AIR LAW 04

[LAW-PT04 #1] The objectives of an aerodrome control service include the prevention of collisions between: 1) Aircraft flying in the aerodrome traffic circuit and local area around the aerodrome. 2) Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area. 3) Aircraft landing and taking off. 4) Aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area. The combination of correct statements is: A) 1, 2. B) 1, 2, 3. C) 1, 2, 3, 4. D) 2, 3, 4.

[LAW-PT04 #2] A flight information service is provided to aircraft to avoid collision hazards when operating in which airspace classes? A) C, D, E, F, and G. B) F and G only. C) A, B, C, D, E, F and G. D) F only.

[LAW-PT04 #3] You receive the following clearance: “Cleared to FL100, VDR 6V departure." What actions must you take? A) You are cleared to climb to FL100, and you must follow the speed restrictions of the SID. You may follow the vertical and lateral restrictions of the SID. B) You have to climb to FL100, and follow all the vertical, lateral, speed restrictions and procedures of the SID. C) You may climb to FL100, and follow all the vertical, lateral, speed restrictions and procedures of the SID. D) You are cleared to climb to FL100, and may follow the vertical, lateral, speed restrictions and procedures of the SID.

[LAW-PT04 #4] You receive an IFR en-route clearance stating: 'Clearance expires at 0920' __________ A) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan. B) The take off clearance is expected at 0920. C) If not airborne before 0920, a new clearance has to be issued. D) Do not take off before 0920.

[LAW-PT04 #5] For an aerodrome to be 'controlled' it must: A) Be located in a control area. B) Be located within a control zone. C) Have an air traffic control service. D) Be located in a control zone and have a control tower.

[LAW-PT04 #6] When are ATIS broadcasts updated? A) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use. B) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value. C) Whenever a significant change occurs. D) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR, otherwise hourly.

[LAW-PT04 #7] Aerodrome traffic is: A) Traffic flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. B) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. C) Traffic in the aerodrome circuit. D) All traffic on the manoeuvring area.

[LAW-PT04 #8] An ATIS broadcast: A) Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS. B) Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of a VOR. C) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency. D) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR.

[LAW-PT04 #9] When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phase is the responsibility of the: A) Search and rescue units. B) Air traffic coordination services. C) Search and rescue coordination centres. D) Flight information centre or area control centre.

[LAW-PT04 #10] The alerting service is provided by: A) Flight information centres, area control centre and any ATSU provided a service to the aircraft. B) Control centres only. C) Search and rescue co-ordination centres. D) Air traffic coordination centres.

[LAW-PT04 #11] The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed: A) 1 minute. B) 30 seconds. C) 2 minutes. D) 3 minutes.

[LAW-PT04 #12] An air traffic control unit: A) May require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between 2 or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan. B) May not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan. C) May require an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between 2 or more similar call signs. D) Must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.

[LAW-PT04 #13] The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed to be in emergency are: A) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. B) Uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. C) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. D) Uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.

[LAW-PT04 #14] The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed to be in emergency are, in the increasing order of seriousness: A) INCERFA, ALERTFA, DISTRESFA. B) INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA. C) ALERTFA, DISTRESFA, RESCUEFA. D) DETRESFA, ALERTFA, INCERFA.

[LAW-PT04 #15] The alerting service is provided by: A) Only by ATC units. B) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment. C) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz. D) The Area Control Centres.

[LAW-PT04 #16] Who is normally responsible for the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message? A) The air traffic services. B) The AIRAC unit. C) The national aviation authority D) The meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s).

[LAW-PT04 #17] Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago Convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? A) Annex 11. B) Annex 14. C) Annex 17. D) Annex 6.

[LAW-PT04 #18] DETRESFA may include the situation where: A) An aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land. B) An aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land or where the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted. C) The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted. D) No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of 30 minutes after the time a communication should have been received.

[LAW-PT04 #19] At larger airports, some air traffic services usually handled by the control tower may be transferred to: A) An apron management service. B) An apron control tower. C) An apron movement controller. D) An apron control service.

[LAW-PT04 #20] The movement of persons, vehicles and towed aircraft on the manoeuvring area of an AD: A) Must be controlled by the TWR to avoid hazard to them or to aircraft landing, taxiing or taking off. B) Must be controlled by the TWR to avoid hazard to fast-moving emergency response vehicles. C) Must be controlled by the TWR to protect aircraft from unauthorised people and vehicles. D) Must be controlled by the apron management service to avoid hazard to them or to aircraft landing, taxiing or taking off.

[LAW-PT04 #21] The purpose of an ATC clearance is to: A) Expedite and separate air traffic and provide separation from terrain. B) Ensure that all aircraft are subject to an appropriate level of air traffic control. C) Permit an aircraft to fly its chosen route. D) Expedite and separate air traffic based on known traffic conditions.

[LAW-PT04 #22] A flight information service in which a continuously repeating voice broadcast details essential aerodrome information for arriving and departing aircraft is known as: A) ATIS B) AFIS C) D-ATIS D) ATIS or D-ATIS

[LAW-PT04 #23] You may be asked to change your call sign: A) By an ATSU for safety reasons when 2 or more aircraft on the same frequency have similar call signs. B) By an ATSU for safety reasons or if the controller has difficulty pronouncing the call sign. C) By an FIS for safety reasons when 2 or more aircraft on the same frequency have similar call signs. D) You will never be asked to change your call sign provided that you are flying in accordance with your filed flight plan.

[LAW-PT04 #24] A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants' is a description of: A) The alert phase. B) The emergency phase. C) The uncertainty phase. D) The distress phase.

[LAW-PT04 #25] For arriving aircraft transfer of control to the TWR may occur: A) After the aircraft has vacated the runway. B) At some agreed point or level. C) When the aircraft is in the aerodrome’s vicinity and the approach and landing may be completed with the ground in sight or in uninterrupted VMC. D) After the aircraft has landed.

[LAW-PT04 #26] 3 parts of the air traffic services are: Mark 3 correct answers. A) The air traffic control service (ATC): an air traffic control (ATC) for controlled flights inside controlled airspace. B) The flight information (FIS) service: information to all traffic within an FIR. C) The alerting service: assistance to aircraft in distress, also within an FIR. D) The apron management service: control of aircraft and vehicles on the apron.

[LAW-PT04 #27] Which of the following are valid types ATS unit: Mark all correct answers. A) Aerodrome Control Tower. Controls traffic at a controlled aerodrome. This includes aircraft, people, vehicles. B) Air traffic information service (ATIS). Provides information to arriving and departing aircraft. C) Area Control Centre. Deals with a large area of airspace. It provides services to en- route traffic. D) Approach Control Unit. Manages the arrivals and departures for individual aerodromes (or a group of closely-located aerodromes).

[LAW-PT04 #28] Which of the following are valid points for the transfer of control of departing aircraft from the TWR to another ATSU? Mark all correct answers. A) Before the aircraft leaves the vicinity of the aerodrome. B) Some other appointed position or level. C) Immediately the aircraft becomes airborne (IFR traffic). D) After entering VMC.

[LAW-PT04 #29] An alerting service is provided to: Mark all correct answers. A) Aircraft who have filed flight plans only. B) To any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference. C) All aircraft provided with an ATC service. D) As far as is practicable, to all other aircraft that have filed a flight plan or are otherwise known to the ATSU.

[LAW-PT04 #30] Which of the following are valid items of information that might be included in an ATIS message? Mark all correct answers. A) The surface wind (magnetic) and any significant variations and the visibility. B) The aerodrome’s name. C) The QNH. D) The regional pressure setting. E) The runway in use and the RVR (if applicable).

[LAW-PT04 #31] Mark which of the following are possible parts of an ATC clearance: Mark all correct answers. A) The aircraft identification as shown in the flight plan. B) The limits of the clearance. C) Any other necessary instructions or information including the time of expiry of the clearance. D) The authorised route for the flight. E) The headings for the entire route or part of a route.

[LAW-PT04 #33] What can you omit from a position report with a reliable SSR Mode C? A) Ensuing position. B) Flight level or altitude. C) Time at position. D) Time at next position.

[LAW-PT04 #34] An in-flight change from IFR to VFR takes place: A) As instructed by an air traffic control unit. B) When the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC. C) At the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions. D) Only on the initiative of the aircraft commander.

[LAW-PT04 #35] What do you report during an IFR flight in cruise when passing a reporting point? A) Flight level, time and verify next reporting point. B) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level, next position and time over ensuing significant point. C) Heading and altitude. D) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level, heading, next position and time over ensuing significant point.

[LAW-PT04 #36] Clearances are issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: A) Achieving separation between controlled flights. B) Providing a Flight Information Service. C) Providing an advisory services. D) Providing an alerting services.

[LAW-PT04 #37] When does an air traffic control service have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain? A) ATS never prevents collisions with terrain. B) ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC. C) Always when ATS are provided. D) When a flight in accordance with IFR is being vectored by radar.

[LAW-PT04 #38] Clearances contain which of the following items: A) Aircraft identification, clearance limit, initial heading of flight, level of flight. B) Aircraft identification, clearance limit, track and headings of the route of flight, level of flight. C) Aircraft identification, clearance limit, route of flight, level of flight. D) Aircraft identification, route of flight, level of flight or changes of levels en-route if required.

[LAW-PT04 #39] A Special Air Report must be made when: A) An AIRPROX has been encountered. B) Experiencing severe icing or severe turbulence. C) An unruly passenger is on board. D) The ETA changes by more than 10 minutes.

[LAW-PT04 #40] Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: A) 20 kt and not within 4 nm of threshold. B) 10 kt and not within 5 nm of threshold. C) 15 kt at any stage. D) 25 kt at any stage.

[LAW-PT04 #41] ATFM is implemented: A) In all busy or complex airspace. B) Permanently in Class A airspace. C) For airspace when and where traffic demand at times exceeds the defined ATC capacity. D) At all ATSUs as the primary means of ground-ground communication.

[LAW-PT04 #42] An ATC clearance is based on: A) Expected traffic conditions. B) Known traffic conditions. C) Assumed traffic conditions. D) Actual traffic conditions.

[LAW-PT04 #43] Who is ultimately responsible for adhering to all applicable rules and regulations when an aircraft is under the control of an ATC unit? A) The PiC. B) The operational manager of the ATSU. C) The ATC controller. D) The pilot flying (PF).

[LAW-PT04 #44] Clearances must be issued ‘early enough’: A) To allow you time to raise objections and request a re-clearance. B) To allow other aircraft on frequency the opportunity to point out potential conflictions. C) To allow ATC to record them on the ATC datalink. D) To allow you time to comply with them.

[LAW-PT04 #45] The point up to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance is called: A) A clearance expiry time. B) A clearance delivery. C) A route clearance. D) A clearance limit.

[LAW-PT04 #46] Cleared via flight planned route’ means: A) You are cleared to fly the route or part of a route, provided it’s identical to that filed in the flight plan and provided that it’s sufficiently detailed to establish the aircraft on its route. B) You are cleared to fly the flight planned route without further contact with ATC provided it’s identical to that filed in the flight plan and provided that it’s sufficiently detailed to establish the aircraft on its route. C) You are cleared to fly the route planned by ATC. D) You are clear to flight plan the route that you requested.

[LAW-PT04 #47] During your initial descent towards Stuttgart airport, ATC tells you that you are 'cleared via REUTEL FIVE ALPHA': A) This is a clearance to land on runway 5A. B) This is a clearance to fly one of the published STARs at Stuttgart. C) This is a clearance to fly one of the published SIDS for Stuttgart. D) This is a clearance to fly direct to a fix called REUTEL, to be there by 5000 ft.

[LAW-PT04 #48] The purpose of issuing speed instructions to aircraft is to ensure: A) Adequate vertical separation between aircraft on parallel approaches. B) That the ATC controller doesn't become over loaded. C) The safe and orderly flow of traffic. D) Control an aircraft's rate of descent.

[LAW-PT04 #49] You should not expect any kind of speed control within _____ nm of the runway threshold.

[LAW-PT04 #50] When making a position report, which one of these phrases is the correct way to report that you flying at 35 0000 ft on the SPS? A) at level tree fife zero' B) maintaining tree fife zero' C) 'flight level tree fife zero' D) at tree fife zero'

[LAW-PT04 #51] After changing frequency, you should make a position report on initial contact. You must include your speed: A) If one has been assigned by ATC. B) Whenever you are flying at less than 250 kt. C) On every occasion. D) Whenever your altitude is less than 10 000 ft.

[LAW-PT04 #52] The acronym ADS means: A) Aircraft Dependent Surveillance. B) Automatic Data Service. C) Aircraft Data Surveillance. D) Automatic Dependent Surveillance.

[LAW-PT04 #53] Which of the following are mandatory read-back items? Mark all correct answers. A) SSR codes. B) Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack on any runway. C) Altimeter settings. D) ATC route clearances. E) Runway in use. F) Level, heading and speed instructions.

[LAW-PT04 #54] The wake turbulence categories are: Mark all correct answers. A) LIGHT B) HEAVY C) MEDIUM D) SUPER HEAVY

[LAW-PT04 #55] The 6 items normally included in a voice position report are: Mark 6 correct answers. A) Flight level or altitude, including passing level and cleared level if not maintaining the cleared level. B) Heading. C) Track. D) Rate of Climb or Descent. E) Position. F) Aircraft identification. G) Ensuing significant point. H) Time. I) Next position and ETA for it.

[LAW-PT04 #57] Which statement is correct? During a 'Visual Approach' in Controlled Airspace (Class C): A) The pilot will apply separation with other traffic. B) ATC will apply separation with other traffic. C) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic. D) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic.

[LAW-PT04 #58] When using timed approaches to meet the wake turbulence separation criteria for arriving aircraft, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft? A) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft - 4 minutes. B) Medium aircraft behind medium aircraft - 4 minutes. C) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes. D) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 1 minute.

[LAW-PT04 #59] For controlled traffic that must be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: A) At the discretion of the air traffic controller. B) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests. C) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight. D) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation.

[LAW-PT04 #60] What is the longitudinal separation minimum when 2 aircraft are at the same cruising level and when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed? A) 3 minutes. B) 15 minutes. C) 10 minutes. D) 5 minutes.

[LAW-PT04 #61] A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft, and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach, and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway when separated by: A) 730 m. B) Less than 760 m. C) 760 m. D) Less than 730 m.

[LAW-PT04 #62] A heavy/medium aircraft is conducting a missed approach, for wake turbulence reasons. What is the minimum time separation for a light aircraft taking off from an opposite direction runway? A) 3 minutes. B) 1 minute. C) No separation restriction applies. D) 2 minutes.

[LAW-PT04 #63] What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a Heavy aircraft preceding a Light aircraft? A) 10 km. B) 2 km. C) 3 nm. D) 6 nm.

[LAW-PT04 #64] The standard vertical separation minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR, within controlled airspace, below FL 290 is: A) 1000 ft (300 m). B) 2000 ft (600 m). C) 500 ft (150 m). D) 2500 ft (750 m).

[LAW-PT04 #65] 1 minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: A) 25° immediately after take-off. B) 45° immediately after take-off. C) 30° immediately after take-off. D) 15° immediately after take-off.

[LAW-PT04 #66] When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provide: A) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed. B) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed. C) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed. D) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

[LAW-PT04 #67] Above flight level FL 290 the vertical separation minimum (VSM) shall be: A) 2000 ft. B) 3000 ft. C) 1500 ft. D) 4000 ft.

[LAW-PT04 #68] When in RVSM airspace between FL 290 and FL 410 the vertical separation between aircraft travelling in opposite directions is: A) 2000 ft. B) 1000 ft. C) 3000 ft. D) 4000 ft.

[LAW-PT04 #69] Choose 3 valid lateral separation methods: A) RNAV, navigation aids, using RNAV 3 nm. B) RNAV only. C) RNAV, navigation aids, visual separation. D) RNAV, visual separation, height differences.

[LAW-PT04 #70] When an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in approach, a departing aircraft may take-off in any direction which is at least 45° degrees from the reciprocal of the direction of approach: A) Until 10 minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway. B) Until 3 minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway. C) Until 2 minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway. D) Until 5 minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway.

[LAW-PT04 #71] Which class or classes of airspace requires separation between all types of flight (IFR and VFR)? A) Class A and Class B. B) Classes A-E. C) Class A, Class B and Class C. D) Class A.

[LAW-PT04 #72] Which class or classes of airspace don’t require ATC to provide separation between VFR aircraft? A) Classes B to G. B) All classes. C) Classes F and G. D) Classes C to G.

[LAW-PT04 #73] Which class or classes of airspace don't require separation between IFR flights? A) Class G. B) Classes F and G. C) All classes except Class A and Class B. D) Classes E, F and G.

[LAW-PT04 #74] Aircraft flying similar routes to the same location are assigned cruising levels that place them in the correct approach sequence. This means that: A) The first arriving aircraft is placed at the highest level. B) The first arriving aircraft is placed at the lowest level. C) The fastest aircraft is placed at the highest level. D) All aircraft are speed controlled for separation.

[LAW-PT04 #75] Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR is achieved by ensuring that: A) Both aircraft are on radials with zero track deviation. Both must be 15 nm or more from the facility. B) Both aircraft are on radials diverging by at least 10°. At least one is 15 nm or more from the facility. C) Both aircraft are on tracks to or from the NDB diverging by at least 30°. At least one is 15 nm from the facility. D) Both aircraft are on radials diverging by at least 15°. At least one is 15 nm or more from the facility.

[LAW-PT04 #76] Track separation between aircraft flying below FL 190 but using the same NDB is achieved by ensuring that: A) Both aircraft are on radials diverging by at least 15°. At least one is 15 nm or more from the facility. B) Each aircraft is on a track with zero offset between 2 waypoints. At least one is at least 15 nm from a common point. C) Both aircraft on tracks to or from the NDB diverging by at least 30°. At least one is 15 nm from the facility. D) Both aircraft are on radials diverging by at least 10°. At least one is 15 nm or more from the facility.

[LAW-PT04 #77] Track separation between two GNSS equipped aircraft flying above FL 200 is achieved by ensuring that: A) Each aircraft is on a track with zero offset between 2 waypoints. At least one is at least 15° from a common point. B) Each aircraft is on a track with zero offset between 2 waypoints. At least one is diverging from a common point by at least 30°. C) Each aircraft is on a track with zero offset between 2 waypoints. At least one is at least 15 nm from a common point. D) Each aircraft is on a track with zero offset between 2 waypoints. At least one is at least 23 nm from a common point.

[LAW-PT04 #78] The minimum standard horizontal radar separation between successive aircraft is _____nm

[LAW-PT04 #79] When using the Mach number technique the separation minimum for 2 co-speed aircraft is: A) 5 minutes B) 10 miles C) 5 miles D) 10 minutes

[LAW-PT04 #80] The absolute minimum separation between 2 aircraft using the Mach number technique is ________ and occurs when the leading aircraft is __________ than the following aircraft. A) 10 miles, faster. B) 5 minutes, slower. C) 5 miles, faster. D) 5 minutes, faster.

[LAW-PT04 #81] When an arriving aircraft is cleared to 'maintain own separation' who is responsible for ensuring adequate wake turbulence separation. A) The approach controller. B) The tower controller. C) The PiC of the following aircraft. D) The PiC of the leading aircraft.

[LAW-PT04 #82] Aircraft may be cleared to maintain a specified vertical separation when both are climbing or descending, provided that: A) Both agree to do it. B) The trailing aircraft is visual with the leading aircraft. C) They are in direct communication with each other. D) Both are visual with each other.

[LAW-PT04 #83] Lateral separation is achieved by: Mark all correct answers. A) Instructing aircraft to depart from a known point at different times. B) Instructing aircraft to fly over different geographic locations. C) Instructing aircraft to obey the RVSM minima. D) Instructing aircraft to fly separated tracks.

[LAW-PT04 #84] The 3 basic means of achieving longitudinal separation are: A) Hold over a geographical location until a specified time. B) Fly separate tracks. C) Depart at a specified time. D) Arrive over a geographical location at a specified time.

[LAW-PT04 #86] A VFR flight constitutes 'essential traffic' to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace when it is classified as: A) B, C, D and E. B) B. C) B, C and D. D) B and C.

[LAW-PT04 #87] What Information is to be passed by ATC before taxi: A) The runway in use, the surface wind velocity (in °M), the QNH or, if requested, the QFE, the air temperature (for turbine-engine aircraft), the runway visibility if less than 10 km or the RVR if appropriate and the correct time. B) The runway in use, the surface wind velocity (in °M), and the QNH. C) The runway in use, the surface wind velocity, the RVR and the QNH. Other information is provided just before take-off. D) The runway in use, the surface wind velocity (in °M), the QFE, the air temperature (for all aircraft types), the runway visibility if less than 10 km or the RVR if appropriate and the correct time.

[LAW-PT04 #88] The definition of essential local traffic is: A) Any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on the runway, or traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome which may constitute a hazard to the aircraft concerned. B) Any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on the runway, or near the runway that constitutes a hazard to IFR traffic. C) Any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the manoeuvring area, or traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome, which may constitute a hazard to the aircraft concerned. D) Any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on the runway, or near the runway and in the circuit that constitutes a hazard to IFR traffic.

[LAW-PT04 #89] According to ICAO Doc 4444, when should the aerodrome control tower pass the correct time to an aircraft? A) Prior to take-off. B) On initial contact. C) At the same time when the IFR clearance is delivered. D) Prior to the commencement of taxiing for take-off.

[LAW-PT04 #90] The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as practicable, when the expected delay is: A) 5 minutes. B) 30 minutes. C) 10 minutes. D) 2 minutes.

[LAW-PT04 #91] According to international agreements, wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic: A) Before landing and take-off. B) When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West. C) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south. D) On the request from a meteorological watch office.

[LAW-PT04 #92] If the crew of an aircraft making a straight-in approach are unfamiliar with the approach procedure: A) ATC must pass them all significant details of the procedure. B) They must request a surveillance radar approach. C) ATC must pass them the final approach track. D) They must request a visual approach.

[LAW-PT04 #93] The________ FL should be assigned to an aircraft first arriving over a holding fix for landing. A) highest B) lowest

[LAW-PT04 #94] If, while in the approach sequence, you want to hold for a weather improvement: A) ATC will approve your request but you may lose your place in the approach sequence and be required to re-route to an adjacent fix or even back to the top of the holding pattern. B) ATC will approve your request but you may lose your place in the approach sequence and have to orbit until you are at the back of the queue. C) You are not permitted to disrupt the approach sequence. You are committed to making the approach, even if only to go-around at the MAPt. D) ATC will approve your request, you will retain your place in the approach sequence but may be required to re-route via an adjacent fix.

[LAW-PT04 #95] Expected approach time is the estimated time at which ATC expects that you will: A) Leave the top of descent point. B) Leave the holding fix. C) Start your descent on the glide path. D) Leave the final approach fix.

[LAW-PT04 #96] A revised EAT must be transmitted to the aircraft without delay whenever it differs by ____ minutes or more from a previous one.

[LAW-PT04 #97] Essential traffic is: A) Any aircraft which is compelled to land. B) Controlled traffic for which separation minima apply but which are not separated by the appropriate minimum. C) Any aircraft which has been given priority to land. D) Any vehicle, aircraft or person on or near to the runway in use that might create a hazard to arriving and departing flights.

[LAW-PT04 #98] Essential traffic information must be given to the flights concerned: A) Whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other. B) Whenever they are likely to constitute essential traffic. C) Whenever they constitute essential traffic to other aircraft. D) Whenever they are in IMC.

[LAW-PT04 #99] Which of the following statements is true? A) Landing aircraft, in the final stages of their approach, have priority over aircraft departing from the same runway. B) Aircraft conducting a visual approach have priority to land over aircraft conducting an instrument approach. C) Aircraft on an instrument approach have priority to land once they have passed the FAF. D) Departing aircraft have priority over aircraft landing on the same runway.

[LAW-PT04 #100] Significant changes in the conditions in the take-off or climb-out must be given to a departing aircraft: A) As soon as practicable. B) Without delay. C) Before the aircraft enters IFR. D) Once the aircraft is safely airborne and climbing.

[LAW-PT04 #101] Which of the following statements is/are accurate? Mark all correct answers. A) When VFR is suspended, the tower holds back VFR departures and either recalls local VFR flights or permits SVFR operations. B) During low visibility operations, when the crew transmit the phrase 'runway vacated’ it means that their entire aircraft has cleared the ILS sensitive area. C) The tower must immediately report any failure involving equipment, lights or devices which are used either to guide aircraft or to maintain the air traffic service. D) The TWR must report to the area control centre (ACC) or flight information centre (FIC) if any aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of its expected landing time.

[LAW-PT04 #102] ATC may invite an IFR aircraft to make a visual approach, provided that: Mark all correct answers. A) There are no other aircraft ahead on final approach. B) The pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain. C) The pilot reports at beginning of the initial approach segment (or at any time during the instrument approach procedure) that the conditions permit a visual approach and landing. D) The reported ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment.

[LAW-PT04 #103] For landing aircraft, priority is given to: Mark all correct answers. A) A hospital aircraft, or one carrying seriously ill people. B) Any dedicated search and rescue aircraft. C) An authority-approved aircraft, perhaps on some unusual operation. D) Aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations. E) Any aircraft which is compelled to land (emergencies, low fuel etc.).

[LAW-PT04 #104] What information is passed to an aircraft at the beginning of its final approach? Mark all correct answers. A) The wake turbulence category of the aircraft ahead. B) Visibility or RVR. C) Significant changes in wind. D) Details of wind shear or turbulence.

[LAW-PT04 #105] What information is passed to an aircraft during its final approach? Mark all correct answers. A) Changes in dew point. B) Runway hazards and surface conditions. C) Significant variations in surface wind (max values). D) Changes in RVR. E) Non-operational visual or non-visual aids.

[LAW-PT04 #106] Which of the following are valid reasons for ATC selecting a runway in use which is not into wind? Mark all correct answers. A) The into-wind runway is contaminated. B) The surface of the into-wind runway is damaged. C) Noise abatement procedures require a different runway. D) The into-wind runway is too short for the types of aircraft expected to use it.

[LAW-PT04 #108] According to ICAO Doc 8168, for parallel runway operations, what is the maximum intercept angle when vectoring an aircraft towards the ILS localiser? A) 40°. B) 30°. C) 50°. D) 45°.

[LAW-PT04 #109] An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the: A) Last 2 nm of the approach. B) Last 5 nm of the approach. C) Last 4 nm of the approach. D) Last 3 nm of the approach.

[LAW-PT04 #110] An air traffic advisory message from ATC is intended to: A) Enhance situational awareness. B) Slow the aircraft down by 20%. C) Advise you to complete a 180 degree turn in the aircraft to avoid the situation. D) Be followed immediately.

[LAW-PT04 #111] One of the functions of a radar control unit providing an approach control service is: A) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 nm. B) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 ft between IFR flights and VFR flights. C) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots. D) To conduct surveillance radar approaches.

[LAW-PT04 #112] When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, the radar controller shall: A) Only communicate with the pilot when work load permits. B) Inform the aircraft only when identification has been achieved by using primary radar. C) Request the pilot to squawk ident for identification. D) Inform the pilot that his aircraft has been identified before issuing instructions, based on the use of radar.

[LAW-PT04 #113] When 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, for radar identification ATC may request the pilot to execute one or more heading changes of: A) 20° or more. B) 45°. C) 10°. D) 30° or more.

[LAW-PT04 #114] An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of: A) 4 nm from the touchdown. B) 2 nm from the touchdown. C) 1.5 nm from the touchdown. D) 5 nm from the touchdown.

[LAW-PT04 #115] The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: A) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment. B) To assist aircraft on the location of storms. C) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory. D) To provide radar separation.

[LAW-PT04 #116] When ATC is equipped with and using PSR, at what distance from the end of the runway may a pilot expect that his aircraft can be identified? A) 3 nm. B) 2 nm. C) 1 nm. D) 5 nm.

[LAW-PT04 #117] A surveillance radar system which transmits signals and receives the returns reflected off aircraft (and other objects) is a: A) Secondary surveillance radar. B) A prime surveillance radar. C) A Mode S transponder. D) Primary surveillance radar.

[LAW-PT04 #118] The purpose of radar vectoring is to: A) Direct the aircraft to fly a flight planned route. B) Direct the aircraft to fly along a desired heading. C) Direct the aircraft to fly along a desired track. D) Direct the aircraft to fly a continuous descent final approach (CDFA)

[LAW-PT04 #119] Radar vectoring, wherever possible, is carried out at a height which: A) Allows the aircraft to maintain own separation. B) Minimises GPWS alerts. C) Minimises ACAS TAs. D) Lets the aircraft descend below MSA.

[LAW-PT04 #120] An air traffic advisory service uses the words ‘advise’ or ‘suggest’ to: A) To indicate the height an aircraft should be at during an SRA approach. B) Propose a course of action. C) Direct aircraft along a desired track. D) Clear an aircraft to take-off or land.

[LAW-PT04 #121] During a standard SRA, azimuth instructions are passed: A) 2 nm. B) As necessary. C) Every 1 km (0.5 nm). D) Every 2 km (1 nm).

[LAW-PT04 #122] During a standard SRA, height/altitude instructions are passed: A) Never B) Every 1 km (0.5 nm). C) 2 nm. D) Every 2 km (1 nm).

[LAW-PT04 #123] During an improved accuracy SRA, distance and height information are given every ____ km.

[LAW-PT04 #124] During an SRA the landing clearance (or an alternative clearance) is normally passed to the aircraft before it reaches _____ nm from touchdown.

[LAW-PT04 #125] Before beginning a radar approach for which communication failure procedures have been published the pilot is given: Mark all correct answers. A) The runway in use. B) The OCA/H. C) The DH or DA. D) The angle of the glide path and (sometimes) the approximate rate of descent.

[LAW-PT04 #126] Which of these is/are valid identification methods for an ATSU equipped only with PSR? Mark all correct answers. A) Observe the aircraft’s reported manoeuvres. B) Correlate position of a departing aircraft within 1 nm of the runway. C) Reading an aircraft’s identification SSR / MLAT label. D) Correlate radar position with the crew’s reported position. E) Formal transfer between controllers. F) Requesting the pilot to set, and then reading, a discrete code.

[LAW-PT04 #127] Which of the following are valid occasions in which an ATSU will give your position? Mark all correct answers. A) When your position estimate differs significantly from the controller’s. B) When you request it. C) Upon identification. D) If your aircraft is observed to deviate from its intended route. E) Immediately before termination of radar service. F) When you’re instructed to ‘resume own navigation’ after radar vectoring.

[LAW-PT04 #128] Which of the following are valid ways for an ATSU to give your position? Mark all correct answers. A) True track and distance to: a significant point; navigation aid or approach aid. B) Distance to, and direction from, the centreline of an ATS route. C) Distance from the FAF, if your aircraft is on final approach. D) Over a well-known geographical position. E) Direction and distance from a known position.

[LAW-PT04 #129] Which of these statements about the air traffic advisory service are accurate? Mark all correct answers. A) An advisory service is provided by an ATSU when it can’t provide a normal air traffic control service. B) The objective and basic principles of the air traffic advisory service is to provide information on collision hazards more effectively than might otherwise be done using a standard FIS. C) The air traffic advisory service is responsible for notifying an FIC when an aircraft is missing or overdue. D) The air traffic advisory service provides separation between IFR aircraft.

[LAW-PT04 #131] You are flying when you receive a broadcast from ATC advising that an aircraft in your area is making an emergency descent. What action should you take? A) Change to the previous frequency and request instructions. B) Clear the area. C) Unless otherwise instructed by ATC, continue as per your current clearance, listen out for ATS instructions, look out for conflicting traffic visually and by ACAS. D) Transmit on frequency, your callsign, position, track and level.

[LAW-PT04 #132] A strayed aircraft is: A) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost. B) An aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established. C) Only that aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track. D) Only that aircraft which reports that it is lost.

[LAW-PT04 #133] An unidentified aircraft is: A) Any aircraft whose identity has not been established. B) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track. C) An aircraft in flight whose identity has not been established. D) An aircraft for which radar vectoring has been terminated.

[LAW-PT04 #134] The SSR code for unlawful interference is:

[LAW-PT04 #135] To find out whether you can still receive communications ATC will instruct you: A) To contact them using ADS-B. B) To flash your navigation lights on and off. C) To contact them on the voice channel of a navigation aid such as VOR. D) Either to manoeuvre or make a signal.

[LAW-PT04 #136] The minimum permissible height for fuel dumping is normally: A) 6000 m B) 6000 ft C) 10 000 ft D) MSA

[LAW-PT04 #137] An ATSU attempting to make contact with an aircraft in distress, or with which it has lost communications will attempt to make contact via: A) The voice channels of nearby navigation aids such as VOR. B) The VHF emergency frequency 243 MHz. C) ADS-B. D) The frequencies that it thinks you might be listening to.

[LAW-PT04 #138] You are the pilot in command of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference. Due to the circumstances you are obliged to deviate from the assigned track and cruising level. It is expected that you will try to broadcast warnings and follow applicable special procedures established in Regional Agreements. If no such procedures have been established you should proceed at a level which differs from those normally used by IFR flights by:

[LAW-PT04 #139] For independent parallel approaches, when vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course, the final vector shall enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course at an angle not greater than ___ degrees.

[LAW-PT04 #140] An aircraft is in the descent and has been receiving instructions from ATC to make adjustments to its horizontal speed. At what distance from the threshold, on the final approach, must the PIC expect to stop receiving these instructions to control the speed?

[LAW-PT04 #141] According to ICAO Annex 11, the lateral limits of a control zone shall extend to at least_ from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the directions from which approaches may be made.

[LAW-PT04 #142] You are flying a medium category aircraft. You are approaching the airport vicinity under your own navigation, when you hear "VIR123 Heavy wind XXX runway XX cleared to land". What is the distance that you must maintain from the preceding aircraft?

[LAW-PT04 #143] A control zone should extend laterally to at least:

[LAW-PT04 #144] In case of an emergency a pilot needs to act in a correct way. All the avionics are out and contact can not be established with ATS. What level might the PIC choose to signify that something is wrong?

[LAW-PT04 #145] Having regard to wake turbulence categories, what is the maximum certified take-off mass for an aircraft in the LIGHT category?

[LAW-PT04 #146] To avoid confusion, how are transition altitudes set at two aerodromes located close together?

[LAW-PT04 #147] Aircraft A and B are flying to Paris. Aircraft A takes off from London Heathrow and is in front of Aircraft B with 1 minute difference. Aircraft B takes off from London City Airport at the same direction, 150 (ºM) inbound Paris Charles de Gaulle VOR for holding procedure before landing. What will be the appropriate flight level for each aircraft?

[LAW-PT04 #148] You are the pilot in command of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference. Due to the circumstances you are obliged to deviate from the assigned track and cruising level. It is expected that you will try to broadcast warnings and follow applicable special procedures established in Regional Agreements. If no such procedures have been established you should proceed at a level which differs from those normally used by IFR flights by:

[LAW-PT04 #149] For independent parallel approaches, when vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course, the final vector shall enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course at an angle not greater than ___ degrees.

[LAW-PT04 #150] An aircraft is in the descent and has been receiving instructions from ATC to make adjustments to its horizontal speed. At what distance from the threshold, on the final approach, must the PIC expect to stop receiving these instructions to control the speed?

[LAW-PT04 #151] According to ICAO Annex 11, the lateral limits of a control zone shall extend to at least_ from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the directions from which approaches may be made.

[LAW-PT04 #152] You are flying a medium category aircraft. You are approaching the airport vicinity under your own navigation, when you hear "VIR123 Heavy wind XXX runway XX cleared to land". What is the distance that you must maintain from the preceding aircraft?

[LAW-PT04 #153] A control zone should extend laterally to at least:

[LAW-PT04 #154] In case of an emergency a pilot needs to act in a correct way. All the avionics are out and contact can not be established with ATS. What level might the PIC choose to signify that something is wrong?

[LAW-PT04 #155] Having regard to wake turbulence categories, what is the maximum certified take-off mass for an aircraft in the LIGHT category?

[LAW-PT04 #156] To avoid confusion, how are transition altitudes set at two aerodromes located close together?

[LAW-PT04 #157] Aircraft A and B are flying to Paris. Aircraft A takes off from London Heathrow and is in front of Aircraft B with 1 minute difference. Aircraft B takes off from London City Airport at the same direction, 150 (ºM) inbound Paris Charles de Gaulle VOR for holding procedure before landing. What will be the appropriate flight level for each aircraft?

[LAW-PT04 #158] A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants' is the definition for:

[LAW-PT04 #159] Aerodrome traffic is:

[LAW-PT04 #160] A pilot should report "Runway vacated":

[LAW-PT04 #161] ATC is providing radar vectoring services to an aircraft operating under IFR, off an ATS route in mountainous terrain. Who is responsible for terrain clearance?

[LAW-PT04 #162] In which airspace classes shall an Air Traffic Control service for all VFR flights be provided?

[LAW-PT04 #163] Milano approach, BIGJET 337 HEAVY over UNDAP", the aircraft's correct callsign is:

[LAW-PT04 #164] A flight information service is provided to aircraft to avoid collision hazards when operating in which airspace classes?

[LAW-PT04 #165] Types of airspace - A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is a:

[LAW-PT04 #166] A control area (CTA) is defined as:

[LAW-PT04 #167] The transition level shall be provided to the flight crew:

[LAW-PT04 #168] In advisory airspace (Class F airspace), an Air Traffic Advisory Service may be provided to:

[LAW-PT04 #169] When should the ATIS be updated when suddenly thunderstorms are expected at an airport?

[LAW-PT04 #170] According to ICAO Doc 8168 PANS-OPS, for aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome for landing, the QNH altimeter setting shall be made available:

[LAW-PT04 #171] In which of the following ATC clearances is the QNH given?

[LAW-PT04 #172] The "Mach number technique" may be applied by ATC to aircraft along the same route in order to:

[LAW-PT04 #173] A flight from New York JFK is preparing for taxi. Given the following information, what should the pilots do? Runway 31L: due to works, only 11 000 ft of the runway are available, but is currently only used for landings. Runway 31R: 10 000 ft available and is used for departures with noise abatement procedures in force. However, it is too short according to the aircraft's current TOM calculations. Runway 04L: not available, it is currently used for landing only. Runway 04R: not in use. Wind: 230°/15 kt

[LAW-PT04 #174] An air traffic control unit:

[LAW-PT04 #175] An ATIS broadcast:

[LAW-PT04 #176] The French Safety Board (BEA) published a preliminary report of a serious incident involving an Airbus A330 being operated as a commercial air transport flight at Sidney, Australia. The Report states: "During take-off, a section of engine cowling from the NO. 1 engine separated from the aircraft. The crew conducted a fuel dump and returned the aircraft to Sydney." The incident did NOT involve an engine fire. What is the most appropriate explanation for why the crew dumped fuel after take- off?

[LAW-PT04 #177] A controlled flight operating under IFR passes a designated compulsory reporting point on the route. ln accordance with ICAO Annex 2, Rules of the Air, the pilot shall report to Air Traffic Control the:

[LAW-PT04 #178] The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed to be in emergency are: