AIR LAW 03

[LAW-PT03 #1] When flying an instrument departure procedure, pilots are expected to: A) Correct the aircraft's track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. B) Request from ATC an adequate heading to cater for wind direction and strength. C) Request a clearance from ATC with regards to a wind correction to be applied. D) Ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.

[LAW-PT03 #2] A turning departure involves a turn of more than 15°. However, straight flight is assumed until at least A) 500 ft. B) 120 ft. C) 394 ft. D) 35 ft.

[LAW-PT03 #3] A straight departure is defined as one in which: A) The departure track is within 15° of the orientation of the runway’s centre line. B) The departure track is within 30° of the orientation of the runway’s centre line. C) The initial departure track is within 15° of the orientation of the runway’s centre line. D) The departure track is within 45° of the orientation of the runway’s centre line.

[LAW-PT03 #4] An omnidirectional departure is: A) A departure which starts at the departure end of the runway and always allows a departure in any direction. B) Any departure in which the aircraft turns through more than 45 degrees. C) A departure which starts at the departure end of the runway and requires a turn through 360 degrees or more. D) A departure which starts at the departure end of the runway and sometimes allows a departure in any direction.

[LAW-PT03 #5] Omnidirectional departures are used: A) Whenever an aircraft has no navigational aids or, for some other reason, is unable to maintain track. B) Whenever ATC is unable to give track guidance. C) Whenever there are no obstacles in the climb-out sector. D) When there are no adequate navigation aids available or, for some other reason, no track guidance is provided.

[LAW-PT03 #6] You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. You must not descend below the MDA until:1. You have the landing threshold in sight.2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained.3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made.The combination of all the correct answers is: A) 2, 3. B) 1, 2, 3. C) 1, 2. D) 1, 3.

[LAW-PT03 #7] What are the ICAO approach categories for circling minima? A) A, B, C, D. B) B, C, D, E, F. C) A, B, C. D) A, B, C, D, E.

[LAW-PT03 #8] Which answer best applies to the Final Approach Fix (FAF)? A) It signifies the end of the Arrival Segment. B) The optimum distance for locating the FAF from the runway threshold is 5 nm. C) It signifies the beginning of the Final Approach Segment. D) It signifies the end of the Initial Approach Segment.

[LAW-PT03 #9] In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: A) 400 ft. B) 350 ft. C) 200 ft. D) The OCH.

[LAW-PT03 #10] The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least: A) 300 m (984 ft). B) 600 m (1968 ft). C) 150 m (492 ft). D) 450 m (1476 ft).

[LAW-PT03 #11] A circling approach is: A) A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available. B) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H. C) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. D) A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.

[LAW-PT03 #12] The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: A) The outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to the appropriate minimum. B) A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided. C) The first part of the segment. D) The most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.

[LAW-PT03 #13] When making a non-precision approach, what is created when an operating limit is added to an Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)? A) Decision Height. B) Minimum Descent Height (MDH). C) Decision Altitude. D) Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA).

[LAW-PT03 #14] What happens during the intermediate segment of an instrument approach? A) The aircraft is manoeuvring to enter the arrival segment. B) The aircraft is aligned with the runway and descent for landing is made. C) Aircraft speed and configuration are adjusted to prepare for the final approach. D) The aircraft climbs to achieve a safe height of 50 m.

[LAW-PT03 #15] Towards the end of a long flight, the IAF marks the: A) End of the initial approach segment. B) Beginning of the intermediate approach segment. C) Initial segment of the STAR. D) End of the STAR.

[LAW-PT03 #16] What fixes occur between arrival segment and the final approach fix? A) Intermediate (IF) and Missed (MAPt). B) Initial (IAF) and Intermediate (IF). C) Initial (IAF) and Missed (MAPt). D) Final (FAF) and Missed (MAPt).

[LAW-PT03 #17] What is the name of a manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track: A) Base turn. B) Reversal track. C) Procedure turn. D) Race track.

[LAW-PT03 #18] You are at waypoint (MORU) which designates the end of the STAR. The next fix to be flown over is: A) Final approach fix. B) Initial approach fix. C) Proceed to the SID. D) Aerodrome directly.

[LAW-PT03 #19] The 'aerodrome elevation' is the height of: A) The highest point in the landing area. B) The threshold of the main precision runway. C) The airfield reference datum. D) The apron.

[LAW-PT03 #20] An Obstacle Clearance Altitude (OCA) is referenced to: A) Mean sea level. B) The relevant runway threshold. C) An aerodrome elevation. D) The aerodrome reference point.

[LAW-PT03 #21] During the approach phase, safe clearance from terrain and obstacles is ensured by: A) A volume of protected airspace surrounding the defined track and vertical profile. B) ATC guidance. C) Following the ILS localiser. D) An approach database.

[LAW-PT03 #22] The design of approach procedures is constrained by: A) The accuracy of the approach aids. B) The type of weather expected. C) The level of ATC control available in the initial approach. D) The crosswind.

[LAW-PT03 #23] The 5 possible segments of an approach are: A) The initial approach segment. B) The initial missed approach. C) The final approach segment. D) The intermediate segment. E) The arrival segment. F) The missed approach segment. G) The intermediate missed approach.

[LAW-PT03 #24] The segment which occurs between the IAF and IF is: A) The arrival B) The missed approach. C) The initial approach. D) The final approach.

[LAW-PT03 #25] An MOC of 984 ft is provided: A) During the initial approach and the very early part of the intermediate segment. B) During the initial approach segment only. C) During the final approach. D) During the initial phase of the missed approach.

[LAW-PT03 #26] Speed and configuration are adjusted to prepare for the final approach'. This is a description of the tasks in the: A) Intermediate segment. B) Arrival segment. C) Final initial approach segment. D) Initial approach segment.

[LAW-PT03 #27] The optimum gradient for the final approach segment is: A) 3° (3.2%) B) 5° (3.3%) C) 3° (5.3%) D) 3° (5.2%)

[LAW-PT03 #28] To be considered a 'straight-in' approach, the maximum angle between the final approach track and the extended RWY centre line must not exceed: A) 10° B) 30° C) 5° D) 3°

[LAW-PT03 #29] The aim of the final approach is either to land or? A) Enter the visual pattern. B) Establish visual contact with the aerodrome. C) Go-around. D) Descend to MDA.

[LAW-PT03 #30] The maximum allowable intercept angle on the IF when conducting a precision approach is: A) 3° B) 90° C) 120° D) 45°

[LAW-PT03 #31] The maximum allowable intercept angle on the IF when conducting a non- precision approach is: A) 45° B) 90° C) 120° D) 10°

[LAW-PT03 #32] The maximum allowable intercept angle on the IF when conducting DR navigation is: A) 45° B) 3° C) 90° D) 120°

[LAW-PT03 #33] In the Intermediate segment the MOC reduces from 984 ft to: A) 980 ft B) 120 ft C) The OCH for the procedure. D) 492 ft

[LAW-PT03 #34] The most significant factor affecting the size of the required protected area, is the _________of the aircraft using the procedure. A) Size. B) Speed. C) Wingspan. D) Weight.

[LAW-PT03 #35] The minimum obstacle clearance provided by the minimum sector altitude is ________ (m) within a radius of 25 nm of the aerodrome’s homing facility.

[LAW-PT03 #36] Within the obstacle clearance volume, MOC is provided for the whole width of the: A) Primary area only. B) Primary and secondary areas. C) Secondary area. D) Prime area only.

[LAW-PT03 #37] 'The lowest altitude (OCA) or height (OCH) above the threshold at which a missed approach must begin to maintain obstacle clearance'. This description of OCA/H is applicable to: A) A circling approach. B) The visual segment. C) A non-precision approach. D) A precision approach.

[LAW-PT03 #38] The primary danger of descending below the OCA/H without first obtaining the visual references is: A) Collision with an aircraft on the runway. B) Loss of alignment with the runway. C) Loss of the ability to go-around. D) Unsafe separation from terrain.

[LAW-PT03 #39] A fix that marks the beginning of the initial approach segment and the end of the arrival segment, if applicable. In RNAV applications this fix is normally defined by a fly-by waypoint. This is a description of: A) The IF. B) The FAF. C) The IAF. D) The FAP.

[LAW-PT03 #40] A fix that marks the end of an initial segment and the beginning of the intermediate segment. In RNAV applications this fix is normally defined by a fly-by waypoint. This is a description of: A) The IAF. B) The FAS. C) The IF. D) A TP.

[LAW-PT03 #41] That point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed. This is a description of: A) The FAP. B) The FAS. C) The MAPt. D) The FAT.

[LAW-PT03 #42] On a precision approach using QNH, OCA plus safety margin plus a margin for the aircraft and crew gives a: A) MDH B) DA C) DH D) MDA

[LAW-PT03 #43] If the final approach segment doesn't start at the final approach fix then it starts at a point in space known as the: A) Final approach block (FAB). B) Final approach point (FAP). C) Final approach path (FAP). D) Final descent point (FDP).

[LAW-PT03 #44] The 3 phases of the missed approach are: A) Departure B) Climb C) Final D) Initial E) Intermediate

[LAW-PT03 #45] The intermediate phase of a missed approach ends at: A) The point where 50 m obstacle clearance can be obtained and maintained. B) The point where 50 m obstacle clearance is first achieved. C) The start of the climb. D) The point where a new approach, hold or return to en-route flight is initiated.

[LAW-PT03 #46] For a precision approach the missed approach point is established: A) At a point where the glide path intersects the OCA. B) At a point where the glide path intersects the DA/H. C) Over a navigation facility, fix, waypoint or at a specified distance from the FAF. D) At a point where the glide path intersects the MDA.

[LAW-PT03 #47] If, upon reaching the MAPt, the required visual reference is not established you must: A) Fly level until you see the runway threshold. B) Go-around (initiate the missed approach procedure). C) Convert to a circling approach. D) Climb straight ahead to MSA.

[LAW-PT03 #48] If you initiate a missed approach before the MAPt: A) You will violate ATC rules because a missed approach procedure can only be initiated at the MAPt. B) Fly to the MAPt, crossing it at the prescribed altitude/height before following the procedure. C) Initiate the procedure immediately. D) Fly to the MAPt, crossing it at or above the prescribed altitude/height before following the procedure.

[LAW-PT03 #49] The procedure in which you make an instrument approach to an instrument runway but then land on a different runway is known as: A) A turning approach. B) A non-final approach. C) A missed approach. D) Circling.

[LAW-PT03 #50] If a prominent obstacle protrudes into the circling area: A) A non-circling sector may be established, provided that the obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach area. B) A circling approach cannot be made. C) You must land on the instrument runway regardless of the conditions. D) A non-circling sector may be established, provided that the obstacle is outside the missed approach area.

[LAW-PT03 #51] You must not descend below MDA/H you until: A) Visual references are established and can be maintained throughout, or you have the landing threshold in sight, and the required obstacle clearance can be maintained or you can position to land using normal descent rates and bank angles. B) You have both thresholds in sight and can maintain MDH while clear of cloud and in sight of the ground. C) Visual references are established and can be maintained throughout, and you have the landing threshold in sight, and the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and you can position to land using normal descent rates and bank angles. D) You have both thresholds in sight and can maintain MDA while clear of cloud and in sight of the ground.

[LAW-PT03 #52] During a circling manoeuvre you must keep in sight: A) All other circling aircraft. B) The aerodrome boundary. C) All obstacles within the circling area. D) The landing runway environment.

[LAW-PT03 #53] You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC NDB 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. The appropriate entry procedure is: A) Direct. B) Either offset or parallel. C) Parallel. D) Offset.

[LAW-PT03 #54] You are the first aircraft to arrive at a holding area. You will be assigned to: A) A holding level appropriate to your approach altitude. B) The lowest available level. C) The highest available level. D) A holding level appropriate to your aircraft's holding speed.

[LAW-PT03 #55] In a holding pattern you should attempt to maintain the __________ by making allowance for wind by applying corrections to __________ during entry and while flying the holding pattern. A) Track; heading and speed. B) Track; heading and time. C) Heading; time. D) Heading; track & time.

[LAW-PT03 #56] When you are asked to hold on a non-standard holding fix (e.g. en-route) what direction are the turns made? A) It depends upon the inbound holding track. B) At your discretion. C) Left. D) Right.

[LAW-PT03 #57] In a holding pattern, the standard turn is: A) 20° of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the greater bank. B) 25° of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the lesser bank. C) 25° of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the greater bank. D) 20° of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the lesser bank.

[LAW-PT03 #58] You are inbound to a fix. After passing it you make a left turn to begin the hold entry procedure. From which sector did you join? A) Not possible to work out. B) Parallel. C) Offset. D) Direct.

[LAW-PT03 #59] You are tracking 050° inbound to the MUM VOR. Which entry must you perform into the hold if the inbound course is 270° with right turns? A) Parallel/Direct. B) Offset. C) Direct. D) Direct/Offset.

[LAW-PT03 #60] Regarding a hold, when does the outbound timing commence? A) Over or abeam the holding fix, whichever is later. B) Overhead the hold point. C) Abeam the hold point. D) Over or abeam the holding fix, whichever is earlier.

[LAW-PT03 #61] When passing over a hold fix, you fly a right turn and enter the hold. This description best describes a: A) Parallel entry. B) Direct entry. C) Offset entry. D) Offset/parallel entry.

[LAW-PT03 #62] When passing over a hold fix, you fly a left turn onto heading 090°. You maintain track for a specified time, and then perform a second left turn to intercept the 270° inbound radial of the same hold fix. After flying over the hold fix for a second time, you perform a right turn and continue tracking around the hold procedure. What sort of entry procedure is being described? A) Reverse. B) Parallel. C) Offset. D) Direct.

[LAW-PT03 #63] You can't conform to the holding pattern: A) This is dangerous because it may critically reduce separation from obstacles and terrain. Inform ATC ASAP. B) This isn't dangerous because the holding pattern is surrounded by a very large protected area. C) This isn't dangerous provided you maintain 'own separation' from other aircraft in the hold. D) This is dangerous because it may critically reduce separation from obstacles and terrain. Ask ATC ASAP for clearance to fly your revised procedure.

[LAW-PT03 #64] The still-air time for flying the outbound entry heading is: A) 1 minute below or at 10 000 ft 1.5 minutes above 10 000 ft. B) 1 minute below or at 10 000 ft 2 minutes above 10 000 ft. C) 1 minute below or at 14 000 ft 1.5 minutes above 14 000 ft. D) 1 minute below or at 14 000 ft 2 minutes above 14 000 ft.

[LAW-PT03 #65] To maintain your aircraft within the holding pattern you take account of the known wind to: A) Adjust your time. B) Adjust your heading. C) Adjust your heading and time. D) Adjust your speed.

[LAW-PT03 #66] When ATC clears you to leave the hold at a given time you must: A) Immediately fly to the holding fix and hold over it until the cleared time to leave it. B) Continue to fly the full holding pattern while adjusting your speed to ensure that you exit the holding fix at the correct time. C) Adjust your flight path (while remaining within the holding pattern) so that you leave the holding pattern at the time specified. D) Adjust your flight path (while remaining within the holding pattern) so that you leave the holding point at the time specified.

[LAW-PT03 #67] By when must the Transition Level be obtained when making an approach to an aerodrome? A) Before commencement of the final approach. B) Top of descent. C) Before commencement of the initial approach. D) Before take-off.

[LAW-PT03 #68] In cruise flight, what should the altimeter indicate? A) Altitude when cruising at or below transition altitude. B) Flight level in and above the transition layer. C) Height or altitude above the transition altitude. D) Altitude in and below the transition layer.

[LAW-PT03 #69] To avoid confusion, how are transition altitudes set at 2 aerodromes located close together? A) Separate TAS are used. B) A single TA is used, which is the higher of the 2 if calculated separately. C) A single TA is used, which is the lower of the 2 if calculated separately. D) An average TA is used.

[LAW-PT03 #70] In which of the following ATC clearances is the QNH given? A) In all climb or descent clearances to an altitude. B) In all clearances to altitudes below 2000 ft above aerodrome level. C) In the descent, when first cleared to an altitude below the transition level. D) In climb, when first cleared to an altitude above the transition level.

[LAW-PT03 #71] Before departure, an aircraft must always have one of its altimeters set to: A) QFE B) QFF C) QNH D) QDR

[LAW-PT03 #72] The transition level shall be provided to the flight crew: A) When passing the transition altitude during descent. B) During descent, prior to reaching the transition level. C) During climb, before reaching the transition altitude. D) When changing the altimeter setting from QNH to QFE.

[LAW-PT03 #73] Transition altitude should be rounded up to the nearest? A) 500 ft. B) 300 ft. C) 200 ft. D) 1000 ft.

[LAW-PT03 #74] When is it permissible to set QNH whilst flying above the transition layer? A) When flying above the transition layer. B) When descending to a cleared altitude, but not when flying level. C) Only when climbing though the transition layer. D) Only when descending though the transition altitude.

[LAW-PT03 #75] According to PANS ATM DOC 4444 when should the QNH be given to arriving aircraft? A) When cleared to the FAF. B) In approach clearances and in traffic circuit joining instructions. C) When leaving the cruising level. D) In approach and landing clearances.

[LAW-PT03 #76] According to PANS OPS Doc 8168, Flight Level zero shall be located at the atmospheric pressure level of 1013.2 hPa. Consecutive flight levels shall be separated by a pressure interval corresponding to at least __________ in the standard atmosphere. A) 2000 ft. B) 500 ft. C) 1000 ft. D) 250 ft.

[LAW-PT03 #77] When should QNH be obtained in the descent? A) Before the transition level. B) In the transition layer. C) Before the transition altitude when cruising within the transition layer. D) At the transition level.

[LAW-PT03 #78] When may you refer to your vertical position as a flight level? A) When flying below the transition layer. B) While passing through the transition layer. C) When flying below the transition level. D) When flying at or above the transition level.

[LAW-PT03 #79] According to PANS Ops Doc 8168, when should the QNH setting be available to aircraft? A) During the take-off clearance. B) During clearance on the stand. C) During the taxi clearance prior to take-off. D) During the start clearance.

[LAW-PT03 #80] What is the name given to the airspace above the altitude below which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by altitudes above mean sea level, and the lowest useable flight level? A) The transition altitude. B) The pressure altitude. C) The transition layer. D) The transition level.

[LAW-PT03 #81] The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground is known as: A) QFE B) QRH C) QDR D) QNH

[LAW-PT03 #82] The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point measured from mean sea level (MSL) is: A) A flight level. B) An elevation. C) A height. D) An altitude.

[LAW-PT03 #83] Flight levels are defined as pressure altitudes above: A) The level of the terrain. B) The 1013.25 hPa pressure datum. C) The level of the lowest useable flight level. D) The level of the airfield.

[LAW-PT03 #84] A surface of constant atmospheric pressure referenced to 1013.2 hPa is: A) A flight level. B) A height. C) An altitude. D) An elevation.

[LAW-PT03 #85] Which of the following best describes the transition altitude? A) The altitude at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to heights. B) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. C) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to flight levels. D) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to pressure altitudes.

[LAW-PT03 #86] QNH altimeter-setting reports should be provided from sufficient locations because: A) It changes with the depth of the transition layer. B) Different ADs calculate it slightly differently. C) Altimeters are prone to error. D) Of the significant variation in atmospheric pressure laterally.

[LAW-PT03 #87] When an aircraft is using QFE, its height can be expressed as a height above: Mark all correct answers. A) The runway threshold for instrument runways, if the threshold is 7 ft or more below the aerodrome elevation B) The runway threshold for instrument runways, if the threshold is 10 ft or more below the aerodrome elevation. C) The AD's elevation. D) The runway threshold for a precision approach runway.

[LAW-PT03 #88] The 2 main objectives of altimeter settings are: Mark all correct answers. A) To check the accuracy of the altimeter before take-off. B) To check the accuracy of the altimeter before landing. C) To provide vertical separation between aircraft. D) To provide terrain clearance during all phases of flight.

[LAW-PT03 #89] Which of these statements about the transition layer is/are correct? The transition layer: Mark all correct answers. A) Has a variable depth. B) Is set by the ATC of the AD at a depth of 500 ft. C) Is a fixed depth. D) Is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. E) Is the airspace between the transition altitude and the SPS of 1013.24 hPa.

[LAW-PT03 #90] A no transgression Zone (NTZ) for independent parallel approaches is: A) At least 1310 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent approaches is less than 1500 ft. B) A maximum of 610 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent approaches is less than 1000 ft. C) At least 610 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent approaches is less than 1000 ft. D) A maximum of 1310 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent approaches is less than 1500 ft

[LAW-PT03 #91] Parallel operations, where one runway is used solely for arrivals and the other is used solely for departures is known as: A) Independent parallel operations. B) Segregated parallel operations. C) Semi-mixed operations. D) Mixed operations

[LAW-PT03 #92] What is the maximum intercept angle for aircraft being vectored to intercept the localiser for simultaneous independent parallel approaches? A) 20 degrees. B) 15 degrees. C) 30 degrees. D) 45 degrees.

[LAW-PT03 #93] When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways, and when vectoring to intercept the ILS localiser course, the vector must allow the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course: A) At least 3.0 nm prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle. B) At least 2.5 nm prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle. C) At least 2.0 nm prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle. D) At least 1.5 nm prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.

[LAW-PT03 #94] A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted, this minimum is: A) 150 m (500 ft). B) 300 m (1000 ft). C) 100 m (330 ft). D) 200 m (660 ft).

[LAW-PT03 #95] Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: A) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. B) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. C) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach. D) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.

[LAW-PT03 #96] Aircraft conducting parallel approaches must: A) Be in radar contact with an area control unit. B) Be appropriately equipped to meet the navigation specifications. C) Be in approach category A. D) Be established on the localiser by 10 nm.

[LAW-PT03 #97] Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final approach track centre line'. This is a description of: A) The approach zone. B) The no transgression zone. C) The normal operating zone. D) The localiser interception zone.

[LAW-PT03 #98] Guidance material on parallel operations is provided in: A) ICAO Annex 2. B) PANS-OPS. C) ICAO Annex 14. D) ICAO’s Doc 9643.

[LAW-PT03 #99] Manual on Simultaneous Operations on Parallel or Near-Parallel Instrument Runways (SOIR) (ICAO’s Doc 9643) provides: A) International laws. B) Regulations. C) Guidance material. D) SARPS.

[LAW-PT03 #100] According to ICAO Pans Ops 8168 a Traffic Advisory (TA) should precede a Resolution Advisory (RA) because: A) A TA must always be created before an RA. B) TAs have the ability to create a horizontal traffic avoidance manoeuvre. C) A TA highlights the approximate position of an aircraft nearby that may become an RA. D) TAs have the ability to create a vertical traffic avoidance manoeuvre.

[LAW-PT03 #101] When can a pilot in command disregard a Resolution Advisory? A) When the instructions conflict with ATC. B) Never. C) When ATC give you avoidance directions. D) When a stall warning is activated.

[LAW-PT03 #102] Pilots must not squawk IDENT unless they: A) Are requested to do so by ATC. B) Operate within controlled airspace. C) Operate a transponder with Mode C. D) Operate outside controlled airspace.

[LAW-PT03 #103] In flight, you receive a Resolution Advisory (to descend at, at least, 2000 ft/min). After a few seconds, you receive another Resolution Advisory (to climb at, at least, 2000ft/min). What do you do? A) Disregard the second RA, since the equipment is malfunctioning. B) Maintain course and ask ATC. C) Maintain level since the 2 RAs cancel each other. D) Immediately follow the second RA.

[LAW-PT03 #104] You must operate your transponder: A) Only when in controlled airspace under the direction of ATC. B) On the occasions when ATC ask you to squawk IDENT. C) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used by the ATS. D) When directed to do so by ATC.

[LAW-PT03 #105] In the absence of ATC directions or regional SOPs, operate your transponder on: A) Mode S Code 4444. B) Mode C Code 7000. C) Mode A Code 2000. D) Mode C Code 2000.

[LAW-PT03 #106] What is the transponder code used to indicate an emergency?

[LAW-PT03 #107] What is the transponder code used to indicate communications failure?

[LAW-PT03 #108] What is the transponder code used to indicate unlawful interference?

[LAW-PT03 #109] When using Mode S without having filed a flight plan: A) Use the aircraft’s registration as the identification. B) Squawk IDENT. C) Use the company's flight designator as the identification. D) Switch off Mode A.

[LAW-PT03 #110] The primary advantages of ACAS are: A) It helps ATC to maintain safe separation between aircraft. B) It permits you to maintain own separation in certain types of controlled airspace. C) It prevents mid-air collisions. D) It improves your situation awareness and helps you to avoid mid-air collisions

[LAW-PT03 #111] You must not manoeuvre your aircraft in response to traffic advisories because: A) Because ATC clearances always take precedence over TAs and RAs. B) TAs offer only limited bearing accuracy. It would be difficult to interpret sufficient information from the TA display to make the appropriate manoeuvre. C) TAs only offer avoidance information to one of the conflicting aircraft. D) TAs don't show the approximate position of other aircraft.

[LAW-PT03 #112] What actions should you take in the event of a traffic advisory TA? A) Manoeuvre so as to avoid the conflicting traffic. B) Look for conflicting traffic but maintain current flight path. C) Ask ATC for avoiding instructions. D) File an air safety report ASR.

[LAW-PT03 #113] As soon as possible after conflict has been resolved: A) Return to the cleared level/altitude or follow any revised clearance from ATC. B) File an AIRPROX report via CPDLC. C) Maintain straight and level flight while awaiting a new clearance from ATC. D) Inform ATC of the conflict.

[LAW-PT03 #114] Which of the following are possible likely consequences of transponder failure? Mark all correct answers. A) You may not be permitted to fly in some types of airspace or on some routes. B) It will be more difficult, or impossible, for ATC to provide you with separation from other traffic. C) In some areas of the world with no primary radar coverage, you will not appear on the ATC controller’s display. D) The airborne collision avoidance system provided by Mode S will be disabled.

[LAW-PT03 #115] If your transponder fails before departure and there is no means to have it repaired, you must: Mark all correct answers. A) If required by ATC, plan to fly to the nearest suitable aerodrome for repairs. B) Inform ATS as soon as possible. C) Insert ‘N’ in Item 10 in the flight plan to indicate complete failure, or insert the appropriate letter to indicate any remaining capability. D) Comply with any published procedures for seeking exemption from carrying a functioning SSR transponder.

[LAW-PT03 #116] ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, where all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: A) Class B. B) Class A. C) Class C. D) Class D.

[LAW-PT03 #117] ATS airspace in which IFR and VFR are permitted and aircraft may receive a flight information service if requested, is classified as: A) Class E. B) Class C. C) Class G. D) Class F.

[LAW-PT03 #118] When flying below 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, the speed limitation for IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as Class B is: A) 260 kt IAS. B) 250 kt IAS. C) 250 kt TAS. D) Not applicable.

[LAW-PT03 #119] What is the classification of the ATS airspace in which: IFR and VFR flights are permitted; all flights are subject to air traffic control services and are separated from each other? A) Airspace C. B) Airspace D. C) Airspace A. D) Airspace B.

[LAW-PT03 #120] When flying inside Class C ATS Airspace, a VFR flight inside must maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds: A) 5 km at or above 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds. B) 5 nm at or above 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds. C) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds. D) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds.

[LAW-PT03 #121] IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. Also VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights. What is the classification of this ATS airspace? A) Airspace E. B) Airspace C. C) Airspace D. D) Airspace B.

[LAW-PT03 #122] Which of these provisions are correct for a VFR-flight in Class E airspace? A) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required. B) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practicable; ATC Clearance: required. C) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practicable; ATC Clearance: not required. D) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required.

[LAW-PT03 #123] The speed limit for IFR flights inside Class E airspace below 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is: A) 260 kt IAS. B) Not applicable. C) 250 kt IAS. D) 250 kt TAS.

[LAW-PT03 #124] A control area (CTA) is defined as: A) Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth. B) Controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit. C) Controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 ft above the earth. D) Controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 ft above the earth.

[LAW-PT03 #125] The lower limit of a CTA must be not less than: A) 1000 ft AGL. B) 700 ft AGL. C) 3000 ft AGL. D) 1500 ft AGL.

[LAW-PT03 #126] Concerning the RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4 represents a navigation accuracy of: A) ±4 nm for 95% of the total flight time. B) ±4 nm within areas where RVSM is applied. C) ±4 nm at all times. D) ±4 nm for 90% of the total flight time.

[LAW-PT03 #127] The speed limitation in airspace classified as F or G, when flying below 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is: A) 250 kt TAS. B) 240 kt IAS. C) 250 kt TAS for VFR flights, no limitation for IFR flights. D) 250 kt IAS.

[LAW-PT03 #128] The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a minimum height of: A) 200 ft above ground or water. B) 700 ft above the ground. C) 700 m above ground or water. D) 500 ft above ground or water.

[LAW-PT03 #129] Controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: A) Advisory airspace. B) An air traffic zone. C) A control zone. D) A control area.

[LAW-PT03 #130] Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: A) A flight information region. B) A control area. C) A control zone. D) Advisory airspace.

[LAW-PT03 #131] A flight information region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: A) A flight information service, an alerting service and advisory service. B) A flight information service and an alerting service. C) A flight information service only. D) A flight Information service and an advisory service.

[LAW-PT03 #132] A control zone should extend laterally to at least: A) 5 nm from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes, in the direction(s) from which approaches may be made. B) 10 nm from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes, in the direction(s) from which approaches may be made. C) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction(s) from which approaches may be made. D) 15 nm from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes, in the direction(s) from which approaches may be made.

[LAW-PT03 #133] What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? A) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels. B) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195. C) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100. D) 250 kt for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.

[LAW-PT03 #134] An ATS route designator comprises: A) A letter to denote type of airspace; a number 1–999. Additional letters may indicate whether it is an RNAV route. B) A letter to denote type of airspace; a number 1–999. Additional letters may indicate the aircraft type that can use the route. C) A letter to denote type of airspace; a number 1–999. Additional letters may indicate RNP requirement. D) A letter to denote type of airspace; a number 1–999. Additional letters may indicate the time of availability.

[LAW-PT03 #135] Those portions of the airspace providing a flight information service are designated as one or more A) Flight zones. B) FIRs. C) Control areas. D) Information zones.

[LAW-PT03 #136] Those portions of the airspace where it is determined that air traffic control service will be provided to IFR flights are designated as: A) FIRs. B) Control areas. C) Control areas or control zones. D) Control zones.

[LAW-PT03 #137] The advantage of dividing airspace into upper and lower regions is that: A) UIRs allow for a separate set of rules to be applied to high-flying traffic which doesn't deviate much from their designated tracks. B) IFR and VFR flights can be separated into the 2 regions. (VFR in lower airspace IFR in upper airspace). C) UIRs allow traffic to fly VFR in this relatively uncongested airspace. D) UIR to limit the number of FIRs and control areas (CTAs) through which aircraft have to operate in upper airspace.

[LAW-PT03 #138] Control areas can be: Mark all correct answers. A) Volumes of controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth. B) 2 dimensional ATS routes. C) Corridors, such as airways and ATS routes. D) Volumes above airports known as terminal manoeuvring areas (TMAs).

[LAW-PT03 #139] According to ICAO Document 8168 (PANS-OPS), which of the following standard instrument departures (SID) are considered as straight departures?

[LAW-PT03 #140] An aircraft is on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until:

[LAW-PT03 #141] A navigation fix is not always exact, but can still be used for navigation. The accuracy of the fix depends on:

[LAW-PT03 #142] The crew of an aeroplane are performing a turning departure. In this type of departure, straight flight is assumed until reaching a height of at least:

[LAW-PT03 #143] A turning departure is one in which the initial departure track deviates from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:

[LAW-PT03 #144] The OCH is 150 ft for a visual circling approach into an aerodrome, given the following heights: Aerodrome elevation 35 ft RWY 01 threshold elevation: 39 ft RWY 19 threshold elevation: 30 ft What is the OCA for RWY 01?

[LAW-PT03 #145] What SSR transponder code should a pilot set in the absence of any specific code instruction from ATC, when flying in airspace where a radar service is available?

[LAW-PT03 #146] Instrument approaches are designed according to:

[LAW-PT03 #147] What is the maximum intercept angle for aircraft being vectored to intercept the localiser for simultaneous independent parallel approaches?

[LAW-PT03 #148] The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:

[LAW-PT03 #149] An aircraft is on VOR track 332' for a straight-in-approach. What runway direction could the pilot expect to have?

[LAW-PT03 #150] Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a No Transgression Zone (NTZ) is established equidistant between the extended runway centrelines. The NTZ shall have a width of at least:

[LAW-PT03 #151] Which of the following approach speed ranges is applicable to Category B aircraft?

[LAW-PT03 #152] The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:

[LAW-PT03 #153] What is the FAP?

[LAW-PT03 #154] The ICAO approach categories for circling minima are:

[LAW-PT03 #155] Altitude should be referred to as flight levels...

[LAW-PT03 #156] When can the flight crew change the altimeter setting from 1013.2 hPa to QNH during the descent to land, when the aircraft is above the transition level?

[LAW-PT03 #157] What happens during the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?

[LAW-PT03 #158] During flight through the Transition Layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:

[LAW-PT03 #159] Which of the following is the correct definition of 'commercial air transport operation' according to ICAO Annex 6, Part I?

[LAW-PT03 #160] If a missed approach is initiated prior to reaching the MAPt, at what altitude/height shall the aircraft overfly the MAPt?

[LAW-PT03 #161] When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:

[LAW-PT03 #162] You get a number during descent / before commencing an approach:

[LAW-PT03 #163] The transition layer is the airspace located:

[LAW-PT03 #164] In a circling approach, how is the pilot expected to behave after initial visual contact with the runway has been established?

[LAW-PT03 #165] When flying an instrument departure procedure, pilots are expected to:

[LAW-PT03 #166] In the case of a transponder failure after departure, ATC units shall attempt to provide for the continuation of the flight to the:

[LAW-PT03 #167] A holding is a standard turns with a holding entry of 010 degrees inbound. Flying of 030 degrees heading. Which holding should you fly?

[LAW-PT03 #168] Towards the end of a long flight, the IAF marks the:

[LAW-PT03 #169] The cruising levels at which a flight or a portion of a flight is to be conducted shall be in terms of:

[LAW-PT03 #170] You are flying an ILS CAT I instrument approach, and upon reaching the MAPt, you cannot establish the required visual references. – What should you do?

[LAW-PT03 #171] Which statement is correct regarding parallel approaches?

[LAW-PT03 #172] What fixes occur between arrival segment and the final approach fix?

[LAW-PT03 #173] Approach procedures - Circling. The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:

[LAW-PT03 #174] A crew member reports to the pilot that one of the flight attendants is being held hostage by the hijacker and that he/she demands to see the commander. The pilot believes this is NOT a grave and imminent danger situation. What mode and transponder code?

[LAW-PT03 #175] For an aircraft in emergency the pilot shall, according ICAO, indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

[LAW-PT03 #176] What transponder mode and code should be used by an aircraft in a state of emergency?

[LAW-PT03 #177] To which categories of aircraft is regulation 965/2012 applicable?

[LAW-PT03 #178] For a non-precision or circling approach, the MDH cannot be lower than:

[LAW-PT03 #179] According to ICAO Doc 8168, in cases where NO track guidance is provided, a convenient and flexible method of ensuring obstacle clearance is to use the ... method.

[LAW-PT03 #180] When approaching the holding pattern, an aircraft makes a left turn on to heading 90 degrees for 1 minute. It then turns left to capture the inbound magnetic track of 270 degrees. What is the appropriate entry procedure?

[LAW-PT03 #181] The ACAS system is intended to assist:

[LAW-PT03 #182] What aircraft equipment is required for parallel runway ILS approach operations?

[LAW-PT03 #183] When should the latest QNH altimeter setting for the aerodrome be obtained?

[LAW-PT03 #184] What is the name of a manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:

[LAW-PT03 #185] If a missed approach is initiated prior to reaching the MAPt, what should the pilot do?

[LAW-PT03 #186] The purpose of altimeter setting is:

[LAW-PT03 #187] According to ICAO Doc 8168, before taking off, one altimeter shall be set to the latest............. altimeter setting for the aerodrome.

[LAW-PT03 #188] According to ICAO 8168, regarding omnidirectional departures, what should you expect?

[LAW-PT03 #189] An airport provides two parallel runways where one is used for departures only and the other one is used for departures and approaches. What type of operation is this?

[LAW-PT03 #190] An airport provides two parallel runways where one is used for approaches only and the other one is used for departures and approaches. What type of operation is being described?

[LAW-PT03 #191] Using two parallel runways only for departures at the same time is known as:

[LAW-PT03 #192] For a non-precision approach procedure, what will be produced when an additional margin is added to the OCH when considering the effects of operational factors?

[LAW-PT03 #193] Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 applies:

[LAW-PT03 #194] The objective of the Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 is…

[LAW-PT03 #195] The main objectives for altimeter setting procedures are to provide adequate:

[LAW-PT03 #196] The procedure describing the visual phase following an Instrument approach, bringing an aircraft into position for the landing on a runway different from the one for a straight-in approach, is called: