caused by presence of food:
Luminal peptides / AA > G cells on antrum > release of hormone gastrin > CCK receptors on acinar cell (gastrin is weak CCK agonist)
Gastric distension > stimulates neural pathway > low levels of pancreatic secretion via vagovagal gastropancreatic reflex
Intestinal —> 50-80%. Chyme entering duodenum stimulates pancreatic secretion by 3 ways:
Acid > S cells of duodenum > secretin > pancreatic duct cells > HCO3 and fluid
Lipids > I cells of duodenum > CCK > acinar cells > digestive enzymes
Lipids > activates vagovagal enteropancreatic reflexes > acinar cells
Which phase of pancreatic secretion is mediated purely by vagal stimulation?
The cephalic phase.
How does the pancreas prevent autodigestion?
By storing enzymes as inactive zymogens in the secretory granules and activating them only in the small intestine.
Zymogens get activated only after coming in contact with small instetine brush border enzyme enterokinase (enteropeptidase).
This converts trypsinogen to trypsin which initiates conversion of all other zymogens to active form
The secretory granule is impermeable to proteins - zymogens and digestive enzymes kept seperated from intracellular environment
Enzyme inhibitors (pancreatic trypsin inhibitor) are co-packed in the granule
Condesation of zymogens, low pH and ionic conditions within secretory pathway further limits enzyme activity
When these mechanisms fails > pancreatitis
Which enzyme activates trypsinogen in the small intestine?
Enterokinase. - a small bowel brush border enzyme
What is the mnemonic for causes of acute pancreatitis?
GET SMASHED.
Gall stones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune (SLE, Sjogrens syndrome)
Scorpion sting
Hypercalcaemia, hypertriglyceridaemia, hypothermia
ERCP
Drugs (paracetamol, cisplatin, erythromycin)
What are the three diagnostic criteria for acute pancreatitis?
Characteristic abdominal pain
Epigastric pain, radiating to the back. A/W N&V
serum amylase or lipase ≥3 times normal
CT findings consistent with pancreatitis.
What are the three phases of acute pancreatitis pathophysiology?
Premature enzyme activation of zymogens in acinar cells > activation of other enzymes.
intra-pancreatic inflammation - autodigestion of pancreas > inflammatory or endothelial cells
systemic inflammation - extrapancreatic inflammation such as sepsis / multi organ failure
What is the first intracellular event in acute pancreatitis?
Premature activation of trypsin within acinar cells.
Can be due to hyperstimulation > inhibition of acinar secretion > maturation in the cell. Possible mechanisms:
Ca2+ signalling disruption / trypepsinogen cleavage / decreased pancreatic trypsin inhibitor SPINK-1
What are the treatments of pancreatitis?
80% its mild so Rx is supportive - IV fluids, fluid balance, analgesia, NBM
In severe cases - USS ? gallstones / CT if unwell after 48hrs.
May require ERCP (therapeutic endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) to Rx gallstones (removal), narrowing or blocked pancreatic or bile duct, leaks in bile duct and pesudocysts
Endoscopy > duodenum > common duct ?visible stones which can be removed to relieve obstruction
What is ERCP used for in acute pancreatitis?
Acute: Removal of gallstones and relief of duct obstruction.
What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?
Chronic alcohol abuse.
Inflammation of the pancreas that get worse with time > permanent damage to pancras.
Other causes - Hereditary disorders of the pancreas, Cystic fibrosis, Hypercalcemia and Hyperlipidaemia
How is chronic pancreatitis managed?
May require admission: analgesia, IV fluids, nutritional support, synthetic pancreatic enzymes
Diet plan - low fat, small frequent meals
ERCP for complications associated with chronic panreatitis - to enlarge duct opening, to drain pseudocysts, to insert stent to keep patent pancreatic or bile duct
synthetic pancreatic enzyme CREON
Name two complications of chronic pancreatitis.
Diabetes and pancreatic calcification.
The tissue hardens from deposits of insoluble calcium salts
Destruction of pancreatic tissue > DM
Why does cystic fibrosis cause pancreatic insufficiency?
Defective CFTR reduces bicarbonate and water secretion, leading to thick secretions, duct obstruction, and pancreatic destruction.
What is the general organisation of upper and lower digestive tract?
Upper digestive tract
• Oral cavity (mouth)
• Pharynx
• Oesophagus
Lower digestive tract
• Stomach
• Small intestine (duodenum, jejunum
and ileum)
• Large intestine (cecum and colon)
What types of muscles are found in GIT?
Smooth muscles (involuntary) - most regions of the GIT
Can be Phasic (rapid contraction/relaxation) or Tonic (Sustained contraction)
Skeletal muscle (voluntary) - in pharynx, top 3rd of oesophagus and external anal sphincter.
What are the three main patterns of gastrointestinal motility?
GI mortility involves co-ordinated contractions and relaxations of GIT that moves contents from mouth to anus. 3 main patterns of mortility:
Peristalsis, segmentation, and tonic contraction.
What is the difference between phasic and tonic contractions?
GIT has 2 types of contractions:
Phasic contractions are rapid, rhythmic and short-lasting. Occurs in body of oesophagus, stomach antrum, small and large intestines
Tonic contractions are sustained and maintain tension. Occurs in sphinters and upper stomach
Where do phasic contractions commonly occur in the GI tract?
Oesophagus, stomach antrum, small intestine, and large intestine.
Where do tonic contractions commonly occur?
Sphincters and upper stomach.
What are the innervation of the GIT?
Enteric nervous system (intrinsic)
myenteric and submucosal plexus
ANS (extrinsic)
Vagaus nerve (parasympathetic) supplies most of the GIT but the distal part is innervated by pelvic nerves (S1-S3)
What are the two main plexuses of the enteric nervous system?
Myenteric plexus and submucosal plexus.
The enteric nervous system is made up of myenteric plexus and submucosal plexus.
The sensory neuron communicates with an interneuron, which communicates with a motor neuron > motor action
What is the function of the myenteric plexus?
Activation of the myenteric plexus:
increases tonic contraction, increases intensity and rate of rhythmic contractions, and increases velocity of conduction
What is the function of the submucosal plexus?
Regulates secretion and absorption.
Activation of submucosal plexus > increased secretory activity and modulates intestinal absorption
What are the 2 types of receptors in the enteric nervous system?
Enteric sensory neurones: intrinsic primary afferent neurone
Mechanoreceptors - Stretch in muscle cells activates a reflex contractile response. Mainly myenteric plexus
Chemoreceptors - presence of substances e.g. fats, peptides that activate the enteric nervous system. Mainly submucosal plexus
Which reflex mediates receptive relaxation of the stomach?
The vagovagal reflex.
Filling of the stomach is aided by relaxation of the smooth muscle in the fundus.
Relaxation in the fundus is regulated by the vago-vagal reflex (receptive relaxation).
If vagal innervation is interrupted then intra-gastric pressure increases as the stomach fills up.
What is gastric accommodation?
Relaxation of the stomach fundus to accommodate food without increasing pressure.
stomach has an ability to store food, involves contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles of the stomach wall. This process is known as gastric accomodation
Empty stomach vol is ~50ml (because walls are highly folded to Rugae which flattens), during swallowing, the smooth muscles in the fundus relaxes.
Stomach vol increase to 1.5L with small increase in pressure
What happens to intragastric pressure if vagal innervation is interrupted?
Intragastric pressure increases as the stomach fills.
relaxation of the fundus is regulated by vago-vagal reflex termed ‘receptive relaxation’ - if vagal innervation is interrupted (vagotomy), intra-gastric pressure increases as you start to eat
What are the three phases of gastric motility in the stomach?
Propulsion, grinding, and retropulsion.
What is phase of retropulsion?
Backward movement of large particles from the antrum to the body of the stomach for further grinding.
There is a rapid flow of liquids with suspended small particles
There is a delayed flow of large particles towards the pylorus
What is phase of grinding ?
Liquids with small particles pass through the pylorus and leave the stomach. Particles have to be smaller than 2mm
Large particles remain in the bulge of the antrum and are subject to grinding. This is the bolus
Retropulsion of large particles (>2mm) and clearing of the terminal antrum.
What regulates gastric emptying?
Gastric emptying is the process by which the contents of the stomach are discharged into the duodenum.
Primarily regulated by autonomic nervous system (vagus nerve) and GI hormones.
Controlled by pyloric sphincter —> prevents regurgitation of duodenal contents into stomach.
Innervation by vagus = relaxation
Innervation by sympathetic = constriction
Gastric mucosa are highly resistance to acid but can be damaged by bile if regurgitates from the duodenum
How does sympathetic stimulation affect the pyloric sphincter?
It causes constriction of the pyloric sphincter.
How does parasympathetic stimulation affect the pyloric sphincter?
It causes relaxation of the pyloric sphincter.
What are the 3 phases of gastric emptying and mortility?
Cephalic phase (inhibitory phase)
Initiated by thought, sight, smell, taste of food
Vagus nerve stimulates gastric acid and pepsinogen secretion
gastric motility and gastric emptying reduced
Gastric phase (excitatory phase)
Initiated by chemical presence of food in the stomach + prepsence of food (distension)
Regulated by myogenic reflex (stretching of smooth muscles)
Intestinal phase (inhibitory phase)
low pH in duodenum > secretin secretion
Fat > CCK secretion
AA > increase gastrin secretion
Carbs > GIP (gastrin inhibiting peptide) secretion
All these reduce gastric motility. The ileo-gastric reflex initiated by mechanoreceptors in the duodenum > reduced gastric motility.
What stimulates gastric motility during the gastric phase?
Gastric phase of the gastric emptying is an excitatory phase. the stomach empties at a rate proportional to its volume. This is due to 3 mechanism:
Myogenic reflex (stretching of smooth muscle stimulates contraction)
Pressure receptor activation (due to distension of the stomach wall, leading to increased motility via the vagus nerve and local nerve plexuses)
Gastrin release - in response to peptones
What is gastroparesis?
Disorder due to delayed gastric emptying without mechanical obstruction of the stomach. - pathogenesis unclear
The symptoms are: postprandial fullness, nausea, vomiting, bloating, upper abdominal pain
Treatment: dietary changes (several smaller meals per day), pro-motility agents
What is the most common disease associated with gastroparesis?
Diabetes mellitus.
Which part of the digestive tract where most digestion and absoption occurs?
Duodenum and jejunum
Mixing - of chyme from the stomach with pancreatic, liver and intestinal secretions
Propulsion - of food along the GIT
Release - of chyme into the colon
How does contraction (motor) patterns differs in the small intestine during fed (absorptive) and fasting state?
Fed (absorptive) state: initated by chemical and pressure stimuli from food bolus in the GIT
Segmentation = Rings of circular muscles contract (some relax) moving food in both directions. Purpose of this is to mix food
Peristalsis = Involves both longitudinal and circular muscles which contracts and relax (alternates) in a continuous wave pattern along the tract > rhythmically pushes bolus along the tract. Purpose is to propel chyme towards colon.
Fasted state: Small bowel is relatively dormant
But still exhibits synchronised, rhythmic changes in both electrical and motor activity, termed the migrating motor complex (MMC).
Involves sequential contraction of adjacent segments of small intestine.
What is segmentation?
Alternating contractions of circular muscle that mix chyme by moving it in both directions.
What is the main function of peristalsis in the small intestine?
To propel chyme toward the colon.
function of small intestine - mixing stomach content with digestive enzymes, propulsion and release of chyme into colon
What is the migrating motor complex (MMC)?
different from segmentation / peristalsis
A cyclic pattern of motility occurring during fasting that sweeps through the small intestine. Ocurs at intervals of 90-120 mins and consits of 4 phases:
A prolonged quiescent period
Period of increasing action-potential frequency and contractility
Period of peak electrical and mechanical activity that lasts a few minutes
Period of declining activity that merges into the next quiescent period
Usually starts in the stomach, travels to distal ileum. Feeding terminates MMCs and start the fed motor phase (segmentation and peristalsis)
ENS, hormones and extrinsic innervation all impact MMC and transition to fed state. Major determinant of MMC pattern is hormone ‘motilin’.
Which hormone is the major determinant of the MMC pattern?
Motilin - a 22 amino-acid peptide that is synthesised in the duodenal mucosa and released just before phase 3 of MMC cycle
What is the function of the migrating motor complex (MMC)?
The role of MMC is to:
propel particles >2mm from the stomach into duodenum,
To clear residual food (undigested food, desquamated cells, intestinal / pancreatic secretions) from s. intestine
Stop colonic bacteria migrating into terminal ileum.
What are the functions of large intestine?
It has no villi. Functions:
Absorb large quantities of fluid and electrolytes
Absorb short chain fatty acids (products of carbohydrate fermentation)
Regulate release of faecal material
Store/reservoir (distal colon)
Provides environment for synthesis of vitamin B complex and K-beneficial bacteria
Secretes mucus and ions (K+, Cl-, HCO3-)
Name the proximal and distal colon segments and their general function
The proximal colon is the site of absorption and bacterial fermentation. (transverse colon, ascending colon and cecum)
The distal colon is a reservoir/ storage. (descending colon and sigmoid colon)
What are the two main types of colonic contractions?
Rhythmic phasic contractions and giant migrating contractions.
Describe rhythmic phasic vs Giant migrating contractions?
Rhythmic phasic contractions (RPC):
Segmented (haustra) contrations mainly for churning / absorption
Short duration RPC (3secs) - do not propagate along the colon.
Long duration RPC (12-20 sec) - propagate over short distance, aids in absorption of fluid, solidify contents
Giant migrating contractions:
Large amplitude contractions which propagate very rapidly in distal directions over large distance. > mass peristalsis of colonic contents.
Occurs randomly, 2-10x day, as a result of pelvic parasympathetic nerves.
How does sympathetic stimulation affect colonic motility?
It inhibits colonic motility.
What is the extrinsic parasympathetic innervation of the GIT?
Proximal is supplied by vagus nerve, distal is by pelvic nerve
Which nerves supply parasympathetic innervation to the distal colon?
Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2–S4).
Promotes Giant migrating contractions
What is Hirschsprung’s disease?
Congenital absence of enteric nervous system neurons in the distal colon causing failure of peristalsis.
The aganglionic, aperistaltic bowel segment effectively prevents the propulsion of the fecal stream, resulting in in megacolon) above the point where the nerves are missing and hypertrophy of the normal proximal colon (compensatory mechanism).
What is achalasia and chaga disease?
How does parasympathetic stimulation affect colonic motility?
It increases colonic motility.
What triggers the defecation reflex?
Distension of the rectum.
What are long-range intestinal reflexes?
Important in regulation of colon motility - Peristalsis and distension of one part of the GIT influences activity in another part of GIT.
Downstream reflexes (excitatory to prepare for food)
Gastro-ileal reflex - Motility in the stomach leads to increased motility in the ileum, as well as relaxation of ileo-cecal sphincter
Gastro-colic reflex - Motility in the stomach leads to increased motility in the colon *
Duodeno-colic reflex - High tension in the duodenum leads to increased motility of the colon
Upstream reflexes (inhibitory):
Ileo-gastric reflex - Distension of the ileum decreases gastric motility.
Intestino-intestinal reflex - Over-distension of part of the small intestine leads to relaxation of the rest of the small intestine
What happens to the anal sphincters during the defecation reflex?
Involves internal and external anal sphincters which controls defection.
Faeces in the sigmoid colon and rectum > distension > initiates stretch reflex
Stretch receptors are activated > parasympathetic nervous system > motor fibers
Internal anal sphincter (made of involuntary smooth muscles) are activated by PNS —> relaxation > faeces moves to anal canal.
External anal sphincter (voluntary skeletal muscles) innervated by somatic nervous system. Remains constricted to prevent defecation
CNS signals external sphincter to voluntarily relax > defecation.
What muscle type forms the external anal sphincter?
Skeletal muscle.
What are the four anatomical lobes of the liver?
Right (quadrate, and caudate lobes) and left lobe.
Largest solid organ, located in RUQ
Composed of 2 main lobes (R+L) separated by Falciform ligament
What structure separates the caudate and quadrate lobes on the inferior surface of the right liver lobe?
The porta hepatis - H-shaped fissure through which structures leave or enter the liver.
Which structure are present in the porta hepatis?
Common hepatic duct (right anterior)
Hepatic artery proper (left anterior)
Portal vein (posterior)
What structure lines the liver assist maintenance of its position in the abdominal cavity?
Liver is covered by visceral peritoneum like the other intraperitoneal organs. Visceral peritoneum is absent in:
Bare area (where is likes adjacent to diaphragm)
Fossa of GB (where it attaches to liver)
At the porta hepatis
At the groove for inferio vena cava.
Where is the gallbladder located in relation to the liver lobes?
Lies in a shallow fossa between the right lobe and quadrate lobe on the inferior surface.
How many functional segments does the liver have?
Eight segments - based on its blood supply and bile drainage.
Each segment of the liver has an independent supply system which is important for its vascular inflow, outflow and biliary drainage
In patient with cancer, one or more of this segments can be removed and the liver would regenerate.
What are the two main descriptions of the functional unit of the liver?
The acinus and the lobule.
Liver subdivided into 8 segments,within each segment the tissue can be dividedinto lobules or acinus
These are composed to hepatocytes, sinusoidal channels, inlet/exit blood vessels and bile canaliculi
What is the blood supply of the liver?
The liver receives blood via 2 vessels (dual supply):
Hepatic Portal vein - carrying venous blood from the foregut, midgut and hindgut (75%)
Drains via splenic, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric veins.
Hepatic artery - carrying arterial blood (25%)
Blood enters the lobules, mixes in the sinusoids (capillary bed) and drains via hepatic veins into the IVC near the right atrium.
Blood comes in through the central portal tract > sinusoids > central vein
What structures are found in a portal triad?
A branch of the portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct.
In a classic lobule, where does blood drain?
Into the central vein.
Label the bile duct system and GB
In which direction does bile flow within a lobule?
From hepatocytes through canaliculi toward the bile duct in the portal triad.
Which zone of the acinus receives the most oxygenated blood?
Zone I.
Which zone of the acinus is most vulnerable to ischaemia?
Zone III.
Name the cells that makes up the microanatomy of the liver
Hepatocytes - main functional cell
Biliary epithelium - bile secretion/transport
Endothelium - lines hepatic vasculature
Kupffer cells - hepatic macrophages
Stellate cells - lipocytes
What type of cells are hepatocytes histologically classified as?
Polarised polyhedral epithelial cells (20-30uM).
Hepatocytes makes up 60-65% of liver - main functional cell of the liver (get scarred when diseased)
Polarised = different ends of the cells are functionally different (blood supply above and blow to secrete or extract)
There are tight juctions between them to ensure the bile stays within the canaliculus (on lateral cell wall)
Have low mitotic index
Carry out metabolic functions
Don’t have basement membrane but held in by ECM rich in collagen + proteins + proteoglycans
What is the histological classification of biliary epithelium?
They form the collecting vessels to collect canalicular bile - Involves in transport and secretion of hepatic bile
Histology: polarised cuboidal or columnar epithelial cell
What are the functions of endothelium in the liver ?
Made of simple squamous epithelial cells which lines the hepatic vasculature
Protect the liver parenchyma from blood cells, bacteria, virus and filter fluid
Functions:
anti-thrombogenic surface, regulates coagulation / leukocyte traffic, selective uptake of solutes and partciles and scavenging of waste products (in the capillaries)
Which cells act as resident macrophages in the liver?
Kupffer cells.
Located within the sinusoids and makes up 80% of all macrophages in the body
Phagocytosis, receptor mediated endocytosis
Regulation of microcirculation
Removal of endotoxins
Produce cytokines, present antigen and stimulate immune response
Identify this cell in the liver
Stellate cell (ito cells)
Also known as lipocytes, non-hepatocyte cells in the liver
Star shaped, branches and sit between endothelium and hepatocyte
Function - perisinusoidal fat / retinoid (vit A) storing cell
Can transform to fibroblast-like morphology in disease (forms connective tissue > fibrosis of liver)
What are the digestive functions of the liver
Carbohydrate and fat metabolism
Protein metabolism
Storage of vitamins and minerals
Describe the cholesterol synthesis by the liver?
Cholesterol is an essential component of cell membranes. It is also an important component for production of bile acids, steroid hormones and vitamin D.
Hepatocytes covert acetyl-coA > HMG-coA > mevalonate > series of reactions to produce cholesterol.
This reaction is catalysed by HMG-coA reductase
What enzyme is inhibited by statins?
HMG-CoA reductase - catalyses the conversion of acetyl-coA into cholesterol.
Name the two phases of liver drug detoxification (metabolism).
Phase 1 - oxidation by ctochrome P450 emzymes
Phase 2 - Metabolism (conjugation reactions) to make is lipid or water soluble
Liver is responsible for modifying drugs into more water soluble products which are excreted in bile / urine.
Liver converts drug > hydrophilic substances to inactivate or enhance excretion. This is done via phase 1 and phase 2 metabolism
Which enzyme system is responsible for Phase 1 detoxification by the liver?
Cytochrome P450.
Name three plasma proteins synthesised by the liver.
Albumin (50% of all plasma protein)
Fibronectin and components of coagulation cascade
Transferrin
Alpha-1 antitrypsin
Hepcidin and plasminogen.
What are the immune functions of the liver
Protection against pathogens arriving in the blood
Phagocytosis of old or dying cells
Innate immune functions
Induction of tolerance
What are the uses of bile production by liver?
Hepatocytes produce around 500ml bile a day, some stored in the gallbladder - released into the intestine on demand
Involved in emulsification of fat in the intestine
fat soluble vitamin uptake (A,D,E,K)
Excretion of substance which cant be done by kidney (cholesterol and bilirubin)
Which markers are tested to check for liver disease?
ALT is an enzyme in the liver that converts proteins into energy for the liver cells.
AST is an enzyme that helps the body break down amino acids
When liver is damaged, both AST and ALT get released into blood and level increase.
AP (alkaline phosphatase) and gGT are also released
Other - albumin will be low, autoAb (autoimmune hepatitis), viral markers, tumour markers, metabolic indicators.
Which hormone stimulates gallbladder contraction?
Cholecystokinin (CCK).
At what bilirubin level does jaundice become clinically visible?
Around 2 mg/dL.
Bilirubin is a product of haemoglobin catablism from RBC, plus breakdown of myoglobin, cytochrome and peroxidase enzyme.
It is required to form bile (get recycled 6-8x day)
What is the initial step of Bilirubin metabolism?
Macrophages engulf old red blood cells and extract the haem groups from them.
The haem group is then converted into biliverdin through oxidation, which is then reduced to form unconjugated bilirubin
Define the pathway of bilirubin after metabolism
RBC > Haem > Biliverdin (oxidation) > unconjugated bilirubin
Carried by albumin (hydrophobic) and transported to hepatocytes in the liver
In the liver, it is conjugated with glucuronic acid by UDP glucoronyltransferase —> soluble
Conjugated bilirubin excreted through bile ducts into the guts. Occurs via gallbladder which is stimulated by release of CCK by duodenal I cells in reponse to fat
In the colon, its converted to urobilinogen by bacterial or epithelial β-glucuronidase enzymes
Most urobilinogen is oxidised by bacteria into stercobilin and excreted in faeces
20% get reabsorbed into blood > liver
Some urobilinogen is re-used to produce bile, rest transported to kidney
In the kidney, it is oxidised to urobilin and excreted in urine
Is unconjugated bilirubin water soluble?
No.
Which enzyme conjugates bilirubin in hepatocytes?
UDP-glucuronyl transferase.
What is stercobilin responsible for?
Brown colour of faeces.
What causes dark urine in jaundice?
Excretion of conjugated bilirubin as urobilin in urine.
What are the causes of Jaundice?
Pre-hepatic = not related to liver
Intrahepatic / hepatic = liver disorders
post hepatic/ extra hepatic = cause is after the liver
What are the pre-hepatic causes of jaundice?
Haemolysis - increased unconjugated bilirubin with normal AST/ALT, ALP and gGT. Sickle cell anaemia or
Gilbert’s syndrome - Mutation in bilirubin UDP-gluccuronyltransferase 1 gene > low enzyme level > rised unconjugated bilirubin. No Rx required, Sx appears during fasting, dehydration, illness
Sickle cell - abnormal Hb > haemolysis > high bilirubin, low Hb. Rx RBC transfusion to reduce HbS
Neonatal jaundince - common, affects 90% of babies (high risk if born prematurely).
Cause - delay in bilirium clearance from RBC breakdown. Rx phototherapy
In prehepatic jaundice, is bilirubin conjugated or unconjugated?
Unconjugated.
What are the hepatic causes of jaundice?
Jaundice due to liver injury - failure of cellular mechanism of excretion of conjugated bilirunin.
Bloods —> High total bilirubin (conjugated + unconjugated), high AST/ALT (2-20x), mild inc ALP + gGT.
Symptoms —> dark urine, pale stool
Causes —> liver injury, acute hepatitis (viral, alcohol, autoimmune or toxic), chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis
Viral hepatitis - Hep A to E selectively infect hepatocytes > strong immune response > severe hepatitis. Immune system kills infected hepatocytes > cholestasis (reduced bile flow from liver) as bilirubin is not excreted into biliary system. Conj + unconj > circulation. pt not always jaundiced.
Liver injury - causes cholestasis or interruption of bile flow. Due to cancer, bile duct destruction (autoimmune or drugs) or cholestasis 2ndary to pregnancy or drug toxicity.
Which liver enzymes are markedly raised in hepatic jaundice?
AST and ALT (2-20x)
What are the causes of post-hepatic jaundice ?
Bloods —> increased conj bilirubin, mod high AST/ALT (x5) and raised ALP/gGT (x3)
Causes —> Gallstones, ductal disease (cancer or inflammation), compression of ducts (lymph node, pancreatic ca)
Gallstones - mostly asymptomatic, women>men, caused by imbalance in chemical constituents of bile. If the stone goes to bile duct, cause obstruction, jaundice and cholangitis (inflammation of bile duct tract).
Ca pancreas - Growth > obstruction of bottom of common bile duct > painless jaundice + weight loss.
Which enzymes are disproportionately raised in post-hepatic jaundice?
ALP and GGT.
Name three major drivers of liver cirrhosis.
Viral hepatitis, alcohol, and metabolic syndrome/obesity.
These factors then act to cause: acute hepatitis → Chronic hepatitis → Liver fibrosis → Liver Cirrhosis → May lead to lead to liver cancer
What complication of cirrhosis leads to oesophageal varices?
Portal hypertension - an excess fibrosis > increase in BP in vessels that drain into liver from intestine and kidneys.
This leads to:
Renal failure
Varices (enlarged vein) in oesophagus
Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen)
Ascites (fluid collecting in peritoneal cavity)
What is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease associated with?
Obesity and metabolic syndrome.
Liver steatosis = excess accumulation of fat in the liver.
Alcohol and obesity are risk factors for liver disease as they can cause liver steatosis.
In the absense of excess alcohol, this is referred to as Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
What can Liver steatosis / NAFLD progress to?
Steatohepatitis, Fibrosis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma.
Which liver cell type transforms into fibrogenic cells in liver disease?
Stellate (Ito) cells.
What are the 3 functional compartments of the GI tract?
What type of cell does majority of the oral mucosa contains?
Oral cavity:
Mostly non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelia
3 types of oral mucosa;
Lining (lips, cheeks, soft palate)
Masticatory (hard palate, gingiva)
Specialised (dorsum of the tongue) - taste bud
Some keratinisation occurs in some parts to protect it
Keratinisation can also be sign of damage to mucosa
What type of epithelium is found in hard vs soft palate?
Hard palate mucosa = partly kertinised
sof palate = inferiorly non-keratinised contains elastic lamina. Superiorly has respiratory epithelia (ciliated pseudostratified) - faces nasal surface.
What are the three structural adaptations that increase small intestinal surface area?
Small intestine is exclusively responbile for absorption of dietary nutrients.
There are 3 levels of increasing surface area:
Macroscopic folds of Kerckring (plicae circulares)
Villi, which are surrounded by the openings of glandular structures called crypts of Lieberkühn, or crypts
Microvilli on the apical surface of the epithelial cells and crypts
Approximately how much fluid does the small intestine reabsorb per day?
Approximately 6.5 litres.
large intestine re-absorbs 1.9L
Water absorption in the intestine depends primarily on the absorption of which two ions?
Sodium (Na⁺) and chloride (Cl⁻).
NA+, CL- and HCO3- are transported into lateral intracellular spaces
This results in high NaCl near apical end of intracellular space > hypertonic
This causes osmotic flow of water from the lumen via tight junctions into the intracellular space.
Is water absorption in the small intestine paracellular, transcellular, or both?
Both paracellular and transcellular.
What are the different transport routes of Na+ entry into the intestine?
Na+ is absorbed along the entire length of the intestine. There are 4 different transport routes of entry depending on where we are in the gut
Na/Glucose transport or Na/Amino acid transport
Na-H exchanger
Parallel Na-H and Cl-HCO3 exchange
Epithelial Na+ channels
Which transporter mediates sodium-glucose cotransport (or Na+/amino acid transport) in the small intestine?
SGLT1.
Occurs in fed state
Na+ is transported into epithelial cell from the lumen via SGLT1 pritein along with glucose (symport)
This is down the Na conc but against glu cons
Na+ is actively transported out the epithelial cell via Na/K ATPase > blood
What enzyme maintains the sodium gradient by pumping Na⁺ out of epithelial cells into blood?
Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase.
In which state (fed or fasted) is Na⁺/glucose cotransport most active?
Fed state.
Which exchanger allows Na⁺ entry in exchange for H⁺ secretion?
Na⁺/H⁺ exchanger.
Sodium is actively transported out the epithelial cell via Na/K ATPase, into the blood
Sodium diffuses into the epithelial cell from the lumen via an antiporter protein, and H+ leaves the cell into the lumen
Absorption will be linked with pH, more likely to occur in intestine, not stomach, think about proton gradient
Which two apical membrane exchangers mediate electroneutral NaCl absorption?
Parallel Na⁺/H⁺ and Cl⁻/HCO₃⁻ exchangers (closely linked).
This is the mode of sodium absorption that is affected by secondary messengers
H+ and HCO3- leave the epithelial cell whereas Na+ and Cl- enter the epithelial cell through their respective antiporter proteins (Na/H and Cl/HCO3 exchangers)
This process is regulated by cAMP and cGMP as well as intracellular Ca2+. An increase in either one of these reduces NaCl absorption.
Reduction in NaCl absorption also affects water absorption, this results in a secretory diarrhoea
This is the primary method of sodium absorption in the fasted state (between meals)
Occurs in the ileum and throughout large intestine. Not affected by luminal glucose or pH.
Which second messengers reduce electroneutral NaCl absorption?
cAMP, cGMP, and intracellular Ca²⁺.
Enterotoxins induce secretory diarrhoea by elevating cAMP and inhibiting NaCl absorption
Which sodium channel is responsible for Na⁺ absorption in the distal colon?
Epithelial sodium channel (ENaC).
Na+ entry occurs via apical membrane via ENaC that are highly sepecific for Na+
Na+ in epithelium > blood via Na/K ATPase
Na+ from lumen > epithelial cells down conc gradient via ENaC
This makes Na+ absorption in the distal colon highly efficient as it allows Na+ to be absorbed against large conc gradient
Which hormone increases ENaC activity in the colon?
Aldosterone (mineralocorticoid) - increases Na+ by:
Increase the opening of apical Na+ channels
Inserts pre-formed Na+ channels from sub-apical epithelial vesicle poor into the apical membrane
Increase synthesis of apical Na+ channel and Na/K pumps
Which 2 classes of chemical mediators that regulate intestinal electrolyte transport?
Absorptagogues promote absorption
Secretagogues promote secretion (diarrhoea)
Name two absorptagogues that stimulate intestinal sodium absorption.
Angiotensin and aldosterone. (other e.g. somatostatin, enkephalins and noradrenaline)
Dehydration and low BP > stimulation of RAAS axis > aldosterone and angiotensine release
They regulate Na+ homeostasis by stimulating Na+ absorption
Angiotensin - Enchances small intestine electroneutral NaCl absorption by upregulating apical membrane Na-H+ exchange
Aldosterone - Stimulates colon Na+ absorption via ENaC
What are the 4 categories of secretagogues?
Bacterial enterotoxins (Cholera, C.diff, E.coli)
Hormones and neurotransmitters (ACh, VIP)
Products of cells of the immune system (histamine)
Laxatives (bile acids)
Name one bacterial enterotoins cause of secretory diarrhoea.
Vibrio cholerae.
Transmission occurs through ingesting contaminated food or water
cholera patient produce ~20L watery stool per day
Releases Cholera toxin (enterotoxin) > fatal diarrhoea (lead to shock in 2 - 12hrs)
Enterotoxin induce intracellular conc of cAMP > Cl and K+ secretion + inhibition of electroneutral NaCl absorption
The 2nd messenger do not alter the nutrient-coupled Na+ absorption (Na/Glu), giving oral dioralyte with Na+ and glu is effective Rx.
Which intracellular second messenger is increased by cholera toxin?
cAMP.
increases Cl and K secretion, inhibits NaCl absorption
Why is oral rehydration solution effective in cholera?
Because Na⁺/glucose cotransport remains functional, allowing sodium and water absorption.
Dioralyte contains Sodium chloride 350mg, Potassium chloride 300mg, Sodium citrate 580mg, Pre-cooked rice powder 6g
Name the types of laxatives that are form of secretogogue
Bulk laxatives - Increase fibre when taken with water
Stool softeners - allow water to enter the stool more readily
Lubricant agents - Lubricate the stool surface
Osmotic laxatives - Hypertonic increase in stool water
Stimulant laxatives - Increase peristalsis
Prokinetic laxatives - Increase peristalsis
Where does active vitamin D–dependent calcium absorption occur?
Duodenum.
Ca2+ load in small intestine is both dietary source and digestive secretions.
Small intestine absorbs ~500mg/day of Ca2+ and secretes ~325mg/day so net uptake = 175mg/day
What are the 2 mechanisms of Ca2+ absorption in the intestine?
Calcium is absorbed by both active and passive transport
Passive transport - absorption of Ca2+ that occurs throughout the whole small intestine, via the paracellular pathway, which is not under the control of vitamin D receptors
Active transport - active, trans-cellular uptake of Ca2+ occurs only in the epithelial cells of the duodenum and is under the control of vitamin D receptors.
What is Rickets and what causes it?
Vitamin D deficiency > hypocalcaemia > soft bones > bowed legs.
Rx - increase dietary Ca+ and vitamin D intake, sunlight exposure, oily fish.
Which form of dietary iron is more bioavailable, haem or non-haem?
Haem iron.
Dietary iron comes from 2 different sources - inorganic and haem food groups.
Haem is more bioavailable - iron is readily present in haem foods such as meat, chicken and fish.
only <10% of the consumed iron is absorbed (equal amounts of rion absorption from haem and inorganic food)
Iron from destroyed erythrocytes also recycled by the body
Iron can be stored in liver, spleen and bone marrow
Which transporter brings Fe²⁺ into enterocytes?
DMT1.
Iron absorption primarily occurs in small intestine via action of reductase enzyme on the apical surface of enterocytes.
The enzyme reduces Fe3+ into Fe2+ > get transported into enterocytes via DMT1 transporter protein located inside the enterocytes.
Fe2+ stored by bound to ferritin or transported into blood via ferroportin followed by oxidation to ferric rion (Fe3+) by hephaestin.
Which protein exports iron from enterocytes into the bloodstream?
Ferroportin.
Describe the process of non-enterocyte iron transport (after being absorbed)
In the blood stream, ferric iron is bound to transferrin and delivered to target cells
At target cells, it binds to transferrin receptors > triggers receptor mediated endocytosis
Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+ within endosomes by reductase enzyme, then transported into cytoplasm via DMT1
In the cytoplasm, Fe2+ is utilised by mitochondria to produce cytochrome enzymes or stored bound to ferritin.
Unused Fe2+ can be released from cell via ferroportin prn.
Which liver hormone regulates systemic iron homeostasis?
Hepcidin.
Liver, spleen and bone marrow are major stores of iron
absorption must be tightly regulated as per body iron level
Hepcidin is a hormone produced in the liver, it tightly regulates iron metabolism
High iron levels > hepcidin release by liver > binds to ferroportin > internalisation and degradation of ferroportin > reduces cellular iron transport > lowers iron level.
Low iron leve > suppresion of hepcidin by liver
What happens to ferroportin when hepcidin levels are high?
Ferroportin is internalised and degraded > reduced iron level
Which cytokine stimulates hepcidin production during inflammation?
Interleukin-6 (IL-6).
Inflammation / infection > high hepcidin levels due to IL-6 which induce hepcidin production.
This inhibits cellular iron absorption in small intestine and efflux of iron stored in macrophages. Bacteria needs iron to proliferate so iron is locked away.
In anaemia of chronic disease, are hepcidin levels high or low?
High.
Infection / inflammation causes high hepcidin which lowers iron levels
Prolonged hepcidin activation in inflammation > anaemia of chronic disease > limited bacterial iron acquisition + reactive O2 species formation.
Anaemia of chronic disease is different from iron deficiency anaemia (former locks away abdundant iron stores, later is due to iron deficiency)
So hepcidin levels are gold standard to differentiate between IDA and ACD
In iron deficiency anaemia, are hepcidin levels high or low?
Low.
Define anaemia
Levels of Haemoglobin below 13 g/dL in men over 15 years, below 12 g/dL in non-pregnant women over 15 years, and below 11 g/dL in pregnant women
What is hereditary haemochromatosis?
Hereditary disease characterised by improper dietary iron metabolism due to either:
Inability to produce hepcidin
Mutated, non-functional hepcidin
Insensitivity of ferroportin to hepcidin
This results in the accumulation of iron in body tissues.
Eventually cause organ damage, most notably in the liver and pancreas. Pancreatic end organ damage can cause diabetes mellitus, in the liver it can cause liver failure
Rx - Phlebotomy to remove excess iron
What causes organ damage in hereditary haemochromatosis?
Occurs through fenton reactions and reactive oxygen species.
These mediates oxidative stress, cellular damage and eventually cellular death by apoptotic signalling. Organs involved are:
What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men?
Gastrointestinal blood loss.
IDA has prevalence of 2-5% in men and postmenopasal women in developed world.
Menstrual blood loss is common cause of IDA in pre-menopausal women
GI blood loss common cause in men / post-menopausal women
Which antibody test is used to screen for coeliac disease?
Anti–tissue transglutaminase antibodies. (+ small bowel biopsy)
Autoimmune disorder of small bowel > immune reaction to gliadin (gluten protein found in wheat, barley and rye)
Gluten sensitive enteropathy = exposure to gliadin > enzyme tissue transglutaminase modifies it > cross reaction with bowel tissue by immune system > inflammation > villous atrophy
Sx - IDA, diarrhoea, weight loss, stunted growth in children, fatigue.
Rx - life-long gluten free diet
What structural change occurs in the small intestine in coeliac disease?
Villous atrophy.
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