COM 02

1. TCAS is an on-board system which uses transponder information to alert the crew to __________ traffic and to potentially conflicting or actually conflicting traffic. A) proximate B) all

2. A TCAS __________ always takes precedence over any ATC instruction. A) RA B) TA C) TA or RA

3. You __________ advise ATC of a TCAS RA. A) must B) need not C) may

4. Following an RA, when clear of the conflict, you should __________ unless told otherwise by ATC. A) return to your cleared level B) remain at your current level C) squawk ident

5. If you are unable to accept an ATC instruction because it conflicts with a TCAS resolution advisory, you must: A) Tell ATC about the conflict. B) Accept the ATC instruction, when in controlled airspace. C) Decide whether its safer to follow the RA or ATC instruction. D) Tell ATC about the conflict and await further instructions.

6. If ATC requests you to 'squawk ident’ what should you do? A) Activate the identification feature on the aircraft's transponder. B) Confirm your aircraft's callsign. C) Make a small turn left to aid identification. D) Make a small turn right to aid identification.

7. When you are under radar control, the instructions issued by ATC are __________. A) mandatory. B) voluntary.

8. The PiC __________ ignore or override Radar Control instructions when in his/her opinion, the safety of the aircraft is or will be compromised. A) may B) may not

9. When under radar control what happens when identification is lost? A) Radar service must be terminated. B) Radar service must be restarted. C) You will be requested to 'squawk ident'. D) You will not know where you are.

10. All headings given by ATC are given in degrees __________ unless otherwise stated. A) magnetic B) True C) magnetic or true

11. When under radar control, what does 'resume own navigation' mean? A) Radar vectors are no longer going to be given. B) You can fly where you want. C) Identification has been lost. D) You must fly visually.

12. When under radar control, what does 'orbit left' mean? A) You are being asked to make a complete 360° turn to the left. B) You are being asked to make all turns to the left. C) You are being asked to enter the hold. D) You are being asked to enter a left turn until told to exit it.

13. When under radar control, what does make a 'tree sixty turn left' mean? A) You are being asked to make a complete 360 degree turn to the left. B) You are being asked to make a complete 360 degree turn to the right. C) You are being asked to turn 60 degrees with reference to the tree visible to the left. D) You are being asked to turn 360 degrees with reference to the tree visible to the left.

14. When under radar control, if the controller considers there is imminent risk of collision what phrase (or phrases) may be used?Mark 2 correct answers. A) Avoiding action. B) Immediately. C) Conflict. D) Traffic. E) Descend. F) Climb.

15. The TCAS aural warning 'traffic, traffic' is an example of a: A) Traffic advisory. B) Resolution advisory. C) Radar controller advisory. D) FISO warning.

16. Which of the following are example(s) of TCAS resolution advisory aural alerts:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Climb, climb. B) Descent, descend now. C) Traffic, traffic. D) Proximate traffic. E) Radar service terminated.

17. In a non-radar environment, a position report contains which of the following items of information: A) Aircraft identification. B) Position. C) Time. D) Flight level or altitude including passing level and cleared level if not maintaining the cleared level. E) Next position and time over. F) Ensuing significant point. G) QNH H) Radar vectors. I) Frequency.

18. An aircraft departing on an IFR flight without an ATC controlled airspace clearance must request a clearance to join controlled airspace when __________. A) airborne B) taxiing C) entering controlled airspace

19. If, during a VFR flight, you want to cross an airway: A) Transmit 'Request clearance to cross [name of airway] at [position of crossing]. B) Advise the appropriate ATSU at some point before entering the airway crossing point. C) You must switch to IFR flight because you cannot cross an airway under VFR. D) Transmit: 'Request airways crossing service for [name of airway]'.

20. When flying IFR, you wish to cancel the IFR flight plan and continue VFR. If the controller considers the flight cannot be completed in VFR: A) You will be advised of the relevant information. B) You will be instructed to continue IFR. C) Your flight plan will be cancelled. D) You will be told to remain VMC.

21. Which of the following require readback: Mark all correct answers. A) Radar control service. B) Radar vectors. C) Level instructions. D) Airways crossing clearance. E) Cancelling an IFR flight. F) Change to en-route reported visibility.

22. At a busy IFR aerodrome, your departure clearance is usually passed to you by a ground station with the suffix __________. A) Delivery B) Ground C) Departure D) Tower

23. At a busy IFR aerodrome, your departure clearance is usually passed to you by a ground station. After take-off, you’ll be instructed to change to a ground station whose suffix is __________. A) Departure B) Clearance C) Control D) Area

24. If the departure controller is sure that no traffic or terrain conflicts exist s/he may shorten the departure routing by giving what instruction? A) Direct to. B) Directly. C) As requested. D) Straight.

25. __________ VFR departures are given specific instructions as part of their clearance to depart the zone. A) Special B) Cleared C) All

26. Arriving IFR traffic, descending within controlled airspace normally receive, from the en-route ATC controller, a descent clearance to __________. A) a clearance limit B) a flight level C) an altitude

27. Arriving IFR traffic, descending within controlled airspace normally receive, from the en-route ATC controller. They are then handed over to a ground station with the suffix __________. A) Approach B) Deliveries C) Radar D) Talkdown

28. If you are required to hold before making your approach you should be given an expected approach time (EAT). The EAT is the time at which you__________. A) should start your approach in the event of lost comms. B) must be cleared by ATC before you make the approach.

29. If there is no published holding pattern, or the controller wants you to fly a hold different from the published one, the instruction to hold will include the following information:Mark all correct answers. A) Holding fix (e.g. a VOR, NDB or other waypoint). B) Level. C) Inbound track towards the holding fix. D) Right or left turns. E) Time of leg, or distance of leg if holding at a VOR/DME. F) Time to be spent in the hold. G) Number of holding patterns to be flown.

30. If you are making a VFR arrival to an airport with a control zone, you must contact the approach control and request clearance and joining instructions __________ entering the zone. A) before B) as you are C) as soon as possible after

31. Even if there is no control zone or approach control, you must always make RT contact with the aerodrome's ATSU before entering the __________. A) ATZ B) CTZ

32. When making a call to request a VDF service, end your call with your __________. A) callsign. B) altitude. C) position. D) speed.

33. Following a request for a VDF service, the response from the VDF station is in the following form:Mark all correct answers. A) The appropriate phrase or Q code. B) Bearing or heading in degrees in relation to the station, sent as 3 figures. C) Class of bearing. D) Time of observation, if necessary.

34. After requesting a QDM, which items are required in the readback.Mark all correct answers. A) The type of DF. B) The bearing. C) The class of DF.

35. Glidepath guidance is given on __________. A) The PAR. B) The SRA. C) The SRA and the PAR.

36. Which of the following may be included in an aerodrome weather report:Mark all correct answers. A) The time at which the message was recorded. B) Identifying letter, (e.g. ‘Information Alpha’) which changes with each new set of information broadcast. C) Runway(s) in use. D) Wind direction and speed in degrees and knots. E) Visibility. F) Cloud height in feet and the amount of coverage in eighths. G) Temperature and dew point in °C. H) QNH in hectopascals. I) Trend information, such as increasing or reducing visibility. J) Any other significant information such as windshear reports, work in progress or bird warnings.

37. Visibility is 10 km or greater with no cloud of operational significance'.This is a description of: A) CAVOK B) FEW cloud covering. C) BROKEN cloud covering. D) VOLMET

38. For aircraft in flight, voice weather information can be obtained from:Mark 2 correct answers. A) VOLMET. B) ATIS. C) CAVOK units. D) TCAS weather mode.

39. Routine air-reports should be made by crews as soon as practicable after passing a compulsory reporting point. Where a route isn’t defined by such points, a routine air-report should be made every __________. A) 60 minutes B) 2 hours C) 30 minutes D) 15 minutes

40. Special air-reports must be made when encountering any of the following:Mark all correct answers. A) Moderate or severe turbulence. B) Moderate or severe icing. C) Severe mountain wave. D) Thunderstorms that are obscured, embedded, widespread or in squall lines. E) Heavy dust storm or sandstorm. F) Volcanic ash cloud. G) Pre-eruption volcanic activity or a volcanic eruption. H) Cumulonimbus clouds. I) Mild icing. J) Rain.

41. The ATIS code letter for the D-ATIS at reference is: A) Q B) R C) L D) A

42. The QNH given in the D-ATIS at reference is:

43. The available runways given in the D-ATIS at reference is/are:Mark 2 correct answers. A) 27L B) 27R

44. If you are unable to establish voice communications: A) Attempt to make contact with the ground station on a different frequency. B) Attempt to contact other aircraft or other ATSUs. C) Transmit the message twice on the designated frequency or frequencies, preceded by the phrase ‘transmitting blind’. D) Attempt to make contact on 121.5 MHz. E) Attempt to make contact on 101.5 MHz. F) Attempt to make contact on 125.1 MHz.

45. If you suspect radio failure on your aircraft, squawk:

46. If you experience communications failure in the visual circuit, __________ the circuit to land, observing and obeying __________ signals from ATC. A) continue ; light. B) continue ; sound. C) stop ; light. D) stop ; sound.

47. If you experience comms failure in VMC: A) Continue your flight in VMC. B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. C) Report your arrival to the appropriate ATSU as soon as possible after landing. D) Report your comms failure to the appropriate ATSU as soon as possible after landing. E) Land as planned at your destination aerodrome.

48. If you experience comms failure under IFR but in VMC: A) Continue to fly in visual meteorological conditions. B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. C) Report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate air traffic control unit. D) Land as planned at your destination aerodrome at the EAT. E) Report your comms failure to the appropriate ATSU as soon as possible after landing using a datalink.

49. If you experience comms failure under IFR in IMC, maintain the assigned level and speed, then: A) In procedural separation airspace, maintain the last assigned speed and level for 20 minutes. Thereafter adjust your level and speed in accordance with your filed flight plan. B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. C) Change course to obtain VMC conditions as soon as possible. D) In airspace where a surveillance system is used, maintain the last assigned speed and level for 15 minutes following the time the transponder was set to squawk 7600.

50. If you experience comms failure whilst being radar vectored: A) Proceed in the most direct manner to re-join the current flight plan route no later than the next significant point. B) Proceed direct to the designated navigation aid or fix serving the destination aerodrome. C) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. D) Maintain the last assigned speed and level for 7 minutes.

51. If you experience comms failure in IFR airspace: A) Proceed according to the flight plan route to the appropriate designated navigation aid or fix serving the destination aerodrome. B) Hold over the fix. Begin decent at the last EAT given or if no EAT, at your ETA. C) Fly the instrument approach procedure. D) Land within 30 mins of EAT/ETA. E) Land within 60 mins of EAT/ETA. F) Land within 90 mins of EAT.

52. If you lose comms during the approach: A) Follow local lost comms procedures if these are published. B) Climb back to the initial approach fix. C) Descend and join the visual circuit. D) Squawk 7500.

53. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance is a description of: A) distress B) urgency C) emergency D) disaster

54. A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance is a description of: A) urgency B) distress C) emergency D) disaster

55. Declare your emergency (Distress or Urgency) on the current frequency. If there is no response use __________ MHz.

56. Which of the following are valid actions for a station receiving a distress message? A) The ATSU renders all possible assistance. B) Other aircraft remain quiet unless they need to relay the message or lend assistance when the ATSU hasn’t responded. C) ATSU may impose silence. D) The ATSU or distress aircraft may declare an end to the distress condition. E) Silence is imposed by the first aircraft to hear the call. F) Any aircraft may declare an end to the distress condition.

57. Urgency messages take priority over all other messages except Distress messages. A) True B) False

58. Urgency messages take priority over Distress messages. A) False B) True

59. The format and sequence of an Urgency message, and the ensuing procedures, are not the same as for a Distress message and Distress procedures. A) False B) True

60. Distress messages take priority over Urgency messages. A) True B) False

61. Distress messages take priority over all other messages except Urgency messages. A) False B) True

62. The format and sequence of an Urgency message, and the ensuing procedures, are the same as for a Distress message and Distress procedures. A) True B) False

63. What does the term "air-ground communication" mean? A) Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth B) One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth C) One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth D) Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)

64. What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean? A) Automatic terminal information service. B) Airport terminal information service. C) Automatic terminal information system. D) Air traffic information service.

65. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ? A) one one eight decimal one B) one eighteen one C) one one eight one D) one one eight point one

66. The time is now 1123. Radar Control requests your estimate for next reporting point, which is AAL VOR/DME. You look at your operational flight plan and estimate 12 minutes (36 NM) to go to the reporting point. Your transmission is: A) estimate AAL at three-five. B) estimate AAL at eleven-thirty-five. C) have one-two minutes to go to AAL. D) estimate AAL VOR/DME in one-two minutes.

67. Before transmitting the pilot should...: A) Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur. B) Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off. C) Always write the message and read it during the transmission. D) Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.

68. What does the phrase "Verify" mean: A) Check and confirm with originator B) Repeat your last transmission C) Read back VDF bearing D) Consider that transmission as not sent

69. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals: A) ...ARRIVAL B) ...APPROACH C) ...RADAR D) ...DIRECTOR

70. When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word "Heavy" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy: A) In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit B) Never C) In all calls D) In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit

71. Must a "general call" be acknowledged"? A) No. B) Yes, but only from the station first called. C) Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been addressed. D) Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.

72. When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with: A) "All stations" B) "General broadcast" C) "Message to all aircraft on this frequency" D) "Please listen"

73. What shall the pilot's read back be for "Climb to FL 280": A) Climbing to flight level two eight zero B) Climbing to flight level two eighty C) Climbing two eight zero D) Climbing to two eighty

74. Blind transmission shall be made: A) On the designated frequency (frequency in use) B) To all available aeronautical stations C) On regional guard frequencies only D) During IFR flights only

75. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to: A) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome B) Return to the aerodrome of departure C) Land at the alternate aerodrome D) Land at the destination aerodrome

76. What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ? A) The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation B) The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land C) The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport D) The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony

77. A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means: A) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required B) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehicle C) The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight D) The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure

78. The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details: A) Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading B) Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight C) Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required D) Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading

79. If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean: A) Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC B) Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature C) Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing D) Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR

80. What is the maximum distance at which you may expect strong VHF reception over flat terrain at FL 140 ? A) About 140 NM B) About 300 NM C) About 240 NM D) About 40 NM

81. Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"? A) CTR. B) CZ. C) CTZ. D) CTA.

82. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? A) Sunrise to sunset. B) Sunset to sunrise. C) No specific working hours. D) Continuous day and night service.

83. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: A) Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message. B) Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message. C) Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message. D) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.

84. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...": A) Report B) Request C) Say again D) Check

85. Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly: A) Correct B) That is right C) Affirm D) That is affirmative

86. RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean: A) Radar identification has been achieved B) X-BC is not visible on the radar screen C) X-BC should perform an identification turn D) X-BC should operate the IDENT-button

87. Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET: A) Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports B) SPECI and TAF C) SIGMET D) Runway reports

88. The abbreviation SELCAL stands for: __________. This is a system allowing an ATSU to get the attention of a crew who may not be continuously monitoring comms on frequency. A) selective calling B) special calling C) seldom calling D) single calling

89. SELCAL is used during the __________ phase. A) en-route B) approach C) departure D) arrival

90. The first step in the CPDLC process is the: A) Logon. B) Boot. C) Start. D) Handshake.

91. What is the status of the CPDLC when the app confirms a successful connection with the ATS unit. A) Accepted. B) Logon. C) Uplink. D) Wilco.

92. Which of the following is the correct RT response to a SELCAL chime? A) State your call sign and "Go ahead". B) State your call sign. C) Radio silence, pending ATSU message. D) State your call sign and flight level.

93. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:

94. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals:

95. What does the phrase "Verify" mean:

96. When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word "Heavy" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy:

97. RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean:

98. Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET:

99. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to:

100. The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details:

101. A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means:

102. If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean:

103. What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?

104. An aeroplane is approaching the aerodrome and the Tower expects a (1) _____ approach whose station transmits on the (2) _____ frequency band with a wavelength between 100 m and 1 km.

105. Complete the following sentence: London control instructs you to contact Solent radar on 120.225. Solent tells you to expect an ILS approach into runway 20 at Southampton. Solent radar transmits on the (1) __ frequency band and the ILS transmits on the (2) ___ frequency band.

106. The following are VHF radio communication frequencies that are used in aviation:

107. Because of overcast cloud, you are unable to climb above an altitude of 1000 feet over the sea, but you need to pass an urgent message to an aeronautical station by VHF. Assuming fuel is not a problem, there is no wind, and the signal has no attenuation factors, towards which of these stations should you fly to pass your message as soon as possible? A station:

108. Which is the High Frequency (HF) radio frequency band?

109. The radio frequency spectrum is divided into various bands. What is the range of frequencies that corresponds to the Very High Frequency (VHF) band?

110. What is correct regarding aircraft communications? They are:

111. What type of signal is used for aeronautical radio communication?

112. An aircraft is flying at a cruise altitude of 9000 ft and at a distance of about 100 nm from its destination the pilot wants to listen to the ATIS. The message is very distorted and only parts of it can be received. What should the pilot do in order to have better reception?

113. Propagation of the radio waves is influenced by different factors in the atmosphere. What will increase attenuation of radio waves?

114. Which factor reduces the effective range of ground-to-air VHF transmissions?

115. A pilot of an aircraft has difficulties hearing a VHF radio transmission due to its distance from the transmitter. What action is most likely to help the pilot to improve the reception?

116. Extended ranges can sometimes be experienced by VHF communications as a result of:

117. Which one of the following factors affects VHF radio waves propagation the most?

118. There are two aircraft overflying the same area, one is at 5000 ft and the other one is at 15 000 ft. Both are 80 NM from the station. Which aircraft experiences the best reception of VHF transmission?

119. Which statement is true with regard to the frequency band used for aviation communication? Choose the best statement:

120. To which frequency band belongs frequency 118.1 MHz?

121. Aircraft in flight may receive weather information from several sources. Which of the following is correct?

122. Which of the following is correct concerning a METAR?