[LAW-PT06 #1] Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitating the passage of passengers at the aerodromes? A) Annex 2. B) Annex 9. C) Annex 8. D) Annex 3.
B) Annex 9.
[LAW-PT06 #2] Where unaccompanied baggage is to be carried on board an aircraft: A) The baggage must be physically searched before loading aboard the aircraft. B) Shall be cleared under simplified arrangements. C) Quarantine procedures need to be applied. D) The baggage is to be placed in a secure and isolated area in the baggage hold.
B) Shall be cleared under simplified arrangements.
[LAW-PT06 #3] The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage on international flights is: A) Annex 8. B) Annex 9. C) Annex 15. D) Annex 6.
[LAW-PT06 #4] Where still used, a General Declaration form gives details of: A) The aircraft and its traffic load. B) The flight crew, the cabin crew and the operator. C) The aircraft, its flight, and the passengers and crew it carries. D) The traffic load, the useful load and the disposable load.
C) The aircraft, its flight, and the passengers and crew it carries.
[LAW-PT06 #5] The purpose of the CMC is to: A) Confirm that the crew member is authorised to fly the aircraft. B) Permit a crew member to enter any Contracting State without a passport or visa. C) Confirm the identity of the crew member during the crew member’s period of employment. D) Permit crew members to access the secure areas of an airport at all times.
C) Confirm the identity of the crew member during the crew member’s period of employment.
[LAW-PT06 #6] States should accept the CMC as an alternative to a passport or visa: A) When the crew member arrives for duty on another flight, even by another operator. B) Only while the crew member is 'airside' at an airport. C) At any time or location while the crew member is on duty. D) While at an airport where the aircraft has landed (or in an adjacent city).
D) While at an airport where the aircraft has landed (or in an adjacent city).
[LAW-PT06 #7] The commander of a flight may: A) Not intervene during cabin crew actions when cabin crew are dealing with an unruly passenger. B) Require crew-members to assist with the restraint of very unruly passengers and request the assistance of passengers. C) Request crew-members to assist with the restraint of very unruly passengers and request the assistance of passengers. D) Require crew-members to assist with the restraint of very unruly passengers and require the assistance of passengers.
B) Require crew-members to assist with the restraint of very unruly passengers and request the assistance of passengers.
[LAW-PT06 #8] Which of these statements about unaccompanied baggage is/are correct? States must: Mark all correct answers. A) Allow operators to forward mishandled baggage to its owner. B) Not hold Operators liable for penalties, fines, import duties and taxes, on mishandled bags. C) Permit Operators to present such bags for clearance on behalf of their owners. D) Allow unaccompanied bags to be directly transferred between international flights at the same airport, without examination, other than for security reasons.
A) Allow operators to forward mishandled baggage to its owner. B) Not hold Operators liable for penalties, fines, import duties and taxes, on mishandled bags. C) Permit Operators to present such bags for clearance on behalf of their owners. D) Allow unaccompanied bags to be directly transferred between international flights at the same airport, without examination, other than for security reasons.
[LAW-PT06 #9] ICAO Annex 12 is applicable to which geographical areas? A) Over the high seas only. B) Over Contracting States only. C) Over the territories of Contracting States and over the high seas. D) Over Contracting States and Territorial waters.
C) Over the territories of Contracting States and over the high seas.
[LAW-PT06 #10] When flying en-route you intercept an emergency transmission from an aircraft in distress. Your actions will include, where possible: A) Record the position of the craft in distress if given. Enter a holding pattern and await instructions. B) Record the position of the craft in distress if given. If possible take a bearing on the transmission. Inform the appropriate RCC or ATC Unit. At his discretion, while awaiting instructions, proceed to the position given in the transmission. C) Recording the bearing of the transmission, While awaiting instructions, proceed to the position given in the transmission. D) Hold current position while coordinating the SAR operation.
B) Record the position of the craft in distress if given. If possible take a bearing on the transmission. Inform the appropriate RCC or ATC Unit. At his discretion, while awaiting instructions, proceed to the position given in the transmission.
[LAW-PT06 #11] At night you observe ground signals from survivors of a disaster.What do you do to indicate that you have seen and understood the signals? A) Rock the wings. B) Flash your landing lights or navigation lights on and off twice. C) Make a low pass over the survivors. D) Turn off the anti-collision light.
B) Flash your landing lights or navigation lights on and off twice.
[LAW-PT06 #12] The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on the ground in order to indicate REQUIRE ASSISTANCE is: A) X B) V C) Y D) N
B) V
[LAW-PT06 #13] With regards to Search and Rescue Signals what does the signal 'N' mean? A) Unable to continue - returning to base. B) All personnel found. C) No or negative. D) Nothing found, continuing search.
C) No or negative.
[LAW-PT06 #14] The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on the ground to indicate 'AFFIRMATIVE' is (search and rescue signals): A) N B) X C) V D) Y
D) Y
[LAW-PT06 #15] Search and rescue on the high seas is conducted: A) By agreements of the ICAO committee. B) On the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements. C) These areas cannot be served by SAR. D) By agreements of the EASA committee.
B) On the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements.
[LAW-PT06 #16] The units responsible for promoting the efficient organisation of search and rescue services are: A) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre. B) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre. C) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres. D) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
C) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
[LAW-PT06 #17] Which frequencies are used for emergency operations by SAR aircraft? A) 121.5 MHz and 243.0 kHz. B) 119.7 MHz and 6182 MHz. C) 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz. D) 119.7 MHz and 2182 kHz.
C) 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz.
[LAW-PT06 #18] If you are the first aircraft to arrive at an area where an accident has happened, before search and rescue services arrive: A) You descend in intervals of 10 minutes. B) You descend to 1000 ft and circle at the location of occurrence north to south. C) You continue your flight because all aircraft have ELTs. D) You must stay at the location of the accident and take charge and coordinate the rescue efforts.
D) You must stay at the location of the accident and take charge and coordinate the rescue efforts.
[LAW-PT06 #19] How are Search and Rescue Regions in remote areas organised? A) By regional air navigational agreements. B) By the IATA Search and Rescue Committee. C) By the ICAO Search and Rescue Committee. D) They are not as they are too inaccessible.
A) By regional air navigational agreements.
[LAW-PT06 #20] An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an 'X'. This indicates: A) Need medical assistance. B) All occupants alive. C) Landing impossible. D) Request assistance as soon as possible.
A) Need medical assistance.
[LAW-PT06 #21] SAR must be available: A) 24 hours a day. B) 18 hours a day. C) 2 hours before, during and 2 hours after a flight. D) When traffic is passing the airspace.
A) 24 hours a day.
[LAW-PT06 #22] A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants' is a definition of: A) An overdue aircraft. B) The uncertainty phase. C) UNCERFA D) The alert phase.
D) The alert phase.
[LAW-PT06 #23] A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance' is a definition of: A) EMERFA. B) The accident phase. C) The uncertainty phase. D) The distress phase
D) The distress phase
[LAW-PT06 #24] A generic term meaning, as the case may be, uncertainty phase, alert phase or distress phase' is a definition of: A) An emergency phase B) A search phase. C) An overdue action phase. D) A rescue phase.
A) An emergency phase
[LAW-PT06 #25] A person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft operation' is a definition of: A) A crew member. B) An airport. C) A pilot in command. D) An operator.
D) An operator.
[LAW-PT06 #26] The pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of general aviation, the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight' is a definition of: A) A pilot in command (PIC). B) A captain. C) A crew member. D) A first officer.
A) A pilot in command (PIC).
[LAW-PT06 #27] A unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue services and for coordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations within a search and rescue region' is a definition of: A) A rescue coordination centre. B) Regional unit. C) A rescue unit. D) A FIR control centre.
A) A rescue coordination centre.
[LAW-PT06 #28] The State on whose register the aircraft is entered' is a definition of: A) The State of Registry. B) The State of the Operator. C) The State of Occurrence. D) The State of Manufacture.
A) The State of Registry.
[LAW-PT06 #29] A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants' is a definition of: A) The unsure phase. B) The alert phase. C) The emergency phase. D) The uncertainty phase.
D) The uncertainty phase.
[LAW-PT06 #30] Where would a hijacked aircraft be parked after landing? A) At an isolated parking position. B) Near the rescue services. C) Near the security and rescue services. D) Near the terminal.
A) At an isolated parking position.
[LAW-PT06 #31] States must take adequate measures to ensure the safety of the passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference: A) During a period of investigation. B) And arrange for them to return to their country of origin. C) If requested by an individual passenger. D) Until their journey can be continued.
D) Until their journey can be continued.
[LAW-PT06 #32] States must provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This includes: A) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers. B) Only permission to land. C) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling. D) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land.
D) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land.
[LAW-PT06 #33] The movement area of an airport, the adjacent terrain and buildings with controlled access are called: A) Terminal. B) Airside. C) Manoeuvring area. D) Security program.
B) Airside.
[LAW-PT06 #34] ICAO Annex 17 comprises rules for establishing security measures for passengers with regards to: A) Cabin baggage and checked baggage and cargo. B) Passengers and their baggage. C) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design. D) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control.
C) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
[LAW-PT06 #35] When establishing security at an airport, what are the objectives (general principles) with regard to ICAO Annex 17? A) Each Contracting State shall have as its primary objective the safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation. B) Each Contracting State shall have as its primary objective the safety of passengers and crew in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation. C) Each Contracting State shall have as its primary objective the safety of the general public in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation. D) Each Contracting State shall have as its primary objective the safety of passengers, crew and ground personnel in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation.
A) Each Contracting State shall have as its primary objective the safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation.
[LAW-PT06 #36] When a Contracting State allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon: A) Prior notification by the State of embarkation to the foreign State and airport of arrival in which the weapons will be carried. Also notification of the pilot-in-command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft. B) Notification of the pilot-in-command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only. C) Agreement between the State of embarkation and the airport of arrival. D) Agreement between the State of embarkation and the State of destination.
A) Prior notification by the State of embarkation to the foreign State and airport of arrival in which the weapons will be carried. Also notification of the pilot-in-command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft.
[LAW-PT06 #37] Which of the following statements concerning the flight crew compartment door is correct: A) The door must be marked as an emergency access and be kept clear of obstructions at all times. B) The door must be capable of being unlocked from the cabin side because it is an emergency exit from the aircraft. C) The door may be made of a fireproof material. D) The door shall be lockable from the flight deck side only.
D) The door shall be lockable from the flight deck side only.
[LAW-PT06 #38] According to ICAO Annex 17, 'Security' is a combination of measures: A) To safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. This objective is achieved by a combination of measures and human and material resources. B) To defend passenger and their baggage from terrorists. C) Intended to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. D) To disable hijackers or would-be hijackers.
A) To safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. This objective is achieved by a combination of measures and human and material resources.
[LAW-PT06 #39] Each Contracting State should designate an appropriate authority to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme.This programme should apply: A) Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights. B) Only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo. C) To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and also to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state. D) Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights.
C) To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and also to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state.
[LAW-PT06 #40] Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate authority arranges for the supporting resources and facilities required by the national civil aviation security programme to be available at: A) Any airport identified as having a poor safety record. B) Airports that are perceived as being under increased threat of acts of unlawful interference. C) Each airport serving civil aviation. D) Every airport that can accommodate jet aircraft.
C) Each airport serving civil aviation.
[LAW-PT06 #41] The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof, access to which is controlled' this is a definition of: A) A secure area. B) A security-restricted area. C) Airside. D) The movement area.
C) Airside.
[LAW-PT06 #42] An inspection of the interior of an aircraft to which passengers may have had access and an inspection of the hold for the purposes of discovering suspicious objects, weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles and substances' this is a definition of: A) An aircraft security programme. B) An aircraft security check. C) Screening. D) A pre-flight cabin search.
B) An aircraft security check.
[LAW-PT06 #43] The application of technical or other means which are intended to identify and/or detect weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles or substances which may be used to commit an act of unlawful interference' this is a definition of: A) Screening. B) Surveillance. C) Security control. D) Security.
A) Screening.
[LAW-PT06 #44] Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. This objective is achieved by a combination of measures and human and material resources' this is a definition of: A) Security. B) The Operator's security programme. C) Screening. D) The national security committee.
A) Security.
[LAW-PT06 #45] A means by which the introduction of weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles or substances which may be used to commit an act of unlawful interference can be prevented' this is a definition of: A) Security control. B) Baggage x-ray equipment. C) Body scanning. D) Screening.
A) Security control.
[LAW-PT06 #46] Those areas of the airside of an airport which are identified as priority risk areas where in addition to access control, other security controls are applied. Such areas will normally include, inter alia, all commercial aviation passenger departure areas between the screening checkpoint and the aircraft, the ramp, baggage make-up areas, including those where aircraft are being brought into service and screened baggage and cargo are present, cargo sheds, mail centres, airside catering and aircraft cleaning premises' this is a definition of: A) A security-restricted area. B) The passenger departure lounge. C) Airside. D) Landside.
A) A security-restricted area.
[LAW-PT06 #47] Baggage at an airport, with or without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger' this is a definition of: A) Unidentified baggage. B) A dangerous good. C) Hazardous baggage. D) A suspicious article.
A) Unidentified baggage.
[LAW-PT06 #48] If screened passengers have mixed with unscreened passengers after a security screening point A) They and their cabin baggage must be re-screened before boarding. B) They and cabin and hold baggage must be re-screened. C) The passengers must be re-screened using a whole body scanner or hand search. D) They must be denied boarding.
A) They and their cabin baggage must be re-screened before boarding.
[LAW-PT06 #49] The initial actions of the PIC of an aircraft subject to unlawful interference are: A) Try to notify the ATSU controlling the flight.Divert as soon as possible to the first available suitable airfield. B) Only use ADS-B or CPDLC to try to alter the ATSU in secret.Slowly change heading and height (to avert suspicion) to head towards a suitable aerodrome.Land as soon as possible. C) Try to notify the ATSU controlling the flight.Fly the assigned track and cruising level at least until able to notify an ATS unit or within ADS-B or radar coverage.Land as soon as practicable. D) Try to notify the ATSU controlling the flight.Fly the assigned track. Fly at a cruising level 500 ft different for the assigned one. Land as soon as practicable.
C) Try to notify the ATSU controlling the flight.Fly the assigned track and cruising level at least until able to notify an ATS unit or within ADS-B or radar coverage.Land as soon as practicable.
[LAW-PT06 #50] If an aircraft subject to unlawful interference must depart from its assigned flight level, and no RSUPPs are in place to dictate what action should be taken, the PiC should: A) Fly at a level which differs from the normal IFR cruising levels by:500 ft in 1000 ft RVSM areas.1000 ft in 2000 ft VSM areas. B) Fly at a level which differs from the normal IFR cruising levels by:1000 ft in 1000 ft RVSM areas.2000 ft in 2000 ft VSM areas. C) Fly at a level which differs from the normal IFR cruising levels by:1000 ft in 2000 ft RVSM areas.2000 ft in 4000 ft VSM areas. D) Fly at a level which differs from the normal VFR cruising levels by:500 ft in 1000 ft RVSM areas.1000 ft in 2000 ft VSM areas.
A) Fly at a level which differs from the normal IFR cruising levels by:500 ft in 1000 ft RVSM areas.1000 ft in 2000 ft VSM areas.
[LAW-PT06 #51] Isolated parking position: at least __________ m from other parking positions, buildings or public areas.
100
[LAW-PT06 #52] Aircraft subject to unlawful interference will be given taxi routes which: A) Minimise the risk to the public, other aircraft and airport installations. B) Avoid all runways. C) Minimise the risk to the counter-terrorism forces. D) Are not visible from areas containing passengers.
A) Minimise the risk to the public, other aircraft and airport installations.
[LAW-PT06 #53] After an unlawfully seized aircraft has landed, the State must prohibit its take-off unless: A) The State of Registry agrees to take the aircraft. B) To do so would jeopardise lives. C) It has sufficient fuel on board to take-off and land at a more secure airport facility. D) The State of the Operator agrees to take the aircraft.
B) To do so would jeopardise lives.
[LAW-PT06 #54] When passengers are obliged to travel because of judicial or administrative proceedings: Mark all correct answers. A) They must be handcuffed at all times except when taking comfort breaks. B) The Operator must have in place a security programme to protect other passengers. C) They must be handcuffed throughout the flight. D) The operator and the PiC must be informed about such passengers so that the appropriate security controls can be applied.
B) The Operator must have in place a security programme to protect other passengers. D) The operator and the PiC must be informed about such passengers so that the appropriate security controls can be applied.
[LAW-PT06 #55] Which of these statements about the carriage of armed law enforcement officers is/are true? Mark all corrrect answers. A) The Operator (but not the PiC) must be notified as to the number of armed persons and their seat locations. B) In-flight security officers must be specially selected and trained. C) Carriage of weapons requires special authorisation. D) Only after agreement by all States involved is such travel allowed.
B) In-flight security officers must be specially selected and trained. C) Carriage of weapons requires special authorisation. D) Only after agreement by all States involved is such travel allowed.
[LAW-PT06 #56] A secure flight crew compartment door is mandatory on all aircraft with: Mark all correct answers. A) An MCTOM > 54 500 kg. B) A passenger seating capacity > 60. C) An MCTOM > 60 000 kg. D) An MCTOM > 45 500 kg with a passenger seating capacity > 19.
A) An MCTOM > 54 500 kg. B) A passenger seating capacity > 60. D) An MCTOM > 45 500 kg with a passenger seating capacity > 19.
[LAW-PT06 #57] The objects not allowed (for reasons of aviation security) on board an aircraft are: Mark all correct answers. A) Weapons. B) Lithium batteries. C) Alcohol in containers of 5L or more. D) Explosives. E) Matches. F) Dangerous devices and substances.
A) Weapons. C) Alcohol in containers of 5L or more. D) Explosives. F) Dangerous devices and substances.
[LAW-PT06 #58] The conduct of an accident investigation may be delegated, in whole or in part, to: A) The State of the Operator. B) The State of Registry. C) The State of Registry, the State of the Operator or any other State by mutual arrangement and consent. D) The State of Manufacture.
C) The State of Registry, the State of the Operator or any other State by mutual arrangement and consent.
[LAW-PT06 #59] Who is responsible for initiating an accident investigation? A) The State of Design and Manufacturer. B) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place. C) The aircraft manufacturer. D) The Operators of the same aircraft type.
B) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
[LAW-PT06 #60] The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident is to: A) Prevent accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases. B) Prevent accidents or incidents and to provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design. C) Prevent accidents or incidents and to establish liability. D) Prevent accidents or incidents.
D) Prevent accidents or incidents.
[LAW-PT06 #61] ICAO Annex 13 sets out SARPs for dealing with: A) The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air. B) Air Traffic Services. C) Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation. D) Facilitation.
C) Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation.
[LAW-PT06 #62] During the climb-out phase of a flight, the pilot-in-command becomes incapacitated. The co-pilot takes over control of the aircraft and decides to return for landing. Which of the following statements is correct? A) This is an irregularity in operations. The operator must inform the Authority by writing an Irregularity Report. B) This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident. C) This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an accident. D) This is an irregularity. The pilot-in-command or the Operator must deposit a report on behalf of the involved airport Authority within the following 48 hours.
B) This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident.
[LAW-PT06 #63] According to the ICAO definition, which of the following defines an incident? A) An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all persons have disembarked, in which a person is fatally or seriously injured. B) Any of the above providing the aircraft is seriously damaged at the same time. C) Any occurrence involving damage to an aircraft. D) An occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could have affected the safety of the operation.
D) An occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could have affected the safety of the operation.
[LAW-PT06 #64] According to the ICAO definition, if an aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible: A) This is classified as a serious incident. B) This is classified as an incident. C) This is classified as an accident. D) This is classified as an uncertainty phase.
C) This is classified as an accident.
[LAW-PT06 #65] According to the ICAO definition, an accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which: A) Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked where a person is fatally or seriously injured. B) Takes place between the time the aircraft is in flight until such time as it lands where a person is fatally or seriously injured. C) Takes place between the time any passenger boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such passengers have disembarked where a person is fatally or seriously injured. D) Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as it stops engines where a person is fatally or seriously injured.
A) Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked where a person is fatally or seriously injured.
[LAW-PT06 #66] ICAO Annex 7 defines the State of Registry as the State: A) On whose register the aircraft is entered. B) In which the aircraft is based. C) In which the aircraft operator is registered. D) In which the lessor is registered.
A) On whose register the aircraft is entered.
[LAW-PT06 #67] The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the type design' this is a definition of: A) State of Design. B) State of the Operator. C) State of Manufacture. D) The State of Registry.
A) State of Design.
[LAW-PT06 #68] The State in the territory of which an accident or incident occurs', this is the definition of: A) The State of Registry. B) The State of Occurrence. C) The State of Accident. D) The State of the Incident.
B) The State of Occurrence.
[LAW-PT06 #69] The State in which the operator’s principal place of business is located or, if there is no such place of business, the operator’s permanent residence' this is the definition of: A) The State of the Manufacturer. B) The State of Registry. C) The State of Occurrence. D) The State of the Operator.
D) The State of the Operator.
[LAW-PT06 #70] The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the final assembly of the aircraft' this is the definition of: A) The State of Registration. B) The State of Manufacture. C) The State of Occurrence. D) The State of the Operator.
B) The State of Manufacture.
[LAW-PT06 #71] The State on whose register the aircraft is entered' this is a definition of: A) The State of Registration. B) The State of the Operator. C) The State of Manufacture. D) The State of Registry.
D) The State of Registry.
[LAW-PT06 #72] A process conducted for the purpose of accident prevention which includes the gathering and analysis of information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of causes and, when appropriate, the making of safety recommendations' this is a definition of: A) An inquiry. B) An investigation. C) An error. D) Accident screening.
B) An investigation.
[LAW-PT06 #73] An incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred', this is the definition of: A) A serious incident. B) An error. C) An incident. D) An occurrence (as per EU 996/2010).
A) A serious incident.
[LAW-PT06 #74] Under EU law, the responsibility for setting up a voluntary reporting system to collect information which may have been missed by the mandatory reporting system rests with: A) IATA. B) The European Commission. C) EASA. D) Each Contracting State.
D) Each Contracting State.
[LAW-PT06 #75] An occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft which affects, or could affect, the safety of operations', this the definition of: A) An incident. B) A technical or non-technical occurrence. C) A serious incident. D) An event (as per EU 996/2010).
A) An incident.
[LAW-PT06 #76] The language to be used when reporting an accident or incident must be: A) English. B) The language of the State of Occurrence. C) One of the 6 working languages of ICAO. D) The language of the State of the Operator.
C) One of the 6 working languages of ICAO.
[LAW-PT06 #77] A crew attempts to land on a closed runway. Under EU 996/2010 this is classified as: A) An incident. B) A serious incident. C) An occurrence. D) A near accident.
B) A serious incident.
[LAW-PT06 #78] An in-flight event occurs in which the crew need to use emergency oxygen for 5 minutes. Under EU 996/2010 this is classified as: A) An incident. B) A serious incident. C) A near accident. D) An occurrence.
[LAW-PT06 #79] A Boeing 737 suffers a catastrophic engine failure on take-off. Under EU 996/2010 this __________ classified as an accident. A) Is B) is not
B) is not
[LAW-PT06 #80] Under EU Regulation No 376/2014 which of these occurrences must be reported: Mark all correct answers. A) An engine fails on take-off. B) An aircraft has to declare a fuel emergency. C) The captain fails to report for duty at the allotted time, so a relief captain has to be used. D) The first officer becomes briefly incapacitated due to a stomach bug.
A) An engine fails on take-off. B) An aircraft has to declare a fuel emergency. D) The first officer becomes briefly incapacitated due to a stomach bug.
[LAW-PT06 #81] Which of these has a right to representation at an Enquiry? Mark all correct answers. A) The State of the Operator. B) The State of Manufacture. C) Any State which provides information, facilities or experts to the investigation. D) The State of Registry. E) The State of Design.
A) The State of the Operator. B) The State of Manufacture. C) Any State which provides information, facilities or experts to the investigation. D) The State of Registry. E) The State of Design.
[LAW-PT06 #82] Which of the following would constitute a 'serious injury'? An injury which: Mark all correct answers. A) Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours. B) Results in a fracture of any major bone. C) Involves any laceration of the skin. D) Involves burns affecting more than 5%. E) Requires hospitalisation.
A) Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours. B) Results in a fracture of any major bone. D) Involves burns affecting more than 5%.
[LAW-PT06 #83] Unaccompanied baggage to be carried by air shall be cleared under the procedures applicable for:
accompanied baggage, or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applied to cargo.
[LAW-PT06 #84] Where unaccompanied baggage is to be carried on board an aircraft:
Additional security measures need to be applied.
[LAW-PT06 #85] According to ICAO annex 9, when crew members enter or leave a member state, the contracting state shall:
Facilitate and expedite their inspection as well as their baggage by checking their CMCs.
[LAW-PT06 #86] According to ICAO Annex 12, what does Rescue Coordination Centre mean?
A unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue services and for coordinating the conduct.
[LAW-PT06 #87] According to ICAO Annex 12, what does Rescue Coordination Centre mean?
A unit responslble for promotlng efficient organisation of search and rescue services and for coordlnating the conduct of search and rescue operatlons wlthin a search and rescue reglon.
[LAW-PT06 #88] At which phase must a rescue co-ordination centre immediately alert search and rescue units and initiate any necessary action?
Alert phase.
[LAW-PT06 #89] Search and Rescue signals - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "NEGATIVE' ls:
N
[LAW-PT06 #90] Those portions of the high seas or areas of undetermined sovereignty for which search and rescue services will be established shall be determined on what?
On the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
[LAW-PT06 #91] The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue services and for co-ordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations within a search and rescue region is the:
Rescue Co-ordination Centre (RCC).
[LAW-PT06 #92] How should the Search and Rescue (SAR) regions be defined by the contracting states?
SAR regions shall not overlap, and neighbouring regions shall be adjacent.
[LAW-PT06 #93] If the first aircraft to reach the scene of an accident is not a search and rescue aircraft, what action must it take until the arrival of the first search and rescue aircraft?
Take charge of on-scene activities of all other arriving aircraft.
[LAW-PT06 #94] The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on the ground in order to indicate REQUIRE ASSISTANCE is:
V
[LAW-PT06 #95] ln accordance with Annex 12, what does the ground-air visual signal code LL used by rescue units mean?
We have found all personnel.
[LAW-PT06 #96] If you are the first aircraft to arrive at an area where an accident has happened, before search and rescue services arrive:
You must stay at the location of the accident and take charge and coordinate the rescue efforts.
[LAW-PT06 #97] ln an emergency scenario, all the avionics are out and there is no contact established with ATS. ln order to indicate that something is wrong, the PIC should proceed to a level which differs from normally used cruising levels for IFR flight by:
500 ft difference each flight level 1000 ft apart.
[LAW-PT06 #98] According to ICAO Annex 17, to what does the following definition correspond to? "An inspection of the interior of an aircraft to which passengers may have had access and an inspection of the hold for the purposes of discovering suspicious objects, weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles and substances."
Aircraft security check.
[LAW-PT06 #99] If an unlawfully interfered aircraft arrives at an aerodrome, where shall the aerodrome control tower advise that aircraft to park?
At an isolated aircraft parking position.
[LAW-PT06 #100] ICAO Annex 17 comprises rules for establishing security measures for passengers with regards to:
Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
[LAW-PT06 #101] Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate authority arranges for the supporting resources and facilities required by the national civil aviation security programme to be available at:
Each airport serving civil aviation.
[LAW-PT06 #102] According to ICAO Annex 6 and considering passenger-carrying aeroplanes that must be equipped with an approved flight crew compartment door designed to resist penetration by small arms fire and Intrusions unauthorised persons, this door must be capable of being locked and unlocked from:
Either pilot's seat.
[LAW-PT06 #103] Appropriate actions of crew members can minimise the consequences of acts of unlawful interference if the operator:
establishes and maintains an approved security training programme.
[LAW-PT06 #104] In passenger-carrying aeroplanes equipped with a flight crew compartment door designed to resist penetration by small arms fire, when shall this door be closed and locked?
From the time all external doors are closed.
[LAW-PT06 #105] A pilot is taxiing when someone tries to enter the cockpit. What shall the pilot do?
He/she must remain as far away from other aircraft as possible and taxi to a designated or isolated parking area ln accordance with local instructions.
[LAW-PT06 #106] According to ICAO Annex 2, what should the pilot in command do under a state of unlawful interference?
Land as soon as practicable.
[LAW-PT06 #107] What should a pilot do if his/her aircraft is subjected to an act of unlawful interference and contact to an ATS unit cannot be established?
Proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR by 500 ft ln an area where a vertical separation minimum of 1000 ft is applied.
[LAW-PT06 #108] States must provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land.
[LAW-PT06 #109] When a passenger is obliged to travel due to judicial proceedings, each Contracting State shall ensure that
The aircraft operator and the pilot-in-command are informed.
[LAW-PT06 #110] In accordance with Annex 17, what are the requirements when individuals who have been subject of Judicial or administrative proceedings are required to travel?
The operator and PIC must be informed.
[LAW-PT06 #111] When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, what is the commander's primary goal?
To land the aircraft as soon as possible.
[LAW-PT06 #112] According to ICAO Annex 17, 'Security' is a combination of measures:
To safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. This objective is achieved by a combination ofmeasures and human and material resources
[LAW-PT06 #113] The carriage of weapons on a civil aviation aircraft is only allowed under certain conditions. Which of the following is a condition that permits a weapon to be carried on board?
When it is unloaded and stowed in a place inaccessible to any person during the flight.
[LAW-PT06 #114] To which state shall the final report of an accident or serious incident be sent to with minimum delay? 1 -The State of Registry; 2 - The State of the Operator; 3 - The State of Design; 4 - The State of Manufacture; 5 - The ICAO, when the aircraft involved is of a maximum mass of over 2250 kg.
1, 2, 3, 4 is correct.
[LAW-PT06 #115] In accordance with ICAO Annex 13, Chapter 1 - Definitions, what is an 'incident'?
An occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft which affects or could affect the safety of operation.
[LAW-PT06 #116] Which one of the following occurrences should be voluntarily reported?
Debris in walkway.
[LAW-PT06 #117] An aircraft designed and manufactured in the United States of America (USA), registered and operated in the United Kingdom (UK), and having a maximum mass of 10 tonnes, crashes in France. According to ICAO Annex 13 "Aircraft Accident and incident investigation", which State/organisation(s) must be notified of the accident and by whom?
France must notify the UK, the USA, and ICAO.
[LAW-PT06 #118] The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident is to:
Prevent accidents or incidents.
[LAW-PT06 #119] An aircraft lands at the destination with less than 30 minutes fuel. This is reported as:
Serious Incident.
[LAW-PT06 #120] An accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which:
Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons.
[LAW-PT06 #121] After landing, while taxiing the landing gear sinks into a hole. No person gets injured, but the aircraft sustains structural failure, which delays the departure. Which of the following correctly describes the situation and following action:
This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
[LAW-PT06 #122] According to ICAO Doc 7300/9 Convention on International Civil Aviation, Article to "landing at customs airport", which statement is correct:
Aircraft are permitted to cross the territory of a Contracting State without landing, unless the regulations of that State require you to land for customs examination.
[LAW-PT06 #123] The Basic Regulation refers to a:
Binding rule adopted by the European Parliament and the Council, establishing the EASA.
[LAW-PT06 #124] ICAO - Objectives of ICAO were established and are ratified by the:
Chicago Convention 1944.
[LAW-PT06 #125] The term 'Cabotage' refers to:
Domestic air services.
[LAW-PT06 #126] Chicago Convention - Cabotage refers to:
domestic air services.
[LAW-PT06 #127] What is the role and objective of EASA?
EASA proposes implementing rules to the European Commission and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
[LAW-PT06 #128] A scheduled flight from Singapore to Thailand has the right to fly over Malaysia WITHOUT landing, and to land in Malaysia for non-traffic purposes. These rights are granted by the ____ Freedoms of the Air:
First and Second.
[LAW-PT06 #129] An aircraft flying over the territory of another State must:
Follow the Rules of the Air of the State it is overflying.
[LAW-PT06 #130] According to ICAO, what is correct about the Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS)?
FRMS is a data-driven means of continuously monitoring and managing fatigue- related safety.
[LAW-PT06 #131] According to the 1999 Montreal Convention, when is an airline is responsible for a person's checked baggage:
From the baggage check-in until it's off-loading.
[LAW-PT06 #132] The regulatory material related to air safety and managed by EASA involves:
Hard law and soft law.
[LAW-PT06 #133] An Implementing Rule (IR) developed by EASA and adopted by the European Commission is considered a:
Hard Law.
[LAW-PT06 #134] Select the option which corresponds to IATA's mission statement:
IATA's mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry.
[LAW-PT06 #135] The Second Freedom of the Air is the right to:
Land for a technical stop.
[LAW-PT06 #136] “You’re flying from the USA to Germany. Overhead UK, you’re told that you are no longer allowed to enter Germany. All the above countries signed the International Aviation Convention. This situation is…”
Legal, because a country has the right to withdraw permission to enter.
[LAW-PT06 #137] An aircraft is flying from the USA to Germany. Overhead the UK, the pilot ls told that he/she ls no longer allowed to enter Germany. Ali mentioned countries signed the International Aviation Convention. This situation is:
legal, because each contracting state has the right of sovereignty over its own airspace.
[LAW-PT06 #138] The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or ls about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law
may deliver such person to the competent authorities
[LAW-PT06 #139] ccording to the Montreal Convention of 1999 (ICAO Doc 9740), a carrier is liable for damage sustained in case of destruction or loss of, or of damage to, baggage upon condition only that the event which caused the destruction, loss or damage took place
On board the aircraft or during any period within which the checked baggage was in the charge of the carrier.
[LAW-PT06 #140] A Certificate of Airworthiness shall be issued by a Contracting State on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements. Who issues the Certificate of Airworthiness?
State of Registry.
[LAW-PT06 #141] A passenger has lost his/her ticket, which was issued by an airline. ln this case:
The contract of carriage is NOT affected.
[LAW-PT06 #142] According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offense on board the aircraft?
The Convention of Tokyo.
[LAW-PT06 #143] What do you understand by "EASA certification specifications"?
They are non-binding technical standards, adopted by EASA, to meet the essential requirements of the basic regulation.
[LAW-PT06 #144] What do you understand by “EASA certification specifications”?
[LAW-PT06 #145] Why must the airline issue a ticket?
To establish a contract.
[LAW-PT06 #146] Which of these is a primary function of IATA? To give individual airlines policy guidelines:
To tackle critical issues in Aviation.
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