HPL 03

1. The combination of interactions between, vision, equilibrium, proprioception and hearing provide pilots with: A) Spatial orientation. B) An illusion C) Perception. D) Size constancy.

2. A hypothesis is made and then information is sought to confirm it, is a description of: A) Top down processing. B) Mental model. C) Perception. D) Bottom up processing.

3. Sensed information is used to slowly construct a useful perception of the world. This is a description of: A) Bottom up processing. B) Perception. C) Top down processing. D) Size constancy.

4. Perception can be influenced by which of the following:Mark all correct answers. A) Past experience. B) The ambiguity or otherwise of the cues. C) The number of cues available. D) Perceptual set and expectancy. E) The rods and cones of the eye.

5. A false or misinterpreted perception of a sensory experience is called __________. A) an illusion B) a mental model

6. __________ describes the brain's ability to interpret (for example) multiple perspectives of a person's face as all belonging to the same person. A) Shape constancy B) Size constancy C) Bottom up processing D) Top down processing

7. Misinterpreting the size of human figures in an 'Ames Room' is an example of the brain trying to maintain __________ constancy. A) size B) shape C) sensory D) accurate

8. Flickering light from strobes, or sunlight through rotors or propellers, can induce __________ and vertigo. A) dizziness B) vomiting C) an illusion

9. Perception is __________. A) subjective B) infallible C) accurate

10. Faulty __________ models are the prime cause of cognitive illusions. A) mental B) physical C) biological D) sensory

11. The basis of the perceptual process is receiving __________ information and constructing mental models to make sense of it. A) sensory B) physical C) biological D) mental

12. Mental models, once created, __________ . A) often become very rigid and unsusceptible to change B) are usually flexible and susceptible to change

13. Mental models, can pose a threat because they can be very __________. A) persuasive B) alarming C) sensory

14. An inability to visually detect other aircraft in daylight, at high altitude and in clear skies, is known as: A) Empty field myopia. B) The black hole effect. C) The leans. D) Coriolis.

15. Which of the following are most likely to be associated with, or result from, the Black hole effect: Mark 2 correct answers. A) A night time visual approach which ends up being dangerously low. B) A runway surrounded by unlit terrain or sea at night. C) A daylight visual approach which ends up being dangerously high. D) An ILS approach at night. E) Slavishly following the PAPI guidance at night.

16. A false sensation of pitching up when accelerating (e.g. take-off at night) or pitching down when decelerating (e.g. configuring the aircraft for landing in IMC) is a description of: A) The somatogravic illusion. B) Coriolis. C) The leans. D) The somatogyral illusion.

17. A false sensation of increasing or decreasing aircraft bank or attitude (caused by gentle or unintentional control inputs in IMC) is a description of: A) The leans. B) The somatogravic illusion. C) Coriolis. D) The somatogyral illusion.

18. A false sensation of tumbling, usually when you move your head while the aircraft is turning in IMC, is a description of: A) Coriolis. B) Vertigo. C) The somatogravic illusion. D) The leans.

19. Falsely sensing an angular acceleration, or falsely sensing no angular acceleration when one is present, is an example of: A) The somatogravic illusion. B) The somatogyral illusion. C) Coriolis. D) Air sickness.

20. A false sense of orientation caused by the fact that the vestibular system interprets positive g as ‘down’ is the primary reason why the following, so-called, sense is so dangerous: A) Seat of the pants sense. B) G sense. C) Angular sense. D) Somatogyral sense.

21. Which of the following are valid techniques for countering spatial disorientation:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Establish as many visual cues as possible. B) Maintain awareness of the risk of disorientation when entering IMC. C) Return to VMC as soon as possible. D) Refer to, and rely on, your aircraft instruments. E) Minimise the number of vestibular cues. F) Concentrate hard on at least one of your instruments.

22. Atmospheric haze is most likely to create a false perception of __________. A) horizontal distance B) angles C) speed

23. Lack of textural cues can cause difficulty __________. A) in the flare when landing B) when levelling off C) in the climb

24. An up-sloping runway can give the illusion that you are __________ on the approach. A) high B) low

25. False horizons caused by gently sloping terrain or gently sloping cloud tops can create __________. A) a very powerful illusion B) mild air sickness C) the leans

26. At night, an aircraft at a similar level flying in approximately the same direction appears to jump from one location to another. This is an example of __________. A) autokinesis B) a somatogravic illusion C) a somatogyral illusion

27. The best countermeasure against illusions in IMC is to use your __________ to help you to correct your mental model. A) instruments B) seat of the pants sense

28. The best countermeasure against approach path deviations is to use the __________ in VMC and the ILS indications in IMC. A) PAPIs or VASIs B) runway texture

29. Sitting at the design eye point ensures that you have the maximum or optimum __________ segment. A) visual B) spatial C) Coriolis D) somatogravic

30. It __________ possible to maintain at least straight, level and unaccelerated flight in cloud using just the seat of the pant's sense. A) is not B) is C) may be

31. __________ disorientation is a persistent misperception of the aircraft’s attitude and orientation. A) Spatial B) Vertigo C) visual D) Coriolis

32. __________ is a generalised dizziness which is not necessarily accompanied by spatial disorientation. A) Vertigo B) visual C) Coriolis

33. Vestibular illusions occur when __________ cues are absent. A) visual B) coriolis C) spatial D) aural

34. __________ is a transient misperception of dynamic aircraft movement. e.g., sensation of rapid rolling or pitching, or both. A) Coriolis B) Spatial C) Vertigo

35. Which of the following factors may influence the individual's level of vigilance:Mark all correct answers. A) Expectation. B) Stress. C) Level of cockpit automation. D) Arousal. E) Anxiety. F) Motivation.

36. A store of accumulated knowledge and language, which is highly structured and organised is a description of: A) Semantic memory. B) Modelling. C) Amnesia. D) Episodic memory.

37. A store of autobiographical information such as memories of places you have been to, people you know and life experiences you’ve had, is a description of: A) Episodic memory. B) Amnesia. C) Modelling. D) Semantic memory.

38. A permanent or temporary inability to recall or even recognise events that were previously firmly stored in memory is a description of: A) Amnesia. B) Modelling. C) Spatial disorientation. D) Semantic memory.

39. Which of the following are common characteristics of memory:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Short-term memory is very limited and very fragile. B) You may be able to recognise, but not recall, a memorised item. C) The ability to recall is adversely affected by high emotional arousal. D) Ability to recall is limited when you don’t have a lot of ‘context’ associated with the memory. E) Short-term memory is very stable. F) The ability to recall information is improved with high emotional arousal.

40. Almost subconscious learning by association is a description of. A) Classical conditioning. B) Modelling. C) Insight (cognitive learning). D) Operant conditioning.

41. A conscious modification of behaviour to produce a desirable outcome or avoid an undesirable outcome is an example of: A) Operant conditioning. B) Insight (cognitive learning). C) Modelling. D) Classical conditioning.

42. Learning from pieces of knowledge and extrapolating them to new untried situations is an example of: A) Insight (cognitive learning). B) Operant conditioning. C) Modelling. D) Classical conditioning.

43. Imitating and reproducing behaviours is an example of: A) Modelling. B) Insight (cognitive learning). C) Operant conditioning. D) Classical conditioning.

44. Which of the following factors are necessary for, and promote, good learning:Mark 4 correct answers. A) An appropriate amount of arousal. B) Strong level of motivation. C) Rehearsing your memory of the learning. D) Applying the learning in practical exercises. E) A high level of anxiety. F) An extremely high level of arousal.

45. Acquired expertise at a task, resulting in increased accuracy and reduced errors, is a description of: A) A skill. B) Muscle memory. C) Coordination. D) An Insight.

46. __________ is the word used to describe a very low level of vigilance. A) Hypovigilance B) Attention C) Vigilance

47. __________ is the mechanism by which we focus our sensory resources on a stimulus so that we can process it. A) Attention B) Hypovigilance C) Vigilance

48. __________ is the word used to describe a state of sustained attention over time. A) Vigilance B) Hypovigilance C) Attention

49. __________ attention involves parallel information processing or rapid attention switching. This helps you to attend to multiple stimuli almost simultaneously. A) Divided B) Selective C) Reflective

50. __________ attention results in processing one set of information to the exclusion (almost) of all others. A) Selective B) Divided C) Reflective

51. Taking active measures to involve yourself in the conduct of the flight, and doing small mental calculations, can help to avoid a state of __________. A) Hypovigilance B) Vigilance C) Attention D) Reflection

52. Factors which adversely affect the level of attention given to a new stimulus include __________. A) a high workload B) a moderate level of motivation C) poor group dynamics

53. Stimuli which register attention are drawn into memory in sequence:Sensory store, one for each sense, which holds unprocessed information for __________ periods. A) short B) long

54. Stimuli which register attention are drawn into memory in sequence:Working memory which has limited capacity and holds partially processed information for a few __________. A) seconds B) minutes C) hours

55. Stimuli which register attention are drawn into memory in sequence:__________ memory which has a large capacity and can hold information for very long periods. A) Long term B) Sensory store C) Working

56. __________ holds unprocessed sensory information for just long enough to allow it to be registered for higher cognitive processing. A) The sensory store B) Short term memory

57. The average number of separate items that can be held in working (short-term) memory is __________, plus or minus __________. A) 5; 2 B) 6; 2 C) 7; 1 D) 7; 2

58. Working (short-term) memory is _____ sensitive to interruptions. A) very B) not

59. Working (short-term) memory capacity can be increased by the technique of __________ information. A) chunking B) avoiding

60. Chunking' information is a technique for improving the capacity of __________ memory. Rehearsing information is a technique for committing items to __________ memory. A) short-term; long-term B) short-term; short-term C) long-term; long-term D) long-term; short-term

61. Write down important ATC instructions as you receive them because __________ memory is very fragile. A) short-term B) long-term

62. Mnemonics are a useful way of improving __________ recall. A) long-term B) short-term

63. 1 of the 3 phases of acquiring a skill is:The __________ phase, in which you consciously identify and develop the component parts of the skill. A) Cognitive B) Associative C) Autonomous D) Initial

64. 1 of the 3 phases of acquiring a skill is:The __________ phase, in which you link the component parts into a smooth action via practice and feedback. A) Associative B) Cognitive C) Autonomous D) Initial

65. 1 of the 3 phases of acquiring a skill is:The __________ phase, in which the skill becomes automatic and may require little or no conscious thought or attention to perform it. A) Autonomous B) Cognitive C) Associative D) Initial

66. A __________ programme is an unconscious or subconscious, very highly coordinated set of muscle actions. Often not consciously monitored once initiated. A) motor B) skill C) rule D) knowledge

67. According to Rasmussen’s SRK model:The __________ mode involves smooth execution of highly practiced physical actions in which there is virtually no __________ monitoring. A) Skill; conscious B) Rule; conscious C) Skill; unconscious D) Rule; unconscious

68. According to Rasmussen’s SRK model:The __________ mode involves execution of actions based on __________ which have been learned. A) Rule; rules B) Rule; skill C) Knowledge; rules D) Knowledge; skill

69. According to Rasmussen’s SRK model:The __________ mode is used when an experienced pilot is faced with an entirely new situation and must construct a response from past experiences. A) Knowledge B) Rule C) Rote Memory D) Motor

70. According to Rasmussen’s SRK model:Under extreme pressure a pilot may revert from __________ mode to __________ mode, resulting in poor or inappropriate actions and responses. A) skill; rule B) rule; skill C) skill; skill D) rule; rule

71. __________ is the word used to describe the initiation, direction and energisation of human behaviour. A) Motivation B) Knowledge C) Rule D) Cognitive

72. An unmotivated individual __________ learn a skill as fast as a motivated one. A) will not B) will C) may

73. Excessive motivation can also lead to __________ performance. A) lower B) higher

74. A __________ schema comprises recall and recognition. The recall schema is based on __________ and past results. It is used to generate a motor programme to address a new goal. A) Mental; initial conditions B) Mental; sensory actions C) Knowledge; initial conditions D) Knowledge; sensory actions

75. The recognition schema is based on __________ and the outcome. A) sensory actions B) initial conditions C) actions

76. Factors which affect human reliability include:Mark all correct answers. A) Crew collaboration. B) The organisation. C) Working conditions. D) The man-machine interface. E) Procedures and plans. F) Number of simultaneous goals. G) Available time. H) Time of day. I) Training and experience.

77. The accurate mental modelling of a situation in space and time is a description of: A) Situation awareness. B) Decision making. C) Attention tunnelling. D) Active error.

78. Which of the following factors can adversely affect situation awareness:Mark all correct answers. A) A high level of workload. B) Unanticipated events. C) Attention tunnelling. D) A rapid pace of events. E) The weather conditions. F) The airline organisation.

79. To mentally step back from the immediate problems, thinking about the bigger picture and reorganising your priorities is a good technique for: A) Regaining situation awareness. B) Decision making. C) Error chain. D) Workload.

80. A sequence of interdependent errors whose effects are cumulative is the most common cause of aircraft accidents (rather than isolated, individual errors). This is a description of: A) An error chain. B) An active error. C) An action slip. D) Decision making

81. An SOP which contains a procedural mistake is an example of: A) A latent error. B) A memory error. C) An internal error. D) An active error.

82. Which of the following are sources of internal error generation on the flight deck: Mark 5 correct answers. A) Fatigue. B) Distraction. C) Skill deterioration. D) Low arousal. E) Memory failure. F) Weather. G) Organisational culture. H) Poor ergonomics.

83. What are the 3 main sources of external error generation on a commercial aircraft flight deck:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Ergonomics. B) Social environment. C) Economic (commercial) pressures. D) Emotional state. E) Distraction. F) Low arousal. G) Perceptual errors. H) Poor motivation. I) Memory failure. J) Fatigue.

84. Which of the following are major factors on which decision-making is based: Mark 4 correct answers. A) The consequences. B) The aim. C) The available information. D) The available options. E) Bias. F) Emotional state.

85. Which of the following are potential sources of error in decision-making: A) Emotional state B) A false hypothesis. C) Mental saturation (overload). D) Bias E) A lack of time. F) Inexperience.

86. A well-functioning group can produce more effective decisions. However group dynamics can lead to taking riskier decisions than would otherwise have been taken by each individual in the group. This is a description of: A) Risky shift. B) Latent error. C) Bias. D) Error source

87. Which of the following indicators tell you that you are losing situation awareness:Mark 3 correct answers. A) The feeling that events are in control of you. B) You have difficulty reconciling new information with what you think are the known facts. C) Things happen which surprise you. D) The feeling that you are in control of events. E) You feel 'ahead' of the aircraft.

88. Which of the following are valid methods for regaining situation awareness:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Examine, assess and integrate information from the flight instruments and visual cues. B) (Re) establish positive control of the aircraft. C) Stabilise the flight path. D) Refer to the flight crew operations manual (FCOM) E) Concentrate on the flight instruments. F) Select the highest possible level of automation.

89. Which one of the following statements describes the act of decision making: A) Actively and consciously choosing between 2 or more options. B) Accepting advice from a more senior crew member. C) Following an instruction from ATC. D) Following a course of action.

90. The advantage of mental models is that they __________ . A) enable the brain to deal quickly with very large amounts of information B) help you to defend against illusions C) let you develop situation awareness with few or no external cues

91. __________ errors are very difficult to detect and often come to light only when an accident chain of events is examined. A) Latent B) Active C) Internal D) External

92. __________ errors can be reduced by training and multi-crew cooperation. A) Active B) Latent C) Internal D) External

93. __________ errors are generated by an individual’s cognitive failures. A) Internal B) Latent C) Active D) External

94. __________ errors are generated by things which impose on the human. A) External B) Latent C) Active D) Internal

95. Motor programmes are susceptible to: __________ in which the right intention is wrongly executed. A) Action slips B) Environmental capture C) Violation

96. Motor programmes are susceptible to:__________ in which the wrong motor programme is executed because of its association with familiar/similar external conditions. A) Environmental capture B) Action slips C) Violation

97. When the risk of a decision is assessed as __________ and/or the time pressure is very __________, the individual is likely to make a quick decision based on past experience. A) low; high B) low; low C) high; low D) high; high

98. High workload situations such as __________ require multiple rapid actions, and thus carry a risk of insufficient attention being paid to all the necessary tasks because of channelling of attention. A) the go-around B) take-off C) landing D) cruise E) the approach

99. Humans tend to be __________ at reasoning to achieve a goal and __________ at logical reasoning to solve abstract problems. A) good; poor B) good; good C) bad; poor D) bad; good

100. Pre-determined, well thought-out plans and procedures which cover routine and emergency situations __________ human reliability. A) improve B) solve C) reduce

101. Error __________ describes a design philosophy in which the design of a system or process reduces the seriousness of the consequences of an error. A) tolerance B) bias C) violation

102. __________ in thinking causes an individual to unjustifiably favour one strand of reasoning over another leading sometimes to a faulty decision. A) Bias B) Tolerance C) Violation

103. The intention was correct but there was a failure of execution is an example of an __________. A) action slip B) environmental capture C) omission

104. A __________ is a type of error arising from an incorrect intention. A) mistake B) violation C) omission D) fault

105. A __________ is an intentional deviation from what is known to be the correct action. A) violation B) mistake C) omission D) fault

106. __________ errors are relatively short-lived failures which are directly linked to an accident/incident. A) Active B) Latent C) Internal D) fault

107. Forgetting or failing to carry out a required action is called an __________. A) omission B) mistake C) violation D) fault

108. A __________ describes the incorrect functioning of a hardware system. A) fault B) mistake C) violation D) omission

109. A helpful process in which the crew members communicate with each other and share information and tasks, is a description of: A) Cooperation. B) Conformity. C) Groupthink. D) Co-action.

110. All crew members operating towards the same aim but not necessarily communicating or sharing is a description of: A) Co-action. B) Groupthink. C) Cooperation. D) Conformity.

111. 2 or more people with shared goals, values or motives which distinguish them from others and who cooperate by communicating, sharing information and sharing tasks. This is a description of: A) A group. B) Cooperation. C) A task. D) Co-action.

112. Which of the following are advantages of teamwork:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Ability to deal with multiple tasks safely. B) Better decision-making. C) Better defence against errors. D) Reduced workload. E) No risk of conflict. F) Slower, methodical decision-making

113. Which of the following are valid disadvantages of teamwork:Mark all correct answers. A) Potentially slower decision-making. B) Potential for conflict. C) The possibility of risky shift. D) Poor defence against errors.

114. A cohesive group which works cooperatively to become more than the sum of its parts is a description of: A) Synergy. B) Status. C) Groupthink. D) Cohesion.

115. The degree to which a group hangs together as a tightly knit, self-contained entity is a description of: A) Cohesion. B) Groupthink. C) Status. D) Synergy.

116. A mode of thinking in which the desire to reach unanimous agreement overrides the motivation to use proper, rational decision-making processes is a description of: A) Groupthink. B) Cohesion. C) Status. D) Synergy.

117. Informal, often unstated, rules that groups develop to convey expectations about appropriate behaviour is a description of: A) Group norms. B) Groupthink. C) Status. D) Synergy.

118. The part that the organisation expects the individual to play within a group, which serves to provide clarity about what is expected from each group member is a description of: A) Roles. B) Status. C) Groupthink. D) Group norms.

119. The relative social position within a group, regardless of what the formally assigned role may be, is a description of: A) Status. B) Group roles. C) Groupthink. D) Group norms.

120. Which of the following are essential conditions for good teamwork:Mark 5 correct answers. A) Individuals appropriately matched to their assigned roles. B) Good leadership. C) Good followership. D) Mutual respect. E) Well-defined roles. F) Individuals always conforming to the group norms. G) Laissez faire leadership. H) High status followers.

121. The art of influencing the thoughts and actions of others by your own behaviour and ideas, is a description of: A) Leadership. B) Followership. C) Trans-cockpit authority gradient. D) Groupthink.

122. Complementing leadership to ensure the optimal functioning and effectiveness of the group, is a description of good: A) Followership. B) Leadership. C) Trans-cockpit authority gradient. D) Groupthink.

123. A perceived difference in ability, status and role between the captain and first officer, if too great, may cause the F/O to fail to adequately contribute to effective group decision-making. This is a description of: A) A steep trans-cockpit authority gradient. B) Groupthink. C) Followership. D) Leadership.

124. A message which is unambiguous and has clear intent but might be perceived as imperious, rude or domineering is an example of: A) Explicit communication. B) Intrapersonal conflict. C) Professional language D) Implicit communication.

125. A message which is conveyed subtly, but which may be ambiguous, is an example of: A) Implicit communication. B) Professional language. C) Explicit communication. D) Intrapersonal conflict.

126. A form of communication used exclusively in high workload situations and during ‘sterile cockpit’ phases to reduce ambiguity and risk of misunderstandings is a description of: A) Professional language. B) Implicit communication. C) Explicit communication. D) Intrapersonal conflict.

127. An internal conflict, in which you doubt and question your own ability and performance, is an example of: A) Intrapersonal conflict. B) Explicit communication. C) Interpersonal conflict. D) Implicit communication.

128. A conflict between people is an example of: A) Interpersonal conflict. B) Implicit communication. C) Explicit communication. D) Intrapersonal conflict.

129. A broadly stable set of characteristics and behaviour patterns exhibited by an individual which are the result of innate characteristics and early experiences, is a description of: A) Personality. B) Attitude. C) Habit. D) Traits.

130. A standard behavioural response to a familiar situation, which may or may not be appropriate given the circumstances, is a description of: A) A habit. B) A reflex. C) An attitude. D) Personality.

131. Modification or suppression of attitudes and personality traits through self- control, is the desirable outcome of: A) Self-discipline. B) Good habits. C) A strong attitude. D) A good personality.

132. Which of the following are hazardous attitudes for aviation:Mark 6 correct answers. A) Resignation. B) Anti-authority. C) Macho. D) Impulsiveness. E) Invulnerability. F) Complacency. G) Pro-authority H) Agreeable. I) Self-controlled. J) Stable.

133. An ideal crew member is:Mark 5 correct answers. A) Conscientious. B) Self controlled. C) Stable. D) A slightly extrovert personality. E) Agreeable. F) Macho. G) Impulsive.

134. The 'positive leadership style' is: A) P+ G+ B) P- G+ C) G- P- D) G- P+

135. The 3 basic components of interpersonal communication are:Mark 3 correct answers. A) A receiver B) A transmitter C) A message D) An observer E) A voice F) Eye contact

136. Which of the following are valid techniques which can be used to reduce the possibility of a conflict escalating?Mark all correct answers. A) Where possible, compromise. B) Ask open-ended questions. C) Listen, don’t just prepare your next statement. D) Present rational arguments. E) Provide feedback, politely. F) Restrict your negative non-verbal cues. G) Avoid eye contact. H) Argue your case confidently.

137. Individual behaviour is the product of:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Group influences. B) Personality. C) Attitude. D) Traits. E) Mental schema. F) Mental models.

138. A mismatch between status and role, for example when the first officer has higher status than the captain is __________. A) potentially dangerous B) normal C) often synergistic

139. A strong authority gradient may result in complete compliance which __________ a desirable behaviour for a first officer. A) is not B) is

140. The __________ leadership style encourages good teamwork, by eliciting, listening then acting. A) interactive B) authoritarian C) paternalistic

141. An __________ leader is a rigid thinker, often excessively obedient to "superiors" and excessively strict with ‘inferiors’ and unreceptive to their inputs. A) authoritarian B) interactive C) paternalistic

142. The __________ leadership style discourages attempts by ‘juniors’ to question judgement. This type of leader is highly conscious of status and sees the subordinate’s only function as being to carry out orders. A) paternalistic B) interactive C) authoritarian

143. 75% of all communication is __________. This form of communication __________ carried out solely by use of facial expressions. A) non-verbal; is not B) non-verbal; is C) verbal; is not D) verbal; is

144. Side-by-side seating on the flight deck __________ the quality of interpersonal communication. A) reduces B) increases

145. In __________ workload situations, there is less opportunity to listen and discuss matters because both pilots must concentrate on the task. In such situations there is a __________ amount of non-verbal communication. A) high; reduced B) high; increased C) low; reduced D) low; increased

146. Personal behaviour is a product of personality, __________> and the environment to which one was exposed at significant moments in life. A) attitude B) ideals C) introvert D) extrovert

147. According to the personality factors model, the ideal pilot is a stable __________. A) extrovert B) introvert

148. The humanist model of personality claims that personality changes over time, depending on the individual’s perception of self-concept versus __________ self. A) ideal B) extrovert C) introvert

149. A state of physiological or psychological excitement, which increases sensitivity to external stimuli and improves the response times to them, is a description of: A) Arousal. B) Exhaustion. C) Underload. D) Stress.

150. A heightened state of arousal caused by external, stressful events known as stressors. A natural, and often beneficial, human reaction. This is a description of: A) Stress. B) Underload. C) Arousal. D) Exhaustion.

151. The physiological response to stress (the 'flight or flight' response) is a description of: A) The general adaption syndrome. B) Underload. C) Arousal. D) A stimulus.

152. Valid categories of stressors are: Mark all correct answers. A) Psychological. B) Occupational. C) Domestic. D) Physiological. E) Psychosomatic. F) Chronic.

153. On the flight deck, environmental stressors include: Mark all correct answers. A) Multiple aural and visual warning alerts. B) Poor temperature control. C) Poor humidity control. D) Noise. E) Vibration. F) Personal problems.

154. The principal causes of domestic stress are:Mark all correct answers. A) Personal injury or illness. B) Death of partner. C) Divorce. D) Marital separation. E) Death of close family member. F) Noise. G) Poor temperature control.

155. Factors which can positively affect an individual's tolerance of stress include:Mark all correct answers. A) A high level of concentration. B) A natural level of calmness. C) A high level of maturity. D) Effective coping mechanisms. E) A high level of self-confidence.

156. Symptoms of overload include: Mark 5 correct answers. A) Memory impairment. B) Tunnelling of attention. C) Incapacitation. D) Withdrawal. E) Loss of ability to communicate. F) Hypovigilance. G) Fatigue. H) Sweating.

157. Symptoms of underload include:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Fatigue. B) Boredom. C) Hypovigilance. D) Tunnelling of attention. E) Divided attention. F) Withdrawal. G) Loss of ability to communicate. H) Memory impairment.

158. Which of the following statements is/are true?Mark 2 correct answers. A) The right amount of arousal optimises your ability to respond to events. B) Very low workload situations can lead to less than optimal performance. C) Performance increases as levels of arousal reduce. D) Performance is positively correlated with arousal. E) A very high state of arousal always results in the highest level of performance.

159. During the GAS response, the __________ prepares the body for intense physical action. A) autonomic nervous system B) automatic nervous system

160. Physiological stress __________ with increased arousal. A) increases B) decreases

161. The GAS results in: ___________ heart rate; increased respiration rate; increased muscle tension; __________ production of saliva; loss of appetite; high level of alertness; increased energy levels. A) increased; reduced B) increased; increased C) reduced; reduced D) reduced; increased

162. As stress increases, the individual eventually reaches the ___________ point where he becomes overloaded. A) break B) pivot

163. Performance ___________ rapidly beyond the break point. A) deteriorates B) improves C) is constant

164. The stress experienced as a result of particular demands ___________ among individuals. A) varies B) is constant

165. If a stressor is perceived (rightly or wrongly) to be very difficult to overcome, the individual will experience ___________ stress. A) more B) less

166. High levels of stress may result in high levels of ___________. A) anxiety B) performance C) break points

167. High levels of anxiety ___________ human performance. A) degrade B) enhance

168. Acute stress results in ___________ in the body's blood sugar level. A) an increase B) a decrease

169. Stress increases arousal, which increases ___________. A) vigilance B) calmness C) clarity

170. 1 of the 3 stages of the general adaption syndrome is:Stage 1: ___________ comprising a brief initial shock resulting in acute stress symptoms. A) Alarm B) Resistance C) Exhaustion D) Flight

171. 1 of the 3 stages of the general adaption syndrome is:Stage 2: ___________ in which corticosteroids are released, blood flow increases and body fat becomes available for conversion to sugar. A) Resistance B) Alarm C) Exhaustion D) Flight

172. 1 of the 3 stages of the general adaption syndrome is:Stage 3: ___________ in which fat reserves are used up and there is a drop in blood sugar level. A) Exhaustion B) Alarm C) Resistance D) Flight

173. A type of stress reaction is:___________ characterised by restlessness, nervousness, excitement or anxiety. A) Psychological B) Psychosomatic C) Somatic D) Cumulative

174. A type of stress reaction is:___________ characterised by physiological changes in body function, caused by psychological stress. A) Psychosomatic B) Psychological C) Somatic D) Cumulative

175. A type of stress reaction is:___________ characterised by purely autonomic physiological responses. A) Somatic B) Psychological C) Psychosomatic D) Cumulative

176. Stress caused by multiple stressors is ___________. A) cumulative B) compartmentalised C) situation specific

177. Successful completion of a task, initially perceived to be difficult, ___________ the stress experienced in the future, when confronted with a similar task. A) reduces B) increases C) does not change

178. Valid stress coping strategies include:Direct action, in which you change your relationship with the stressor, remove or escape from it. This is: ___________. A) a short or long-term solution B) a short-term solution C) a long-term solution

179. Valid stress coping strategies include:___________ seeking in which you seek to understand and thus predict the stressor. This is a short or long-term solution. A) Information B) Inhibition C) Direct

180. Valid stress coping strategies include:Inhibition, in which you do nothing, and just 'suck it up'. This is effective for ___________ stressors. A) short-term B) long-term

181. Valid stress coping strategies include:Palliative coping, in which you reduce the symptoms using, for example, relaxation techniques. This is a ___________ solution. A) short-term B) long-term

182. Valid stress coping strategies include:Obtaining emotional support from others. This ___________ practicable on the flight deck. A) is not B) is C) will be

183. The principal strengths of the pilot over the autopilot system are: Mark all correct answers. A) The ability to prioritise safety over precision. B) The ability to develop creative solutions to problems. C) Potentially better decision-making. D) Increased operational reliability.

184. The disadvantages of automation include:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Hypovigilance. B) Loss of manual flying skills. C) Additional workload involved with programming the FMS D) Risk of slips during programming. E) Improved manual flying skills. F) Hypervigilance.

185. A sense of satisfaction resulting from, or causing, a general lack of critical analysis of the circumstances, is a description of: A) Complacency. B) Concentration. C) Hypovigilance. D) Monitoring

186. Published procedures designed to reduce ambiguity and unexpected or unanticipated actions are known as: A) Standard operating procedures. B) Call-outs. C) Standard operating preparations. D) Crew briefings.

187. To ensure that the aircraft is operated in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations; to reduce the risk of omissions; to correctly sequence actions and to encourage cooperation and cross-checking is the ultimate purpose of: A) Checklists. B) Call-outs. C) Standard Operating Preparations. D) Automation.

188. Fundamental philosophies for automation:__________: the pilot remains the last operator. A) Boeing B) Airbus

189. Fundamental philosophies for automation:__________: automated systems can correct erroneous pilot action. A) Airbus B) Boeing

190. The fundamental restrictions of auto-flight systems are: a lack of __________ in unknown situations and a lack of motivation with regard to personal safety. A) creativity B) originality C) clarity

191. The 'ironies of automation' are that design errors can leave tasks to the pilot that are too complex to automate, while causing loss of the pilot's manual and __________ skills. A) cognitive B) originality C) creativity

192. One possible countermeasure to the ironies of automation is regular __________. A) training flights B) examination flights C) overload exercises

193. A human error associated with automation includes:__________ monitoring: the error of looking at but not really taking-in information. A) Passive B) Blinkered C) Mode D) Situational

194. A human error associated with automation includes:__________ concentration, characterised by focusing on just one element of the information displays. A) Blinkered B) Passive C) Cognitive D) Mode

195. A human error associated with automation includes:Loss of __________ awareness caused by being out of the loop. A) situational B) passive C) cognitive D) mode

196. A human error associated with automation includes:Loss of __________ awareness: caused by failure to monitor mode changes suitably quickly, or lack of understanding about modes and sequences of modes. A) mode B) situational C) cognitive D) passive

197. A countermeasure against ineffective monitoring of automation is to use __________. A) call-outs B) visual cues C) safety culture

198. A countermeasure against ineffective monitoring of automation is to revert to a __________ level of automation, so that the pilot becomes more involved and in-the- loop. A) lower B) higher

199. The objectives of the multi-crew concept are: to provide __________ in the event that one crew member becomes incapacitated; to divide the responsibility for tasks between the crew, and to share the workload. A) redundancy B) co-operation C) visual cues D) safety culture

200. The 3 components of the TEM model are: A) Threats, errors, undesired aircraft states. B) Conditions, omissions, undesired aircraft states. C) Threats, situations, undesired aircraft states. D) Conditions, omissions, desired aircraft states.

201. The faulty interaction between a pilot and a procedure, for example incorrectly reading from a checklist, is a type of: A) Procedural error. B) Latent threat. C) Aircraft handling error. D) Communication error.

202. A faulty interaction between a pilot and an air traffic controller, for example incorrectly hearing a radio frequency change is a type of: A) Communication error. B) Aircraft handling error. C) Latent threat. D) Procedural error.

203. Failure to maintain level flight when manually flying a turn is a type of: A) Aircraft handling error. B) Communication error. C) Latent threat. D) Procedural error.

204. A culture which allows mistakes to be reported without undue risk of sanctions, and thus enables people to benefit from the knowledge of others' mistakes is a: A) Open culture. B) Closed culture. C) Safety first culture. D) National cultural norm.

205. A conspiracy of silence in which mishaps aren’t publicised and so individuals can’t learn from the mistakes of others, is a central characteristic of: A) Closed cultures. B) Open cultures. C) Safety first cultures. D) Disciplinary cultures.

206. A series of defences (analogous to walls) are put in place to interrupt potential accident chains. Holes in the walls can align. When they do, they open an accident trajectory pathway through all the walls. This is a description of: A) Reason’s Swiss Cheese model. B) Safety first culture. C) Open culture. D) National cultural norms.

207. A safety culture requires:Mark all correct answers. A) A flexible culture. B) A just culture. C) A reporting culture. D) An informed culture. E) A learning culture. F) An inflexible culture.

208. The basic tasks of a safety management system include:Mark all correct answers. A) Implementing effective communication across all levels of the organisation. B) Identifying hazards and managing risks. C) Defining how the organisation is set up to manage risks. D) Identifying workplace risk and implementing suitable controls. E) Eliminating all risk. F) Creating an error free working environment.

209. An incorrect safety altitude on a chart; the same audio warning used for different faults, or an incorrect SOP are all examples of __________ errors. A) latent B) active C) environmental

210. Very high traffic density in the circuit, or windshear on the final approach, are examples of __________ threats. A) environmental B) latent C) active

211. For a crew operating an aircraft, a culture of organisational indiscipline, a general lack of oversight or supervision by the organisation, and commercial pressure are all examples of organisational __________. A) threats B) errors C) process

212. A component of the SHELL model is:__________. Policies, procedures, manuals, checklists, charts, computer programmes. A) Software B) Hardware C) Environment D) Liveware

213. A component of the SHELL model is:__________. Aircraft systems. A) Hardware B) Software C) Environment D) Liveware

214. A component of the SHELL model is:__________. Internal and external physical and social climate. A) Environment B) Software C) Hardware D) Liveware

215. A component of the SHELL model is:__________ Central human reliability. A) Liveware B) Software C) Hardware D) Environment

216. A component of the SHELL model is:__________ Peripheral human-to-human interactions. A) Liveware B) Software C) Hardware D) Environment

217. A __________ culture is seen by all to appropriately punish deliberate transgression. This is distinct from a non-punitive culture where deliberate transgressions go unpunished. A) just B) punitive C) learning

218. A pilot becomes skilled when he/she:

219. Which of the following is an environmental threat according to the TEM (Threat and Error Management) model?

220. What does Murphy's Law state?

221. Safety culture is:

222. In the Swiss Cheese model, what do holes represent?

223. A typical example of an undesired aircraft state according to the TEM model would be:

224. Select the option which is not a Procedural Error (TEM model):

225. Considering the Threat and Error Management (TEM) model, which of the following situations is considered an error?

226. In a company, a safety culture is established... This safety culture is called:

227. Between which components, with reference to the SHELL Concept, covers pilot misinterpretation of the old three-point altimeter?

228. The errors resulting from an illogical indexing system... according to the SHELL model:

229. The role of a 'learning culture' within a good safety culture is that:

230. Choose the correct option regarding environmental threats (TEM model):

231. A commercial organisation invests heavily... According to ICAO Doc 9859, what is the probable outcome?

232. The operator of an aircraft takes disciplinary action... Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the operator's safety culture?

233. In 1972, a psychologist named Edwards... What is this concept called and the names of those elements involved?

234. During a lesson in a disorientation trainer... Why does the student feel disoriented?

235. How may haze effect perception?

236. While flying VFR 'wings level' on top of clouds... your artificial horizon indicates a 20 degree bank.

237. From the following list of stressors, which are psychological?

238. What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of stress?

239. Which behavioural traits in pilots pose the greatest hazard for flight safety?

240. Mode Error is associated with:

241. In the cockpit there is the captain, first officer and a student pilot... What are the behaviours?

242. The phases of learning a Motor Programme are:

243. Select the correct statement regarding decision making and biases:

244. What are the main advantages that the human possesses over those of a machine in the decision making process?

245. Very high ambition and need for achievement

246. Which of the following is a symptom of human overload on a flight deck?

247. An aircraft departs for a VFR flight... What type of error best characterises this accident scenario?

248. During training the instructor suddenly cuts power... What does he exhibit?

249. What is self-concept?

250. Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory?

251. Our mental model of the world is based

252. Physical Stress takes place when:

253. The 'Break Point' is that point after which, if stress continues to rise:

254. Having interrupted the Captain for a sound reason, the co-pilot should:

255. What are two types of attention?

256. The 'cocktail party effect' is

257. In terms of decision-making... may lead to:

258. What is synergy in a crew?

259. Active errors/failures are committed at:

260. Ergonomics are associated with:

261. An aircraft is on an approach to an alternate aerodrome... Which statement is correct?

262. What are the two inputs to a simple model of stress?

263. A group of pilots are currently undergoing the same type rating training... The stress associated with the course will: