XIV.1. Which of the following is the correct developmental sequence
of the central nervous system?
a. Induction, neurulation, proliferation, migration, organization,
synaptogenesis, and myelination
b. Induction, neurulation, proliferation, organization, synapto-
genesis, migration, and myelination
c. Proliferation, induction, neurulation, migration, organization,
d. Neurulation, induction, proliferation, organization, migration,
e. Neurulation, proliferation, organization, induction, migration,
XIV.1. Answer a.
Genetic advances in embryogenesis have unfolded a com-
plex orchestration of gene expressions in place of the tra-
ditional developmental epochs (induction, neurulation,
proliferation, migration, organization, synaptogenesis, and
myelination). Causes of malformation of the central ner-
vous system are multifactorial. Genetic causes, vitamin
excess or deficiency, infections, or teratogens any time
during pregnancy may disturb the preprogrammed
mechanisms.
XIV.2. Which portion of the spine is the most common location for
myelomeningocele?
a. Cervical only
b. Thoracic only
c. Lumbosacral
d. Sacral
e. Cervical and thoracic
XIV.2. Answer c.
Myelomeningocele (spina bifida cystica) consists of her-
niation of the spinal cord and meninges through a verte-
bral defect. Lumbosacral involvement is most common,
and the neurologic deficit depends on the level of the
lesion. Brain imaging shows complex malformation of the
craniovertebral junction, brain, and brainstem (Chiari type
II malformation) and associated hydrocephalus in more
than 80% of patients with myelomeningocele.
XIV.3. Which of the following is the correct association between a
genetic cause and a malformation of the central nervous system?
a. Doublecortin and holoprosencephaly
b. SHH mutation and lissencephaly
c. LIS1 mutation and myelomeningocele
d. FLN1 mutation and periventricular heterotopia
e. Trisomy 18 and schizencephaly
XIV.3. Answer d.
Periventricular heterotopia may be X-linked due to a
filamin-1 gene (FLN1) mutation. Mutations in the double-
cortin gene (DCX) on chromosome X result in anterior-
dominant subcortical band heterotopia in heterozygous
females and lissencephaly in hemizygous males. Affected
females can be asymptomatic from band heterotopia.
Posterior-dominant subcortical band heterotopias are
associated with lissencephaly type 1 gene (LIS1) muta-
tions on chromosome 17. Sonic Hedgehog gene (SHH)
mutation and trisomy 18 can be genetic causes of holo-
prosencephaly.
XIV.4 A 2-year-old child presents with parental concern of develop-
mental delays. The child can walk forward and backward inde-
pendently, feed himself independently with a spoon, and say 5
words. What is the developmental age of this child?
a. 9 months
b. 12 months
c. 15 months
d. 18 months
e. 2 years
XIV.4. Answer c.
At age 15 months, a typically developing child would be
expected to be able to walk backward, scribble with an
immature grasp, use a spoon and cup, and speak 4 to 6
words. By comparison, a 2-year-old child would be
expected to be able to walk up and down stairs, jump,
draw a line, undress, and speak 2-word phrases.
XIV.5. A 5-year-old child can skip, climb, play board games with other
children, dress independently, draw a complete person, and
write her name. She does not recognize all numbers and does
not understand addition concepts. Which of the following best
describes these findings?
a. Normal development
b. Learning disorder with mathematics impairment
c. Learning disorder with mathematics and reading impairment
d. Mild intellectual disability
e. Global developmental delay
XIV.5. Answer b.
The development of this 5-year-old child is normal in the
gross motor, fine motor/adaptive, language, social, and
emotional domains. However, she has demonstrated per-
sistent difficulties learning and using number facts and
calculations, which is consistent with a specific learning
disorder with mathematics impairment.
XIV.6. An adult has a diagnosis of moderate intellectual disability.
Which of the following would this adult be able to do?
a. Understand concepts and communicate at a fifth-grade level,
maintain a simple job independently, and make legal and
health care decisions
b. Understand concepts and communicate at a fifth-grade level,
work at a sheltered workplace, and make legal and health care
decisions with support
c. Understand concepts and communicate at a second-grade
level, work at a sheltered workplace, and make legal and
health decisions with support
d. Understand concepts and communicate at a second-grade
level, work at a sheltered workplace, and live in a group home
or with family
e. Understand concepts and communicate at a preschool level,
work at a sheltered workplace, and live in a group home or
with family
XIV.6. Answer d.
According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of
Mental Disorders (Fifth Edition), adults with moderate
intellectual disability have elementary-level academic
skills and need considerable support in the workplace.
The adult can be independent for eating, personal hygiene,
and household tasks but will require continued support.
XIV.7. A child has cerebral palsy with all 4 limbs involved, but the
lower limbs are affected more than the upper limbs. Which
classification is correct?
a. Diplegia
b. Paraplegia
c. Double hemiplegia
d. Quadriplegia
e. Hemiplegia
XIV.7. Answer a.
If all 4 limbs are involved in a child with cerebral palsy,
but the lower extremities are involved more than the upper
extremities, the classification is diplegia.
XIV.8. If a patient presented with seizures, ash leaf spots, and facial
angiomas, what would you expect to find with magnetic reso-
nance imaging (MRI) of the brain?
a. Bilateral acoustic neuroma
b. Cortical tuber
c. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
d. Optic glioma
e. Leptomeningeal angiomatosis
XIV.8. Answer b.
The clinical findings are those expected with tuberous
sclerosis complex (TSC). MRI findings in TSC may include
cortical tubers, subependymal nodules, and subependy-
mal giant cell astrocytomas. Bilateral acoustic neuromas
occur in neurofibromatosis type 2. Cerebellar hemangio-
blastomas are a manifestation of von Hippel-Lindau dis-
ease. Optic gliomas may be seen in neurofibromatosis type 1. Leptomeningeal angiomatosis is a characteristic of
Sturge-Weber syndrome.
XIV.9. Which of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for neurofi-
bromatosis type 1 (NF1)?
a. At least 6 café au lait spots
b. At least 2 neurofibromas
c. Optic glioma
d. First-degree relative with NF1
e. At least 2 meningiomas
XIV.9. Answer e.
Multiple meningiomas may occur in patients with neuro-
fibromatosis type 2, but they are not among the diagnostic
criteria for NF1. The other 4 choices are diagnostic criteria
for NF1.
XIV.10. A 25-year-old patient presents with progressive deafness and
dizziness. Magnetic resonance imaging shows bilateral acous-
tic neuromas. When you counsel this patient, how should you
describe the inheritance of this syndrome?
a. Sporadic mutation
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Autosomal dominant
d. X-linked
e. Polygenic inheritance
XIV.10. Answer c.
Bilateral acoustic neuromas are characteristic of neurofi-
bromatosis type 2. Inheritance is autosomal dominant.
XIV.11. Which of the following is the most common neurocutaneous
disorder?
a. Neurofibromatosis type 1
b. Tuberous sclerosis complex
c. Hypomelanosis of Ito
d. Ataxia-telangiectasia
e. Sturge-Weber syndrome
XIV.11. Answer a.
Neurofibromatosis type 1 is the most common neurocuta-
neous disorder. With a prevalence of approximately 1 in
3,000 persons, it is more than 10 times more common than
neurofibromatosis type 2.
XIV.12. A 7-year-old girl presents with worsening headaches. Magnetic
resonance imaging shows obstructive hydrocephalus due to an
intraventricular mass. After resection, pathology findings are
consistent with a subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (SEGA).
Which of the following neurocutaneous syndromes is most
likely to accompany this diagnosis?
a. Neurofibromatosis type 2
c. Ataxia-telangiectasia
d. von Hippel-Lindau disease
e. Linear sebaceous nevus syndrome
XIV.12. Answer b.
SEGAs are seen in patients with tuberous sclerosis com-
plex. These patients may also have cortical tubers.
XIV.13. A 9-month-old female infant presents with intractable seizures
since age 3 months. She has a history of developmental delay.
She has microcephaly but no other dysmorphism. She has
tremors, but no other neurologic abnormalities are evident.
Electroencephalography shows a generalized atypical spike-
and-wave pattern. On cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) evaluation, the
glucose level is 10 mg/dL (plasma glucose, 72 mg/dL, is within
the reference range), and CSF lactate is on the lower end of the
reference range. Which treatment is most likely to be effective
for epilepsy management?
a. Divalproex sodium (Depakote)
b. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
c. Felbamate
d. Ketogenic diet
e. Phenobarbital
XIV.13. Answer d.
Infants with glucose transporter 1 deficiency may present
with intractable seizures associated with low CSF glucose
and low or low-normal CSF lactate levels. Patients respond
to therapy with a ketogenic diet, which provides an alter-
native fuel source in the form of ketone bodies. Barbiturates,
methylxanthines, and valproic acid can exacerbate the
condition and should be avoided.
XIV.14. A 14-year-old adolescent boy presents with an acute ischemic
infarct in the left middle cerebral artery territory. He is tall,
has long fingers, and complains of long-standing vision prob-
lems with progressive myopia. What single blood test is most
likely to be diagnostically useful?
a. Peripheral blood smear
b. Thyrotropin
c. Lactic acid
d. Homocysteine
e. Ammonia
XIV.14. Answer d.
Homocystinuria is inherited as an autosomal recessive
disorder and is due to deficiency of various enzymes,
including cystathionine β-synthase. Patients have a mar-
fanoid appearance with long limbs, arachnodactyly, and
ectopia lentis with downward dislocation of the lens.
Approximately 50% of patients have intellectual disabil-
ity. Most acute neurologic features result from cerebral
thromboembolic disease. Approximately 40% of patients
with cystathionine β-synthase deficiency respond to pyri-
doxine therapy.
XIV.15. A 4-day-old male newborn presents to the emergency depart-
ment with poor feeding and lethargy. There is no history of
trauma or respiratory symptoms. He is mildly hypothermic
with a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute. His heart rate
is normal with good peripheral pulses. His anterior fontanelle
is bulging. His pupils are reactive, but he is profoundly lethar-
gic. Results for complete blood cell count, electrolytes, and
glucose are normal except for respiratory alkalosis. Blood cul-
ture and cerebrospinal fluid results are pending. Computed
tomography of the head shows decreased gray-white differen-
tiation with small ventricles. Ammonia is 350 µmol/L. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a. Mitochondrial disorder
b. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency (urea cycle disorder)
c. Congenital disorder of glycosylation
d. Organic aciduria
e. Hurler syndrome
XIV.15. Answer b.
Urea cycle disorders present in the neonatal period with
clinical findings as described for this patient. The diagno-
sis is suggested by marked hyperammonemia in the pres-
ence of respiratory alkalosis. OTC deficiency is an X-linked
disorder that has a poor neurologic outcome if the hyper-
ammonemia is not treated promptly and aggressively.
Treatment must include discontinuation of protein intake,
hemodialysis, sodium benzoate, sodium phenylacetate,
and arginine hydrochloride. Organic aciduria can present
with hyperammonemia but in the presence of metabolic
acidosis. The other conditions generally do not present
with hyperammonemia.
XIV.16. Which statement is true for the mucopolysaccharidoses?
a. They are caused by abnormal storage of glycosaminoglycans in peroxisomes
b. The anesthetist should expect a patient’s airway to be particu-
larly difficult to intubate at induction
c. All are autosomal recessive in inheritance
d. Clinical features are static and nonprogressive
e. Intubation becomes less difficult as children grow older
XIV.16. Answer b.
Clinical features of mucopolysaccharidoses include a
chronic and progressive course, multisystemic involve-
ment, organomegaly, dysostosis multiplex, and coarse
facies. Inheritance of Hunter disease is X-linked recessive.
XIV.17. Which of the following is an X-linked lysosomal disorder?
a. Fabry disease
b. Hurler syndrome
c. Pompe disease
d. Tay-Sachs disease
e. Sanfilippo syndrome
XIV.17. Answer a.
Fabry disease is an X-linked recessive disorder of glyco-
sphingolipid catabolism resulting from deficiency of the
enzyme α-galactosidase. The other conditions are inher-
ited in an autosomal recessive manner. Hurler syndrome
and Sanfilippo syndrome are autosomal recessive muco-
polysaccharidoses. Pompe disease is an autosomal reces-
sive glycogen storage disease due to deficiency of
lysosomal acid maltase (acid α-glucosidase). Tay-Sachs
disease is an autosomal recessive disease caused by a deficiency of the α subunit of β-hexosaminidase A, which
results in GM2 gangliosidosis.
XIV.18. What substrate accumulates in Tay-Sachs disease?
a. GM2 ganglioside
b. Heparan sulfate
c. Dermatan sulfate
d. Cerebroside sulfate
e. Psychosine
XIV.18. Answer a.
GM2 gangliosidoses are a group of inherited disorders
caused by excessive accumulation of GM2 ganglioside in
the central nervous system. Hydrolysis of GM2 ganglioside
requires 3 gene products: the α and β subunits of β-hexosa-
minidase isoenzymes and the GM2 activator protein.
Deficiencies in these gene products give rise to different
forms of GM2 gangliosidoses. Tay-Sachs disease is caused
by a deficiency of the α subunit of β-hexosaminidase A.
Mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders due to
defects in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans, includ-
ing heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate, keratan sulfate,
chondroitin sulfate, and hyaluronan. Cerebroside sulfate
may be found in patients with metachromatic leukodystro-
phy and globoid cell leukodystrophy. Globoid cell leuko-
dystrophy is caused by deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme
galactosylceramidase, which leads to accumulation of psy-
chosine in the nervous system.
XIV.19. If a patient had the infantile or juvenile form of Alexander
disease, what magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings
would be expected?
a. Diffuse cystic changes in the white matter
b. Extensive calcification of the basal ganglia
c. Normal MRI findings
d. White matter abnormalities with frontal predominance, includ-
ing the anterior two-thirds of the basal ganglia
e. Contrast-enhancing involvement of the splenium of the corpus
callosum and parietooccipital white matter
XIV.19. Answer d.
Alexander disease is a primary disorder of astrocytes due
to a toxic gain-of-function mutation in the gene that
encodes glial fibrillary acidic protein, GFAP. MRI findings
suggestive of Alexander disease include extensive cerebral
white matter changes with frontal predominance.
XIV.20. A 9-month-old girl presents with episodes of rapid deteriora-
tion after febrile illnesses and minor head trauma. Magnetic
resonance imaging shows diffusely abnormal white matter,
which is replaced over time by cerebrospinal fluid. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
a. Alexander disease
b. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
c. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
d. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
e. Vanishing white matter disease
XIV.20. Answer e.
Leukoencephalopathy with vanishing white matter dis-
ease is an autosomal recessive condition due to muta-
tions in the genes encoding each of the 5 subunits of
eukaryotic translation initiation factor eIF2B. The course
is chronic and progressive with episodes of deterioration
initiated by minor infections, minor head trauma, or
acute fright.
Diffuse symmetrical cerebral white matter changes are
present early and spare the subcortical U fibers, outer cor-
pus callosum, internal capsules, and anterior commissure.
Progressive cystic degeneration results in replacement of
the white matter by cerebrospinal fluid.
XIV.21. For which disease is the presence of sulfatides in the urine
diagnostic?
b. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
c. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
d. Krabbe disease
e. Canavan disease
XIV.21. Answer b.
Diagnosis of the most common form of metachromatic leu-
kodystrophy is confirmed with the presence of sulfatides
in the urine associated with low arylsulfatase A activity.
Sulfatides are not excreted in the urine when the decreased
arylsulfatase A activity is due to the presence of the benign
pseudodeficiency alleles; affected patients are asymptom-
atic. The finding of sulfatides in the urine with normal
arylsulfatase A activity suggests the presence of saposin B
(activator protein) deficiency.
XIV.22. A 12-month-old boy presents with rotatory eye movements and
hypotonia. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows a near
absence of myelin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
b. Alexander disease
d. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease (PMD)
XIV.22. Answer d.
PMD is an X-linked disorder due to deficient formation of
proteolipid protein (PLP) in the central nervous system
associated with mutations or duplication of the PLP gene.
Patients with classic PMD present with rotatory eye move-
ments and hypotonia, followed by slowly progressive
involuntary movements and spasticity. MRI reveals a
severe reduction or absence of central myelin. Nerve conduction studies may show evidence of demyelinating
peripheral neuropathy.
XIV.23. Which of the following is not a mitochondrial DNA point muta-
tion disorder?
a. Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-
like episodes (MELAS)
b. Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF)
c. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)
d. Pearson syndrome
e. Neurogenic weakness, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa (NARP)
XIV.23. Answer d.
Mitochondrial DNA point mutations are usually mater-
nally inherited. More than half the reported disease-
related point mutations are located within mitochondrial
transfer RNA genes. Common disorders are MELAS,
MERRF, LHON, and NARP.
XIV.24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Leigh
syndrome?
a. Bilaterally symmetrical lesions in the basal ganglia, thalamus,
and brainstem
b. Onset in early childhood
c. Death rate of 50% by age 3 years
d. Rarely adult presentation
e. Least frequent presentation of mitochondrial disease in children
XIV.24. Answer e.
Leigh syndrome (subacute necrotizing encephalomyelopa-
thy) is the most frequent presentation of mitochondrial
disease in children. The signs of classic Leigh syndrome, a
rapidly progressive neurologic disorder, usually begin
between the ages of 3 months and 2 years. In most chil-
dren, the first noticeable sign is the loss of previously
acquired motor skills. About 50% of affected children die
by age 2 to 3 years. Leigh syndrome is characterized by
bilaterally symmetrical lesions in the basal ganglia, thala-
mus, and brainstem. Rare adult-onset forms have been
reported.
XIV.25. A 50-year-old woman presented with acute difficulty speaking.
Her background history was significant for progressive hearing
loss, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a seizure disorder. A left
hemispheric stroke was diagnosed. One month later, confusion
developed and an acute right hemispheric stroke was diag-
nosed. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) axial sequences are
shown in the image below (upper row, fluid-attenuated inver-
sion recovery imaging; lower row, diffusion-weighted imaging).
What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s stroke?
a. Endocarditis
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-
d. Susac syndrome
e. Bilateral carotid artery stenosis with watershed infarctions
XIV.25. Answer c.
MELAS is a maternally inherited mitochondrial disorder
characterized by strokes that are often in a nonvascular ter-
ritory pattern as shown in the MRI sequences. Patients
may have other features, including short stature, hearing
loss, migraine headaches, seizures, type 2 diabetes melli-
tus, and gastrointestinal dysmotility with recurrent vomit-
ing or intestinal pseudo-obstruction. Elevated levels of
lactate in serum or cerebrospinal fluid (or both) in addition
to muscle biopsy and genetic testing can be diagnostically
helpful. These strokes are more likely than watershed
infarcts to cross the middle cerebral and posterior cerebral
territories and are not characteristic of strokes due to atrial
fibrillation or endocarditis. Susac syndrome is a vasculitic
condition characterized by involvement of the brain (often
the corpus callosum), cochlea (hearing loss), and eye
(branch retinal artery occlusions).
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