1. The following are examples for good conductors:1- Ferrometal2- Aluminium3- Wood4- Copper5- Silver6- Dry air7- Plastic8- Gold A) 1 2 4 5 8 B) 2 3 4 5 C) 4 5 6 7 8 D) 1 2
A) 1 2 4 5 8
2. Which of the following statements about static discharge wicks is/are correct:1- Static discharge wicks must be good insulators.2- Static discharge wicks are flexible to withstand fatigue caused by turbulence.3- Static discharge wicks are most commonly placed near the wing roots.4- Static discharge wicks must be inspected before flight to check that they are present and relatively undamaged.5- No static discharge wicks may be missing before flight. A) 2 4 B) 1 2 C) 3 4 D) 1 5
A) 2 4
3. Good conductors have many __________ electrons. A) free B) tightly bound
A) free
4. An accumulation of electric charge on an object is known as: __________ electricity. A) static B) dynamic C) electrical
A) static
5. An accumulation of charge on an object is more likely when the object is surrounded by __________. A) a poor conductor B) a good conductor C) water
A) a poor conductor
6. Static electricity is most likely to accumulate on an airframe when the aircraft is flying through very __________ air. A) dry B) moist C) damp D) humid
A) dry
7. Small, dry ice crystals suspended in the air are __________ to result in accumulated charge on an airframe. A) more likely B) less likely C) never
A) more likely
8. The components which ease the flow of accumulated electrical charge from airframe to atmosphere are called __________ __________ discharge wicks. A) static B) electrical
9. To ensure that there is no electrical potential difference between one part of the airframe and another, all parts must be __________ together. A) bonded B) grounded C) charged
A) bonded
10. Poor electrical __________ may cause electrical components to fail or static interference on the radios. A) bonding B) grounding C) isolation
A) bonding
11. The possibility of a large electrical potential difference between the aircraft and the earth means that the aircraft absolutely must be __________ before the refuelling nozzle is withdrawn from its holder. A) grounded B) bonded
A) grounded
12. A well-bonded airframe can be used as a common __________ __________ for electrical circuits. A) earth return B) electrical circuit C) negative return
A) earth return
13. Which of the following statements about Ohm's law is/are correct.1- Ohm's Law states that P = I V2- Ohm's Law states that V = I R3- Ohm's law states that I = V R4- Ohm's Law states that I = V / R A) 2 4 B) 2 3 C) 1 2 D) 1 4
14. A circuit contains 3 loads (consumers) wired in series. The resistances of the loads are: 4 Ohms, 10 Ohms and 400 Ohms.The total resistance of the 3 loads is: A) 414 Ohms B) 2.87 Ohms C) 4 Ohms D) 0.325 Ohms E) 400 Ohms
A) 414 Ohms
15. A circuit contains 3 loads (consumers) wired in parallel. The resistances of the loads are: 4 Ohms, 10 Ohms and 400 Ohms.The total resistance of the 3 loads is: A) 2.84 Ohms B) 414 Ohms C) 0.325 Ohms D) 4 Ohms E) 400 Ohms
A) 2.84 Ohms
16. The __________ is the unit of electrical potential difference. A) volt B) amp C) watt
A) volt
17. The unit of current is the __________ . A) amp B) Joule C) volt
A) amp
18. The unit of current describes the amount of __________ flowing per unit of time. A) charge B) voltage
A) charge
19. An electrical potential difference generates an __________ force. A) electromotive B) electromagnetic
A) electromotive
20. Current will flow through a __________ circuit when an emf is present. A) closed B) open
A) closed
21. Current which flows in 1 direction only is known as __________ current. A) direct B) alternating C) static
A) direct
22. Good insulators provide __________ resistance to current flow. A) strong B) weak
A) strong
23. A voltage is induced across a material with a positive thermal coefficient of resistance. The current flowing through the material will __________ as the material gets hotter. A) decrease B) increase
A) decrease
24. The energy flowing through an electrical circuit per second is measured in __________. A) watts B) amps C) volts
A) watts
25. A copper wire, with very good conducting properties, is used to connect the 2 terminals of a battery directly. The result is a __________ circuit which could produce a dangerous amount of heat. A similar condition occurring in an aircraft could result in an electrical fire. A) short B) electrical
A) short
26. The 2 typical nominal voltages for aircraft batteries which are off-load are:1- 12v2- 14v3- 24v4- 28v A) 1 3 B) 1 2 C) 2 3 D) 1 4
A) 1 3
27. For lithium and NiCd batteries, thermal runaway can be triggered by:1- Excessive charge rate2- Mechanical damage3- Mechanical shock.4- Chemical shock.5- Excessively low atmospheric pressure.6- Excessively high ambient temperature.7- Short circuit. A) 1 2 3 6 7 B) 1 2 3 4 5 C) 1 3 4 6 7 D) 2 3 5 7
A) 1 2 3 6 7
28. A lithium battery fire can only be extinguished by: A) Water or other non-flammable liquids. B) Halon C) BCF D) Carbon Dioxide
A) Water or other non-flammable liquids.
29. A substantial conductor powered by an electrical source such as a battery or generator which has multiple attachment points for loads (consumers)' is a description of: A) A busbar B) A battery. C) A contactor. D) A common earth return.
A) A busbar
30. Your 40 Ah aircraft battery is fully charged and in peak condition when, during flight, your electrical generator fails. The centre-zero ammeter reads - 20 A. If you don't load-shed immediately, you can expect the battery to last for an absolute maximum of: A) 2 hrs B) 4 hrs C) 10 hrs D) 20 hrs
A) 2 hrs
31. An aircraft battery provides a short-term, limited source of electrical energy. A __________ battery supplies less charge and a __________ maximum rate of discharge. A) cold; smaller B) cold; zero C) warm; smaller D) warm; zero
A) cold; smaller
32. __________ batteries have a better power to weight ratio than __________ batteries. A) lithium; lead-acid B) lead-acid; lithium
A) lithium; lead-acid
33. The unit of measurement for battery capacity is the __________ hour. A) ampere B) voltage C) wattage
A) ampere
34. To charge an aircraft battery, the battery busbar voltage must be __________ than the nominal battery voltage. A) higher B) lower
A) higher
35. __________ batteries, when discharging, sustain the correct voltage for a relatively long period before becoming exhausted. A) lithium and NiCd B) lead-acid
A) lithium and NiCd
36. A battery comprises several __________ wired in __________. A) cells; series B) terminals; series C) busbars; series D) contactors; series E) cells; parallel F) terminals; parallel G) busbars; parallel H) contactors; parallel
A) cells; series
37. When 'on-load' the voltage of a battery should be slightly __________ than the voltage measured across the terminals when the battery is 'off-load'. A) lower B) higher
A) lower
38. A large drop in battery voltage when placed on-load indicates that the battery is __________. A) in poor condition B) in good condition C) a NiCd or lithium type D) open-circuited
A) in poor condition
39. Which of the following descriptions of switches are correct:1- A rocker switch usually has 2 or 3 positions. The position of the switch is determined by looking to see whether it has been 'rocked' to the top or bottom, or is centred.2- A toggle switch can usually be selected in one of several positions.3- A rotary switch usually has an arrow-shaped knob to show you which position it is selected to.4- All rotary switches have infinitely adjustable positions.5- A switchlight is a type of push button switch with a back-lit display.6- Switch lights usually can only be toggled between one state and another. A) 1 2 3 5 6 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 1 3 4 D) 1 5 6
A) 1 2 3 5 6
40. Which of the following statements about guarded switches is/are correct?1- One purpose of guarding a switch is to avoid accidental operation of the switch.2- Push button switches are frequently gated. 3- 'Gating' is one method of guarding against accidental switch selections.4- A gated toggle switch must be depressed (pressed in) before it can be moved out of its gate.5- One purpose of guarding a switch is to ensure that very positive and deliberate actions must be taken to operate the switch. A) 1 3 5 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 1 2 3 D) 2 4
A) 1 3 5
41. Which of the following statements about fuses and circuit breakers is/are correct?1- A 10a fuse fitted in a 5a circuit will provide an additional safety margin in the event of overcurrent.2- A circuit breaker may only be reset in-flight in accordance with procedures laid out in the FCOM.3- A white collar visible around a circuit breaker indicates that the breaker is in.4- There is usually no immediate visual indication of a blown fuse, unless you physically take it out and examine it.5- Popping and then resetting a circuit breaker can sometimes be used to reset a system or computer when part of an approved procedure. A) 2 4 5 B) 1 2 4 C) 2 3 4 D) 3 4 5
A) 2 4 5
42. Protecting a circuit from damage caused by excessive current is a function of __________. A) fuses and circuit breakers B) circuit breakers only C) fuses only
A) fuses and circuit breakers
43. The wire in a fuse is made from material with __________. A) a positive thermal coefficient B) a negative thermal coefficient
A) a positive thermal coefficient
44. The advantage of an electromechanical circuit breaker over a thermally activated circuit breaker is that it can: __________. A) be made sensitive to current direction B) be reset multiple times
A) be made sensitive to current direction
45. A bimetallic strip is a component used in __________. A) a thermally activated circuit breaker B) an electromechanical circuit breaker C) a fuse
A) a thermally activated circuit breaker
46. The most serious threat posed by overcurrent in a circuit is __________. A) fire B) damage to the fuse C) damage to the circuit breaker D) damage to the electrical components
A) fire
47. A __________ overcurrent condition in a circuit may be addressed by resetting the circuit breaker in accordance with the FCOM. A) transient B) permanent
A) transient
48. The primary threat from multiple or unauthorised resets of a circuit breaker is __________. A) electrical fire B) damage to the generator C) damage to the battery
A) electrical fire
49. A __________ can be reset. A) popped circuit breaker B) blown fuse
A) popped circuit breaker
50. Fuses and circuit beakers are 'rated' according to the maximum __________ they can sustain before blowing or popping respectively. A) current B) voltage C) wattage
A) current
51. A short-circuit condition __________ rectified by replacing the fuse or resetting the circuit breaker. A) cannot be B) can be
A) cannot be
52. "Overcurrent results in excessive heating which causes the circuit protection device to open the circuit'. This is a description of: __________. A) a thermally activated CB or a fuse B) an electromechanical CB C) a fuse only
A) a thermally activated CB or a fuse
53. Which of the following statements about electromagnetism is/are correct?1- An electrical current flowing through a wire produces a magnetic field around the wire.2- A copper wire moving across a magnetic field will experience current flowing through it.3- The strength of the magnetic field created by current flowing though a wire is inversely proportional to the current flow.4- A ferrous metal core inserted inside a coil of wire will increase the strength of the magnetic field when current flows through the coil. A) 1 2 4 B) 1 2 C) 2 3 D) 3 4
A) 1 2 4
54. A coil wrapped around a fixed ferrous core creates an electromagnetic force when the coil is energised. This closes a switch to allow high current to pass through a second circuit'. This is a description of a __________. A) relay B) solenoid C) battery
A) relay
55. A ferrous metal core moves when a current is caused to flow in a coil of wire wrapped around it'. This is a description of a __________. A) solenoid B) relay C) battery
A) solenoid
56. An aircraft wiring loom comprises bundles of wires. If the wires are not shielded, a current flowing through one wire will __________. A) cause current to flow in adjacent wires B) cause a build-up of static electricity C) cause a short-circuit
A) cause current to flow in adjacent wires
57. The phenomenon whereby a voltage and current is generated in a conductor when it is moved across a magnetic field is called electromagnetic __________. A) induction B) conduction
A) induction
58. Which of the following statements about electrical power generators is/are correct?1- An AC waveform is created by rotating coils of conducting wire in a magnetic field.2- An AC waveform is created by rotating a magnetic field within which there are coils of conducting wire.3-DC current is created by rotating coils of conducting wire in a magnetic field.4- Rotating coils of conducting wire in a magnetic field causes current to flow first in one direction and then in the opposite direction, depending on the orientation of the coils.5- Frequency describes the number of cycles per second. A) 1 2 4 5 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 2 3 4 5 D) 1 3 4 5
A) 1 2 4 5
59. An electrical generator driven by an engine creates electrical energy by the process of electromagnetic __________. A) induction B) generation C) conduction
60. The number of waves per second, measured from peak to peak, is the __________ of the waveform. A) frequency B) amplitude
A) frequency
61. The unit of frequency is the __________. A) hertz B) amp C) volt D) degree
A) hertz
62. The AC waveform is a __________ shape. A) sinusoidal B) eliptical C) flat
A) sinusoidal
63. The position of a waveform is defined by its __________. A) phase or phase angle B) frequency C) displacement angle
A) phase or phase angle
64. The unit of power for AC is the __________. A) Watt B) volt amp C) Joule
A) Watt
65. kVA is the unit typically used to describe the power output of an aircraft's __________ generator. A) AC B) DC
A) AC
66. Which of the following is used to adjust the current flow to the generator's electromagnet? A) A voltage control unit. B) A starter unit. C) An electric motor control unit. D) An APU.
A) A voltage control unit.
67. Which of the following is fitted between the alternator/generator and the busbar to ensure that the battery cannot drive the alternator/generator. A) A reverse current protection device. B) A voltage protection device. C) A voltage control unit. D) A surge protector.
A) A reverse current protection device.
68. When the voltage of the alternator/generator reduces below the voltage at the busbar, then the current flow will reverse. If nothing is done to stop this, the alternator/generator becomes: A) An electric motor driven by the battery. B) An electric motor driven by the engine's RPM. C) A commutator. D) An alternator.
A) An electric motor driven by the battery.
69. This unit operates as a starter motor during engine start and a DC generator after engine start. It is called a: A) A DC starter-generator. B) A DC alternator. C) A DC generator.
A) A DC starter-generator.
70. A DC __________ creates electrical current by rotating an electromagnetic field, inside which are coils of wire. A) alternator B) generator C) commutator
A) alternator
71. A DC __________ creates electrical current by rotating coils of wire inside an electromagnetic field. A) generator B) alternator C) commutator
A) generator
72. A __________ is used in a DC __________ to cut off the flow of current whenever it becomes negative. A) commutator; generator B) rotor; alternator C) armature; commutator D) alternator; generator
A) commutator; generator
73. Solid-state __________ are used in a DC alternator to cut off the flow of current whenever it reverses direction. A) diodes B) commutators
A) diodes
74. The most common modern type of DC generation device is an __________ . A) alternator B) generator C) commutator
75. DC alternators and generators produce a __________ emf the faster they rotate. A) greater B) smaller
A) greater
76. The voltage of DC alternators and generators varies with __________ . A) engine RPM B) aircraft vertical speed C) engine torque
A) engine RPM
77. A voltage control unit of a DC generating device must output a constant __________ at all engine RPM. A) voltage B) current C) frequency
A) voltage
78. If the voltage of the alternator reduces below the voltage of the battery, then current flow will flow from the __________ to the battery busbar. A) battery B) Alternator
A) battery
79. A component consuming 80 watts at 8 amps would require a supply of:
0.01 kV
80. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. By increasing the load on an electric motor (i.e. increasing the resistance against rotation), the power output will increase as a result of an increased current flow. 2. The torque of an electrical motor can be calculated by dividing the power by the motor RPM.
1 and 2 are both correct.
81. Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting a protection device are correct or incorrect? 1. A fuse cannot be reset 2. A circuit breaker can be reset
1 and 2 are correct
82. Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to: 1. Protect the aircraft against lightning effects. 2. Ensure an electrostatic potential of the aircraft of approximating 0 volt. 3. Reduce radio interference on radio communication systems. 4. Ensure the different aircraft parts are at the same electrical potential. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 3, 4
83. Regarding the capacity of a battery and its measurement, which statement(s) ls/are correct/incorrect? 1. The battery capacity is determined by multiplying a current flow in Amperes by the time in hours that the battery is being discharged. 2. The total battery capacity is dependent on the voltage rating of its battery cells.
1 correct; 2. incorrect.
84. The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the total resistance is given by the following formula:
1/Rtot = 1/R1 + 1/R2
85. When connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour batteries in parallel, what will be their total voltage and capacity?
12 volt, 80 ampere-hours
86. Static dischargers: 1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential. 2. are placed on wing and tall tips to facilitate electrical discharge. 3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts. 4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board radio communication systems to a minimum. 5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds. The combination that regroups ail of the correct statements is:
2, 4, 5
87. The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is approximately:
2.2 V.
88. If a battery's ammeter shows +24 , what is happening?
24A is being pushed to the batteries.
89. The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1. Simple connection. 2. High starting torque. 3. Flexibility in use. 4. Lighter weight of equipment. 5. Easy to convert into direct current. 6. Easy maintenance of machines. The combination of correct answers is:
3, 4, 5, 6.
90. The advantages of Nickel-Cadmium compared with Lead-acid batteries are: 1. Lower risk of thermal runaway. 2. Higher internal resistance, hence higher power. 3. Reduced charging time. 4. Constant output voltage. The combination of the correct statements is:
3, 4.
91. In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
4
92. The most widely used AC frequency in aircraft is:
400 Hz
93. f a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned perpendicular to a magnetic field:
A force will be exerted on the conductor.
94. When a conductor cuts the field lines of a magnetic field:
A Lorentz force is induced in the conductor.
95. A relay is:
A magnetically operated switch.
96. When carrying out a battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter:
a rated load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition
97. Electric motors on aircraft can be:
AC 400 Hz.
98. A current limiter fuse in a DC system is used to:
Allow a short term overload before rupturing.
99. The capacity of a battery is the:
amount of Ampere-hour (Ah) that a fully charged battery can supply.
100. Batteries are rated in:
Amperes × hours.
101. The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in:
Amperes.
102. The unit that converts DC into AC is:
An inverter.
103. The type of gate that requires all 'TRUE' inputs for a 'TRUE' output is:
AND.
104. One of the main functions of the battery in large transport aircraft is to:
Be an emergency source of electric power.
105. To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel:
Both real and reactive loads must be matched.
106. Given: Q = charge (Coulombs). U = potential difference between the plates (Volt). The capacitance C (Farads) is defined by the following formula:
C = Q / U
107. A constant speed drive (CSD) that has been disconnected in flight:
Can be reset only on the ground after engine shut-down.
108. A test to assess the state of charge of a Lead-acid battery would involve:
Comparing the on-load and off-load battery voltages.
109. The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux changes) in the primary coil of a magneto are accomplished by the:
Contact breaker points opening.
110. The input and output of a static inverter are respectively:
DC and AC.
111. f the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is decreased, the current flowing in the circuit will:
Decrease.
112. An inverter is a:
device used to convert DC into AC
113. The purpose of static wick dischargers is to:
dissipate buildup of static electricity of the aircraft structure in flight to the surrounding atmosphere
114. The purpose of static wick dischargers is to:
dissipate the static charge of the aircraft ln flight.
115. When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
excitation current.
116. The unit used to measure the capacitance of a capacitor is the:
Farad.
117. The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the:
Generator at varying loads and speeds.
118. The function of the generator breaker is to close when the voltage of the:
Generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true.
119. When the AC voltage across a capacitor is kept constant and the frequency is increased, the current through the capacitor will:
increase
120. The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the:
Induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil.
121. A capacitor in parallel with breaker points:
Induces a very high voltage across the secondary windings.
122. The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to:
Invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.
123. When the battery ammeter shows "+24" the battery:
is being charged with 24 A.
124. The phase relationship between two unparalleled AC generators:
Is unimportant.
125. If one of the 12 cells of a Lead-acid battery has a broken connection rendering it inoperable, the battery:
Is unserviceable.
126. What is the unit of measurement for electrical work?
Joule.
127. The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the:
Lower back pressure.
128. An advantage of nickel-cadmium compared with lead-acid batteries is that they:
maintain a constant output voltage during discharge.
129. Frequency wild' in relation to an AC generation system means the generator:
Output frequency varies with engine speed.
130. When using a fuse with a higher rating than prescribed:
Overcurrent might go undetected and cause a fire.
131. DC generators in multi engine aircraft are connected in:
Parallel for maximum power.
132. ln flight, if the temperature of the constant speed drive (CSD) ls in the red arc the:
pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.
133. The electrolyte in a Nickel-Cadmium battery is:
Potassium hydroxide.
134. A thermal circuit breaker:
protects the system in the event of a prolonged, excessive current
135. An AC generator driven by a constant speed drive (CSD):
Requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.
136. The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:
Rotor.
137. The purpose of static discharge wicks is to:
Safely dissipate the static charge of the aircraft in flight.
138. One indication of inadequate bonding of aircraft components may be:
Static noise on the radio.
139. Which of the following formulas describes how the torque of an electrical motor is determined by the supplied voltage and current and the resulting RPM. T = Torque, U = Voltage, H = RPM, I = Current.
T = (U x I) / H
140. A capacitor can be used as a:
temporary storage device
141. A lithium polymer battery is most likely to be a hazard to the aircraft when:
The battery has an extreme internal pressure.
142. Regarding ohm's law:
the current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage
143. In the event of an AC generator fault, on a twin engine aircraft, the protection device will open:
The exciter control relay and the generator breaker.
144. It is NOT recommended to reset a tripped circuit breaker during flight because:
The overload condition may still be present and the electrical damage could become worse.
145. When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for:
The voltage to decrease even under light loads.
146. In a DC (Direct Current) circuit, what will happen if the current gets too high and ls not detected?
The wire will overheat and could cause a fire.
147. In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because:
They weigh less than lead-acid batteries.
148. Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:
used in AC and DC circuits
149. The commonly used symbol for voltage is:
V and it is measured in volts.
150. AC generators operated in parallel must have the same:
voltage and phase.
151. If we connect two batteries in series what happens to the voltage and capacity?
Voltage doubles, capacity remains the same.
152. Electrical potential is measured in:
Volts.
153. ln reference to an inverter unit, which of these relationships between AC and DC is correct?
x Volts of DC --+ y Volts of AC
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