[LAW-PT01 #1] The term 'Cabotage' refers to: A) A national air carrier. B) Crop spraying. C) A flight above territorial waters. D) Domestic air services operated by a foreign carrier.
D) Domestic air services operated by a foreign carrier.
[LAW-PT01 #3] An aircraft flying over the territory of another State must: A) Follow the Rules of the Air of the State it is overflying. B) Follow the Rules of the Air of the State of Registration. C) Follow the Rules of the Air of the State of the Operator. D) Follow the Rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft certificate of airworthiness.
A) Follow the Rules of the Air of the State it is overflying.
[LAW-PT01 #2] The right to land in another state for technical purposes such as refuelling or maintenance is the __________ freedom of the air. A) 2nd. B) 4th. C) 1st. D) 3rd.
A) 2nd.
[LAW-PT01 #4] Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in a neighbouring State? A) 2nd Freedom of the Air. B) 4th Freedom of the Air. C) 1st Freedom of the Air. D) 3nd Freedom of the Air.
A) 2nd Freedom of the Air.
[LAW-PT01 #5] The Second Freedom of the Air is the right to: A) Carry passengers or cargo from another country to one's own. B) Cabotage traffic, (trans-border traffic). C) Land for a technical stop. D) Overfly without landing.
C) Land for a technical stop.
[LAW-PT01 #6] The First Freedom of the Air is: A) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two States. B) The right to board passengers from the State where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another State. C) The right to overfly without landing. D) The right to land for a technical stop.
C) The right to overfly without landing.
[LAW-PT01 #7] What are the provisions of the International Air Transport Agreement? A) The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refuelling. B) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state. C) The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing. D) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas.
B) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.
[LAW-PT01 #8] Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)? A) ICAO Technical Manuals. B) Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS). C) Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS). D) Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation.
D) Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation.
[LAW-PT01 #9] Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? A) The Regional Air Navigation meeting. B) The Air Navigation Commission. C) The Council. D) The Assembly.
B) The Air Navigation Commission.
[LAW-PT01 #10] Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: A) Only 52 nations were permitted to attend. B) Each state was required to recognise the other States attending. C) All states in the world attended. D) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
D) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
[LAW-PT01 #11] A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the accident that caused the damage: A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking. B) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking or after the check-in of the passenger. C) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking including time spent after the passenger has entered the sterile security area. D) Took place on board the aircraft.
A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking.
[LAW-PT01 #12] According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft? A) The Convention of Warsaw. B) The Convention of Rome. C) The Convention of Tokyo. D) The Convention of Chicago.
C) The Convention of Tokyo.
[LAW-PT01 #13] When an aircraft commander on board his aircraft has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit an offence against penal law he/she: A) May request other passengers to assist. B) May restrain the passenger. C) May deliver such person to the competent authorities. D) May require the passenger to disembark.
A) May request other passengers to assist. B) May restrain the passenger. C) May deliver such person to the competent authorities. D) May require the passenger to disembark.
[LAW-PT01 #14] What are the objectives of ICAO? A) To act as the licensing body for all pilots around the world. B) To ensure aircraft are designed in a way that limits the impact on the environment. C) To designate identification to airfields. D) To ensure the safe and orderly growth of international civil aviation throughout the world.
D) To ensure the safe and orderly growth of international civil aviation throughout the world.
[LAW-PT01 #15] The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: A) Geneva Convention 1936. B) Montreal Convention 1948. C) Warsaw Convention 1929. D) Chicago Convention 1944.
D) Chicago Convention 1944.
[LAW-PT01 #16] The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered: A) Binding for all member states. B) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states. C) Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference. D) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.
C) Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
[LAW-PT01 #17] ICAO establishes: A) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. B) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. C) Aeronautical standards adopted by all States. D) Standards and recommended practices for contracting member states.
D) Standards and recommended practices for contracting member states.
[LAW-PT01 #18] Member states of ICAO must: A) Be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses. B) Be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention that another member state has incorporated. C) Be informed about changes in the national regulations. D) Approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections.
B) Be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention that another member state has incorporated.
[LAW-PT01 #19] The International Air Services Transit Agreement provides which rights of scheduled flight known as the technical freedoms? A) First freedom: Allows passengers and freight from the home State to be set down in the State of arrival.Second freedom: Allows passengers and freight to be picked up for transport to the home State. B) First Freedom: The right of aircraft from one State to land in another State for technical reasons.Second freedom: allows domestic air services operated by a foreign carrier. C) First Freedom: The right of aircraft from one State to overfly another State without landing. Second Freedom: The right of aircraft from one State to land in another State for technical reasons. D) First freedom: Allows passengers to be picked up or set down from States other than the home State.Second freedom: allows domestic air services operated by a foreign carrier.
C) First Freedom: The right of aircraft from one State to overfly another State without landing. Second Freedom: The right of aircraft from one State to land in another State for technical reasons.
[LAW-PT01 #20] The International Air Transport Agreement provides which rights of scheduled flight, known as the commercial freedoms? A) First Freedom: The right of aircraft from one State to overfly another State without landing. AndSecond Freedom: The right of aircraft from one State to land in another State for technical reasons. B) First freedom: Allows passengers and freight from the home State to be set down in the State of arrival.Second freedom: Allows passengers and freight to be picked up for transport to the home State. C) Third freedom: Allows passengers and freight from the home State to be set down in the State of arrival.Fourth freedom: Allows passengers and freight to be picked up for transport to the home State.Fifth freedom: allows domestic air services operated by a foreign carrier D) Third freedom: Allows passengers and freight from the home State to be set down in the State of arrival.Fourth freedom: Allows passengers and freight to be picked up for transport to the home State.Fifth freedom: Allows passengers to be picked up or set down from States other than the home State.
D) Third freedom: Allows passengers and freight from the home State to be set down in the State of arrival.Fourth freedom: Allows passengers and freight to be picked up for transport to the home State.Fifth freedom: Allows passengers to be picked up or set down from States other than the home State.
[LAW-PT01 #21] According to Article 16, appropriate State authorities have the right (without unreasonable delay), to: A) Search aircraft on landing or departure, and to inspect their required certificates and other documents. B) Impound aircraft if the passenger manifest is incorrect. C) Make detailed technical checks on the aircraft. D) Allow passengers to be picked up or set down from States other than the home State.
A) Search aircraft on landing or departure, and to inspect their required certificates and other documents.
[LAW-PT01 #22] According to Article 6 of the Chicago convention, scheduled international air services may: A) Be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State, in accordance with the 5 freedoms and the terms of such permission or authorisation. B) Be operated over, but not into, any State in accordance with the 5 freedoms of the air. C) Be operated over or the territory of a contracting State, in accordance with the 2 technical freedoms D) Not be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State, except with the special permission or authorisation of that State, and then only in accordance with the terms of such permission or authorisation.
D) Not be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State, except with the special permission or authorisation of that State, and then only in accordance with the terms of such permission or authorisation.
[LAW-PT01 #23] Aircraft which enter the territory of a contracting State must land at a designated airport: A) For technical checks on cargo loading. B) For police checks on crew competency. C) In IFR conditions. D) For the purposes of customs and other examinations.
D) For the purposes of customs and other examinations.
[LAW-PT01 #24] The aircraft commander and others are empowered to prevent criminal acts and penal offences on-board. To assist in making this restraint, the commander may: A) Use the cockpit fire axe to threaten or subdue a disruptive passenger. B) Authorise or require the crew to act. Authorise or request passengers to assist. C) Manoeuvre the aircraft so as to overthrow a disruptive passenger. D) Require the crew to act, but has no authority to empower passengers to act.
B) Authorise or require the crew to act. Authorise or request passengers to assist.
[LAW-PT01 #25] The issue of a passenger ticket __________ a form of contract. If a document of carriage isn't issued, the contract _______ valid. A) Is not, is not B) Is, is not C) Is, is D) Is not, is
C) Is, is
[LAW-PT01 #26] For loss, destruction, damage or delay of baggage the carrier is: A) Liable to pay the level of compensation set out in the carrier's terms of carriage. B) Liable to pay a fixed amount of compensation, based on the number of bags. C) Not liable to pay compensation unless the flight is delayed. D) Liable to pay a fixed amount of compensation, currently 1131 SDRs per passenger.
D) Liable to pay a fixed amount of compensation, currently 1131 SDRs per passenger.
[LAW-PT01 #27] IATA's objectives are: A) Control the flow of traffic at peak times in European airspace. B) Establish and maintain a high, uniform level of civil aviation safety within the EU. C) Develop standards and recommended practices (SARPS). D) Represent, lead and serve the airline industry.
D) Represent, lead and serve the airline industry.
[LAW-PT01 #28] EASA’s primary objective is to: A) Develop standards and recommended practices (SARPS). B) Create and approve hard and soft law governing civil aviation. C) Establish and maintain a high, uniform level of civil aviation safety within the EU. D) Control the flow of traffic at peak times in European airspace.
C) Establish and maintain a high, uniform level of civil aviation safety within the EU.
[LAW-PT01 #29] In Europe __________ law must be followed by Member States. A) State. B) Hard C) Soft D) All
B) Hard
[LAW-PT01 #30] Soft law uses: A) Certification specifications (CS). Delegated acts.Guidance Material (GM). B) Certification specifications (CS). Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC). Implementing rules (IR). C) Soft rules.Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC). Guidance Material (GM). D) Certification specifications (CS). Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC). Guidance Material (GM).
D) Certification specifications (CS). Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC). Guidance Material (GM).
[LAW-PT01 #31] Authority-maintained rules and directives are known as: A) Regulations. B) Laws. C) Acts. D) Decisions.
A) Regulations.
[LAW-PT01 #32] Rules which supplement or amend existing law, but cannot change the basic legal elements are known as: A) Acceptable means of compliance. B) Soft law. C) Delegated acts. D) Guidance material.
C) Delegated acts.
[LAW-PT01 #33] _________ ensure that regulations are introduced and are applied fairly and uniformly. A) Technical specifications. B) Certification specifications. C) Implementing rules. D) Implementing acts.
D) Implementing acts.
[LAW-PT01 #34] Binding legislation which specifies a high level of safety with uniform conformity and compliance is known as: A) Certification specifications. B) Implementing rules. C) Implementing acts. D) Delegated acts.
B) Implementing rules.
[LAW-PT01 #35] Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 (EU Air Ops) covers: A) Just the rules of the air in EU airspace. B) Only commercial air operations. C) All types of commercial and non-commercial operations. D) Scheduled and non-scheduled air transport services.
C) All types of commercial and non-commercial operations.
[LAW-PT01 #36] Technical standards aimed at meeting requirements are known as: A) Guidance material. B) Soft law. C) Certification specification. D) Acceptable means of compliance.
C) Certification specification.
[LAW-PT01 #37] Explanations and examples of applied law that are acceptable to the Authority are types of: A) Acceptable means of compliance. B) Guidance material. C) Hard law. D) Certification specification.
A) Acceptable means of compliance.
[LAW-PT01 #38] Non-binding explanatory and interpretation material on how to achieve requirements is known as: A) Acceptable means of compliance. B) Guidance material. C) Guidance advice. D) Certification specification.
B) Guidance material.
[LAW-PT01 #39] The validity and renewal of a Certificate of Airworthiness is subject to laws of the: A) State of Manufacture. B) State of Registry. C) States of Registry and operation. D) State in which the operation takes place.
B) State of Registry.
[LAW-PT01 #40] When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if the: A) State of Manufacture informs the State of Registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy. B) State of Design and the State of Manufacture inform the State of Registry that the aircraft is still airworthy. C) State of Registry considers that the damage sustained is of such nature that the aircraft is still airworthy. D) State of Registry, the State of Design and the State of Manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy.
C) State of Registry considers that the damage sustained is of such nature that the aircraft is still airworthy.
[LAW-PT01 #41] The issuing authority of a CofA is: A) The State of Registry. B) The State of the Operator. C) The State of Occurrence. D) The State of Manufacture.
A) The State of Registry.
[LAW-PT01 #42] The requirement to maintain a continuing standard of airworthiness applies to all aircraft and is the responsibility of the: A) State of Registry. B) The State of the Operator. C) The State of Manufacture. D) The State of Ownership.
A) State of Registry.
[LAW-PT01 #43] A Certificate of Airworthiness is issued by a Contracting State on the basis of: A) Evidence that the aircraft complies with the design aspects of the airworthiness requirements. B) A report submitted by the aeroplane manufacturer. C) Evidence that the aircraft complies with the operational regulations of ICAO Annex 2.
A) Evidence that the aircraft complies with the design aspects of the airworthiness requirements.
[LAW-PT01 #44] A Certificate of Airworthiness remains valid: A) For a period of 24 months. B) For a period of 36 months. C) Subject to the laws of the State of Registry. D) For a period of 12 months.
C) Subject to the laws of the State of Registry.
[LAW-PT01 #45] Article 31 of the Chicago Convention requires that a certificate of airworthiness must be issued to: A) Every aircraft engaged in aerial work. B) Every aircraft. C) Every aircraft engaged in international navigation. D) Commercial air transport aircraft only.
C) Every aircraft engaged in international navigation.
[LAW-PT01 #46] Which of these are valid pre-requisites for the issue of a European Certificate of Airworthiness? Mark all correct answers. A) The flight manual, when required for the particular aircraft. B) Historical records to provide evidence of its satisfactory production, modification, and maintenance standards (aircraft originating outside the EU). C) A mass and balance report with a loading schedule. D) A statement of (EASA) conformity (for new aircraft).
A) The flight manual, when required for the particular aircraft. B) Historical records to provide evidence of its satisfactory production, modification, and maintenance standards (aircraft originating outside the EU). C) A mass and balance report with a loading schedule. D) A statement of (EASA) conformity (for new aircraft).
[LAW-PT01 #47] Which of the following combinations of letters may be used for registration marks? A) QNH B) SOS C) TTT D) VOR
D) VOR
[LAW-PT01 #48] An aircraft's registration mark is assigned by: A) A Ministry of Transport and Ministry of Defence in the registering state. B) The State of Registry or a common mark registering authority. C) The International Civil Aviation Organisation. D) The International Telecommunication Union.
B) The State of Registry or a common mark registering authority.
[LAW-PT01 #49] On a heavier than air aircraft where should registration marks appear? A) On the lower surface of the left wing. B) On upper surface of the left wing. C) On the lower surface of the right wing. D) On the upper surface of the right wing.
A) On the lower surface of the left wing.
[LAW-PT01 #50] Nationality marks are selected from the series of nationality symbols allocated to the State of Registry by the A) State of manufacturer B) Common registration marks authority C) International Telecommunications Union (ITU). D) State of Registry
C) International Telecommunications Union (ITU).
[LAW-PT01 #51] Common Marks are: A) Allocated by the ITU and assigned by ICAO to the common mark registering authority. B) Assigned by the common mark registering authority and allocated by the State of Manufacture. C) Assigned by the ITU from allocations given by the common mark registering authority. D) Assigned by the common mark registering authority and allocated by the State of Registry.
A) Allocated by the ITU and assigned by ICAO to the common mark registering authority.
[LAW-PT01 #52] Your Class 1 medical certificate expires in 10 days. If you are going to an AMC now, you will undergo a medical class: A) Initial examination. B) Revalidation. C) Extension. D) Renewal.
B) Revalidation.
[LAW-PT01 #53] Your Class 1 medical certificate expired 10 days ago. If you are going to an AMC now, you will undergo a medical class: A) Renewal. B) Revalidation. C) Extension. D) Initial examination.
A) Renewal.
[LAW-PT01 #54] Which of the following annexes to the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specifications required for a crew license to be internationally valid? A) Annex 4. B) Annex 2. C) Annex 3. D) Annex 1.
D) Annex 1.
[LAW-PT01 #55] According to the Aircrew Regulation, one of the privileges of the holder of a CPL(A) is to act as pilot-in-command on any: A) Aircraft. B) Aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation. C) Aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation. D) Aeroplane certified for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation.
C) Aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation.
[LAW-PT01 #56] According to PART-FCL requirements, the validity of an instrument rating is: A) 5 years. B) 6 months. C) 1 year. D) 2 years.
C) 1 year.
[LAW-PT01 #57] A holder of a CPL is required to hold which type of medical certificate? A) Class 3. B) Class 1 or 2. C) Class 1. D) Class 2.
C) Class 1.
[LAW-PT01 #58] The period of validity for a type rating is: A) 1 year. B) 2 years if the type is operated under VFR only. C) 2 years. D) Indefinite.
A) 1 year.
[LAW-PT01 #59] According to PART-FCL, class and type ratings are valid for 1 year from the: A) Of issue. B) Of the last medical certificate. C) Of the skills test. D) The application is received by the Authority.
C) Of the skills test.
[LAW-PT01 #60] According to PART-FCL, class ratings are established for Single Pilot Single Engine Aeroplanes not requiring a type rating.These may include, for example: A) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary. B) Microlights having fixed wings and movable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all 3 dimensions. C) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine. D) Touring Motor Glider (TMG).
D) Touring Motor Glider (TMG).
[LAW-PT01 #61] The demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings is known as a: A) Revalidation. B) Conversion. C) Proficiency check. D) Skill test.
C) Proficiency check.
[LAW-PT01 #62] How long in advance may you undertake a proficiency check for the revalidation of a class or type rating? A) 45 days. B) 15 days. C) 6 months. D) 3 months.
D) 3 months.
[LAW-PT01 #63] According to PART-FCL, 'instrument time' comprises: A) Instrument flight time. B) Simulated instrument flight time. C) Instrument flight time or instrument ground time. D) The time in IMC where the aeroplane is flown by the PIC.
C) Instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
[LAW-PT01 #64] The privileges of an ATPL(A) allow the holder: A) To act as pilot in command of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport and to exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL. B) To act as pilot in command for commercial operation. C) To exercise all the privileges of the holder of a LAPL, a PPL, a CPL and ATPL-H. D) To act as pilot-in-command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation.
A) To act as pilot in command of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport and to exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL.
[LAW-PT01 #65] According to PART-FCL, single-pilot, single-engine class ratings are valid for: A) 1 year. B) 2 years up to the age 40, then 1 year thereafter. C) 2 years. D) 5 years after licence issue.
C) 2 years.
[LAW-PT01 #66] Your Class 1 medical certificate expired more than 5 years ago, if you are going to an AMC now you must undertake an: A) Extension. B) Initial Examination. C) Revalidation. D) Renewal.
B) Initial Examination.
[LAW-PT01 #67] A pilot suffers significant decrease in visual acuity and chronic headaches. The correct course of action is to: A) Obtain a prescription for glasses and resume flying if the headaches clear. B) Self medicate until the problem desists. C) Stop flying and seek aero-medical advice. D) Continue flying while waiting for an appointment with an aero-medical examiner.
C) Stop flying and seek aero-medical advice.
[LAW-PT01 #68] You may revalidate your medical certificate up to how many days before it expires?
45
[LAW-PT01 #69] An IR is valid for 1 year. It must be revalidated within the ____ months immediately preceding its expiry date.
3
[LAW-PT01 #70] An IR permits you to fly aircraft under IFR, including PBN operations, with a minimum decision height of no less than _______ feet
200
[LAW-PT01 #71] The privileges of an ME IR extend to DH’s lower than 200 feet after training at an ATO and A) Passing a MAPt course. B) Passing the skills test. C) Holding an IR type rating D) Holding an IR class rating
B) Passing the skills test.
[LAW-PT01 #72] An EIR ___________ valid for instrument approaches outside controlled airspace. A) is B) Is not
B) Is not
[LAW-PT01 #73] Class 1 medical certificates are initially issued by an AeMC. Subsequently, they can be revalidated and renewed by A) Either an AeMC or by an AME. B) Only your operator's medical examiner C) Only an AEM. D) Only an AME.
A) Either an AeMC or by an AME.
[LAW-PT01 #74] A competency based instrument rating (CBIR): Mark all correct answers. A) Is not valid for instrument approaches in controlled airspace. B) Allows the holder to exercise the privileges of an IR on a light aircraft. C) Is valid for IFR in all types of airspace. D) Is valid for IFR only in uncontrolled airspace.
B) Allows the holder to exercise the privileges of an IR on a light aircraft. C) Is valid for IFR in all types of airspace.
[LAW-PT01 #75] Which of the following are valid ratings under the Aircrew Regulation? Mark all correct answers. A) Flight test rating. B) Night rating C) Light single rating D) Mountain rating.
A) Flight test rating. B) Night rating D) Mountain rating.
[LAW-PT01 #76] Under PART-MED, you are required to seek advice from your AeMC or AME if you: Mark all correct answers. A) Need stronger correcting lenses. B) Have started regularly using medicine. C) Have been suffering from any illness. D) Have had surgery.
B) Have started regularly using medicine. D) Have had surgery.
[LAW-PT01 #77] A Class 1 medical certificate is valid for 12 months, or 6 months if you: Mark all correct answers. A) Over 40. B) Over 60. C) Are over 40 and fly single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers. D) Over 55.
B) Over 60. C) Are over 40 and fly single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers.
[LAW-PT01 #78] To act as flight crew of an EU aircraft, you need to demonstrate competence in: Mark all correct answers. A) Exercising good judgement and airmanship. B) Adopting non-technical skills. C) Operating the aircraft within its limitations. D) Applying aeronautical knowledge. E) Maintaining control of the aircraft at all times.
A) Exercising good judgement and airmanship. B) Adopting non-technical skills. C) Operating the aircraft within its limitations. D) Applying aeronautical knowledge. E) Maintaining control of the aircraft at all times.
[LAW-PT01 #79] Which of the following are valid types of EU pilot's licence? Mark all correct answers.utical knowledge. A) LAPL B) CPL C) MATPL D) PPL E) ATPL
A) LAPL B) CPL D) PPL E) ATPL
[LAW-PT01 #80] Which of the following statements are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) Student pilots must carry evidence that they have been authorised to carry out a cross-country flight. B) Qualified pilots must carry their valid licence, medical and photo ID when exercising the privileges of their licences. C) The privileges of an MPL are to act as a PiC of an aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot. D) The privileges of an ATPL are to exercise all the privileges an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL and act as PIC of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.
A) Student pilots must carry evidence that they have been authorised to carry out a cross-country flight. B) Qualified pilots must carry their valid licence, medical and photo ID when exercising the privileges of their licences. D) The privileges of an ATPL are to exercise all the privileges an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL and act as PIC of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.
[LAW-PT01 #81] The privileges of a CPL are to: Mark all correct answers. A) Exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL and a PPL. B) Act as PIC or co-pilot of any aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial air transport. C) Act as PIC in commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft. D) Act as PiC in commercial air transport aeroplanes
A) Exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL and a PPL. B) Act as PIC or co-pilot of any aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial air transport. C) Act as PIC in commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft.
[LAW-PT01 #82] Complete the following phrase: An aircraft that is operated in the EU must hold _____ that is issued or rendered valid by the State of Registry.
A Certificate of Airworthiness.
[LAW-PT01 #83] Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces is:
a heavier-than-air aircraft.
[LAW-PT01 #84] Consider the following: Helicopter, Glider, and Airship. - all can be classified as:
aircraft.
[LAW-PT01 #85] According to ICAO Annex 8, a Certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid, provided that the State of Registry shall require that the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft has been determined by periodical inspection at appropriate intervals ……………
By means of a system of inspection, approved by the State, that will produce at least an equivalent result.
[LAW-PT01 #86] In case of a heavier-than-air aircraft, where on the fuselage structure are the registration marks?
Either on each side of the fuselage between the wings and the tall surface or on the upper halves of the vertical tail surfaces.
[LAW-PT01 #87] Which of the following refers to the state of design?
It shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of aeroplanes above 5700 kg.
[LAW-PT01 #88] In the case of a heavier-than-air aircraft, where on the wing structure are the registration
On the left half of the lower surface.
[LAW-PT01 #89] ICAO Annex 7 defines the State of Registry as the State:
on whose register the aircraft is entered.
[LAW-PT01 #90] Continued Airworthiness after damage - When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if the:
State of Registry considers that the damage sustained is of such nature that the aircraft is still airworthy.
[LAW-PT01 #91] Nationality and Registration marks - The registration mark shall be assigned by the:
State of Registry or a common mark registering authority.
[LAW-PT01 #92] The validity and renewal of a Certificate of Airworthiness is subject to laws of the:
State of Registry.
[LAW-PT01 #93] Who is responsible for the assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority?
The International Civil Aviation Authority.
[LAW-PT01 #94] Which State ensures the existence of a continuing structural integrity programme to aeroplane above 5700 kg certificated take-off mass?
The State of Design
[LAW-PT01 #95] An aircraft's registration mark is assigned by:
The State of Registry or a common mark registering authority
[LAW-PT01 #96] A certificate of airworthiness shall be issued on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with the airworthiness requirements. Who issues the Certificate of Airworthiness?
The State of Registry
[LAW-PT01 #97] A certificate of airworthiness shall be issued on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements. Who issues the Certificate of Airworthiness?
[LAW-PT01 #98] The period of validity for a type rating is:
1 year
[LAW-PT01 #99] When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (VAT) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSO) at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor
1,3
[LAW-PT01 #100] For the issue of an instrument rating the holder of a PPL or CPL shall have completed at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command, according to the relevant FCL requirements, the minimum required cross country flight hours in the relevant aircra
10 hours
[LAW-PT01 #101] Two of the requirements for the issuance of an ATPL(A) licence are:
100 hours of flight time in a simulator with a maximum of 25 hours in an FNPT.
[LAW-PT01 #102] How long is a Mountain Rating valid for?
24 months.
[LAW-PT01 #103] According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.
[LAW-PT01 #104] The flying training for an applicant for a CPL(A) integrated course shall comprise:
a total of at least 150 flying hours, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be Instrument ground time.
[LAW-PT01 #105] In accordance with Part-FCL requirements, one of the privileges of a holder of an ATPL(A) is to:
act as PIC of aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport.
[LAW-PT01 #106] If an applicant wishes to obtain an aeroplane night rating, He/she shall have completed:
at least 5 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category at night and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full-stop landings.
[LAW-PT01 #107] Applicants for an aerobatic rating shall have completed:
At least 5 hours or 20 flights of aerobatic instruction in the appropriate aircraft category
[LAW-PT01 #108] According to EASA AIRCREW, Medical Certificates are:
Class 1 Medical Certificate, Class 2 Medical Certificate, LAPL Medical Certificate.
[LAW-PT01 #109] According to the relevant medical requirements, the applicant for a Commercial Pilot's licence shall hold a current:
Class I medical assessment.
[LAW-PT01 #110] According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for an IR shall hold a PPL including a night qualification, or a CPL, and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes for IR(A), or in helicopters for IR(H).
[LAW-PT01 #111] Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or TMGs shall only tow sailplanes or banners when they:
Hold the appropriate sailplane towing or banner towing rating
[LAW-PT01 #112] According to PART-FCL, 'instrument time' comprises:
Instrument flight time or instrument ground time
[LAW-PT01 #113] What does "night" mean?
It is the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority.
[LAW-PT01 #114] Which restrictions apply to licence holders aged between 60 and less than 65 in commercial air transport?
Multi-pilot crew only.
[LAW-PT01 #115] A new pilot in the airline has just done his/her checks. Flying with a captain who is commencing his/her line check. The new pilot is in the commander's seat. What is the role of the new pilot on this flight?
New pilot will be a commander if the operator dedicates him to be.
[LAW-PT01 #116] A PPL holder completes a night rating. After completion he/she is allowed to:
Night fly in VFR.
[LAW-PT01 #117] An ATPL(A) gives the same privileges as:
PPL(A), LAPL(A) and CPL(A).
[LAW-PT01 #118] What corresponds with a Class B aircraft?
Propeller engines, 9 persons or less, 5700 kg or less
[LAW-PT01 #119] A member of the flight crew being under the influence of psychoactive substances:
shall not undertake his function, taking into consideration that human performance is impaired
[LAW-PT01 #120] A pilot suffers significant decrease in visual acuity and chronic headaches. The correct course of action is to:
Stop flying and seek aero-medical advice
[LAW-PT01 #121] With regard to EASA Part-FCL, explain the term ‘competent authority’:
The competent authority shall be an authority designated by the Member State to whom a person applies for the issue of pilot licences or associated ratings or certificates.
[LAW-PT01 #122] What does "Proficiency Check" mean?
The demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings or privileges, and including such oral examination as may be required.
[LAW-PT01 #123] Who can change the limitations of class 1 medical certificate?
The licensing authority.
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