FPL 01

[FPL-PT01 #1] According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000 ft, is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA? A) 8800 ft. B) 8500 ft. C) 12800 ft. D) 8200 ft.

[FPL-PT01 #2] VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. B) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft. C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle. D) the highest obstacle.

[FPL-PT01 #3] You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ? A) 262° B) 280° C) 224° D) 242°

[FPL-PT01 #4] A descent is planned from 7500 ft AMSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft AMSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is: A) 27.1 NM B) 11.7 NM C) 15.0 NM D) 30.2 NM

[FPL-PT01 #5] Flight planning chart for an aeroplane, states that the time to reach FL 190 at a given gross mass is 22 minutes and the distance travelled is 66 NM (no wind). What will be the distance travelled with a average head wind component of 35 kt? A) 79 NM B) 61 NM C) 53 NM D) 85 NM

[FPL-PT01 #6] Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with: A) true course B) magnetic headings C) true headings D) magnetic course

[FPL-PT01 #7] An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: A) the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL B) the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft C) the airway base is 3500 ft MSL D) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft

[FPL-PT01 #8] An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: A) the airway base is 1500 ft MSL. B) the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80. C) the minimum en route altitude (MEA) is FL 80. D) 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).

[FPL-PT01 #9] An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the: A) base of the airway (AGL) B) minimum en route altitude (MEA) C) maximum authorised altitude (MAA) D) minimum holding altitude (MHA)

[FPL-PT01 #10] Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi- circular height rules on a course of 180° (M) is: A) FL90 B) FL95 C) FL105 D) FL100

[FPL-PT01 #11] Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi- circular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is: A) FL290 B) FL310 C) FL300 D) FL320

[FPL-PT01 #12] A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following data: flight level: FL 330, flight regime: "Long Range" (LR), mass: 156 500 kg . tailwind component at this level: 40 kt With a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at cruising speed is: A) 471 NM B) 539 NM C) 518 NM D) 493 NM

[FPL-PT01 #13] You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly at is:

[FPL-PT01 #14] An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235° magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the temperature is ISA, the minimum flight level you must fly is:

[FPL-PT01 #15] Given: FL 370; M=0.74: OAT=-47°C The TAS is: A) 428 kt. B) 434 kt. C) 415 kt. D) 424 kt.

[FPL-PT01 #16] Use Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3 Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 13°C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft RPM: 2300 A) 158 kt and 74.4 lbs/hr B) 160 kt and 69.3 lbs/hr C) 159 kt and 71.7 lbs/hr D) 160 kt and 71.1 lbs/hr

[FPL-PT01 #17] The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? A) 13 230 kg B) 13 000 kg C) 11 730 kg D) 14 730 kg

[FPL-PT01 #18] For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given: Taxi fuel 600 kg Fuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/h Fuel flow for holding 8000 kg/h Alternate fuel 10 200 kg Planned flight time to destination 6 h Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m The minimum ramp fuel required is: A) 77 800 kg B) 76 100 kg C) 79 200 kg D) 80 500 kg

[FPL-PT01 #19] During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip. A) 33.0 US gallons/hour B) 37.9 US gallons/hour C) 21.3 US gallons/hour D) 30.3 US gallons/hour

[FPL-PT01 #20] When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account: 1 - the wind 2 - foreseeable airborne delays 3 - other weather forecasts 4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing The combination which provides the correct statement is: A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3

[FPL-PT01 #21] Use Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1 Given: Brake release mass: 58 000 kg Temperature: ISA + 15 The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is: A) 1450 kg B) 1400 kg C) 1250 kg D) 1350 kg

[FPL-PT01 #22] From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB? A) AIP B) NOTAM C) ATCC broadcasts D) SIGMET

[FPL-PT01 #23] Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h A) 1463 NM B) 1143 NM C) 1125 NM D) 1491 NM

[FPL-PT01 #24] Given: Distance from departure to destination 435 NM GS Out 110 kt GS Home 130 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? A) 236 NM B) 368 NM C) 199 NM D) 218 NM

[FPL-PT01 #25] A "current flight plan" is a: A) filed flight plan. B) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC. C) flight plan with the correct time of departure. D) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.

[FPL-PT01 #26] Given a TAS of 200 kt and a GS of 160 kt, what is the nautical air mile equivalent of 240 NGM? A) 200 NAM B) 300 NAM C) 450 NAM D) 100 NAM

[FPL-PT01 #27] Given a TAS of 525 kt and a GS of 400 kt, what is the nautical ground mile equivalent of 350 NAM? A) 200 NGM B) 300 NGM C) 267 NGM D) 450 NGM

[FPL-PT01 #28] Given a TAS of 150 kt, a nautical ground mile distance of 800 NGM and a nautical air mile distance of 600 NAM, what is the equivalent GS? A) 300 kt B) 200 kt C) 400 kt D) 150 kt

[FPL-PT01 #29] Given a GS of 120 kt, a nautical ground mile distance of 400 NGM and a nautical air mile distance of 420 NAM, what is the equivalent TAS? A) 141 kt B) 162 kt C) 126 kt D) 105 kt

[FPL-PT01 #30] An aircraft overflies OSMAN at 11.15 UTC and flies a direct track of 80 nm to PEDLO, passing overhead at 11.35 UTC. The TWC is 40 kt. What is the approximate distance covered, measured in nautical air miles? A) 96 nam B) 141 nam C) 201 nam D) 67 nam

[FPL-PT01 #31] "The mass of an aeroplane plus standard items such as: unusable fuel and other unusable fluids; lubricating oil in engine and auxiliary units; fire extinguishers; pyrotechnics; emergency oxygen equipment; supplementary electronic equipment."This definition best describes which of the following? A) ZFM B) DOM C) BEM D) MBE

[FPL-PT01 #32] "The maximum permissible aircraft mass on landing, subject to meeting aircraft performance requirements at the destination airfield at the time of flight. Often determined by Landing Distance Available and go-around climb performance requirements."This definition best describes which of the following? A) MSLM B) PLLM C) ALM D) RLM

[FPL-PT01 #33] "The maximum permissible structural mass at the start of the take-off run."This definition best describes which of the following? A) PLTOM B) RTOM C) ATOM D) MSTOM

[FPL-PT01 #34] What is the approximate mass of 2600 ltr of JET-A1, having a specific gravity of 0.81? A) 21 000 lb B) 4650 kg C) 575 Imp Gal D) 4650 lb

[FPL-PT01 #35] What is the volume of 460 US Gal of AVGAS, having a specific gravity of 0.72? A) 17 300 ltr B) 2760 lb C) 384 Imp Gal D) 1250 kg

[FPL-PT01 #36] Given the following, calculate the ATOM of PadAir flight 666 from London Heathrow to Edinburgh.MZFM 51 300 kg, MSTOM 62 800 kg, MSLM 54 900kg, PLTOM 59 750 kg, PLLM 58 900 kg, Block fuel 8000 kg, Taxi fuel 260 kg, Trip fuel 2300 kg. A) 57 200 kg B) 59 750 kg C) 59 040 kg D) 62 800 kg

[FPL-PT01 #37] Given the following data, calculate the maximum take-off fuel for the aircraft.MSTOM 59 800 kg, RLM 54 200 kg, DOM 38 000 kg, MZFM 50 800 kg, PLTOM 54 600 kg, Trip fuel 3000 kg, Take-off fuel 6000 kg, Traffic Load 9500 kg. A) 9000 kg B) 8200 kg C) 6000 kg D) 7100 kg

[FPL-PT01 #38] Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that, even in case of diversion, the remaining fuel is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made, with final reserve fuel remaining. A) Commander B) Fuel Bowser Operator C) Handling Operator D) Fuel Loading Agent

[FPL-PT01 #39] What is the minimum percentage of planned fuel that can be loaded as contingency fuel under the Basic Fuel/Energy Scheme?

[FPL-PT01 #40] What is best described by the following definition?"In the context of the fuel/energy policy or fuel/energy schemes, a landing at an adequate aerodrome or operating site with no less than the final reserve fuel/energy remaining and in compliance with the applicable operational procedures and aerodrome operating minima." A) Safe landing. B) Diversion. C) Arrival D) Adequate landing.

[FPL-PT01 #41] Considering final reserve fuel, what is the minimum that must be on board the aircraft at landing, in accordance with the Basic Fuel/Energy Scheme? A) 20 mins holding at 1500 ft AAL for a piston aircraft B) 30 mins holding at 1500 ft AAL for a turbine aircraft C) 45 mins holding at 1500 ft AAL for a turbine aircraft

[FPL-PT01 #42] Considering final reserve fuel, what is the minimum that must be on board the aircraft at landing, in accordance with the Basic Fuel/Energy Scheme? A) 45 mins holding at 1500 ft AAL for a turbine aircraft B) 45 mins holding at 1500 ft AAL for a piston aircraft C) 45 mins holding at 1000 ft AAL for a turbine aircraft D) 30 mins holding at 1500 ft AAL for a piston aircraft

[FPL-PT01 #43] Given the following information, in accordance with the Basic Fuel/Energy Scheme, what trip fuel is required?Taxi fuel 280 kg, APU burn 120 kg, Take-off fuel 750 kg. Climb to cruise altitude 1500 kg, Cruise 2 hr 30 min at a fuel flow of 2800 kg/hr, descent and landing 300 kg, Contingency fuel not stated, Alternate fuel 2200 kg and Final reserve 1200 kg. A) 9850 kg B) 9970 kg C) 13150 kg D) 9550 kg

[FPL-PT01 #44] Under the Basic Fuel Scheme with Variations, a piston engine AC is en-route to an isolated destination. On top of taxi, trip and contingency fuel, what fuel is required? A) 45 mins + 15% of trip or 2 hours B) 30 mins holding at 450 m above the alternate C) 2 hours at normal holding consumption D) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption

[FPL-PT01 #45] An aircraft with reciprocating engines plans to fly to an aerodrome, with a trip range in cruise flight of 275 nm at an average GS of 165 kt. Fuel flow is 480 kg/hr. The total alternate and final reserve fuel required to fly to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is 580 kg. What category of aerodrome is the destination? A) Isolated aerodrome B) Adequate aerodrome C) Remote aerodrome D) Destination alternate

[FPL-PT01 #46] What is the formula for calculating the Point of Equal Time? A) PET = (D x H) ÷ (O + H) B) PET = (O x H) x (D ÷ H) C) PET = (D + H) ÷ (O + H) D) PET = (O ÷ H) ÷ (O + H)

[FPL-PT01 #47] What is the formula for calculating the Point of Safe Return? A) PSR = (D x H) ÷ (O + H) B) PSR = (E x O) ÷ (O + H) C) PSR = (E x H) ÷ (O + H) D) PSR = (E + H) ÷ (O x H)

[FPL-PT01 #48] What are the 3 main sections of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)? A) NOTAM, AIS, ENR B) GEN, ENR, AD C) AIP, ENR, AD D) ENG, AD, ENR

[FPL-PT01 #49] What is the meaning of the following NOTAM?Q) EGTT/QSFAU/IV/B/A/000/999/5215N00253W005B) FROM: 19/01/31 09:00 C) TO: 19/01/31 16:30E) AFIS NOT AVBL DUE SHORTAGE OF STAFF DUE WX A) Airport Fire Service is not available between 09.00 and 16.30 local time on 19th January due to staff shortage due to weather. B) Aerodrome Flight Information Service is not available between 09.00 and 16.30 local time on 31st January 2019 due to staff shortage due to weather. C) Airport Flight Information Service is not available between 09.00 and 16.30 UTC on 31st January 2019 due to staff shortage due to weather. D) Aerodrome Flight Information Service is not available between 09.00 and 16.30 UTC on 31st January 2019 due to staff shortage due to weather.

[FPL-PT01 #50] Which type of report is described by the following description:"The XXXXX, also known as the surface actual (SA), reports the actual weather existing at the aerodrome at the time of the report." A) NOTAM B) METAR C) SIGWX D) TAF

[FPL-PT01 #51] What are the principal means of improving and maintaining the integrity of the GPS navigation signals. A) PRN, ALMANAC and EPHEMERIS B) INTEG and WARN C) ILS, MLS and GLS D) GBAS, SBAS and RAIM

[FPL-PT01 #52] What is meant by the acronym UNUSUFN in a non-scheduled GPS satellite outage? A) Unusable until further notice. B) Unreadable until further notice. C) Unserviceable until further notification. D) Unserviceable in flight.

[FPL-PT01 #53] What are the 3 main classifications of space weather warnings? A) R (Radio interruptions), G (Geomagnetic static), S (Solar radiation static). B) R (Radio blackouts), G (Geomagnetic blackouts), S (Solar radiation blackouts). C) R (Radio blackouts), G (Geomagnetic storms), S (Solar radiation storms). D) R (Regional blackouts), G (Global blackouts), S (Specific blackouts).

[FPL-PT01 #54] Pre-flight Predictive RAIM - AUGUR - allows users to predict operations in which areas of operation? A) Terminal Areas (RNAV/RNP 1) and Final Approach (LNAV and LNAV/VNAV) B) Terminal Areas and Radar Vectoring Areas C) Terminal Areas (RNAV/RNP 1) and Final Approach (LNAV only) D) Terminal Areas (RNAV/RNP 0.3) and Final Approach (LPV)

[FPL-PT01 #55] What information is broadcast on ATIS? A) Runways and approaches available at aerodrome, actual weather, arriving and departing traffic B) Runway in use, approach type, forecast weather C) Runway in use, approach type, actual weather D) Runway in use, approach type and DH/MDH, actual weather

[FPL-PT01 #56] What type of service provides aerodrome information in data rather than aural form. A) ATIS B) ACARS C) D-ATIS D) VOLMET

[FPL-PT01 #57] What type of GPS message can be separated into Scheduled Outages and Non- Scheduled Outages? A) ASHTAM B) NANU C) NOTAM D) RAIM

[FPL-PT01 #58] For which of the following is the filing of a flight plan NOT compulsory? A) Any flight in Class F airspace wishing to participate in an Air Traffic Advisory Service. B) Flights to or from the UK, crossing a UK FIR boundary. C) All flights in classes A, B, C or D airspace. D) Any flight, longer than 50 km, from a UK aerodrome with aircraft Maximum Total Weight Authorised (MTWA) greater than 7500 kg.

[FPL-PT01 #59] When would you expect to use an 'abbreviated flight plan'? A) On clearance for taxi. B) In flight. C) The day before flight, to give advance notification of intention. D) On clearance for take-off.

[FPL-PT01 #60] What does the acronym ATFM, commonly used in modern commercial aviation, stand for? A) Air Traffic Flow Management. B) Air Traffic Flow Movements. C) Air Traffic Flight Plan Management. D) Aviation Traffic Fuel Management.

[FPL-PT01 #61] What type of flight plan is used by operators who fly regular and/or scheduled flights using the same aircraft type and routing? A) Repeat flight plan B) Repetitive flight plan C) Authoritive flight plan D) Randomised flight plan

[FPL-PT01 #62] Complete the sentence:All flight plans should be filed at least __________ minutes before the EOBT. EOBT = Estimated Off Blocks Time.

[FPL-PT01 #63] Complete the sentence:For North Atlantic flights and those subject to Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM) measures, the flight plan must be filed not less than __________ hours before EOBT.EOBT = Estimated Off Blocks Time.

[FPL-PT01 #64] Complete the sentence:A single repetitive flight plan (RPL) may be filed for IFR flights, operated regularly on the same day of consecutive weeks, on at least __________ occasions, or for flights operated every day, on at least __________ consecutive days. A) 15; 10 B) 10; 15 C) 10; 10 D) 10; 5

[FPL-PT01 #65] What does an entry of G mean in ITEM 10 EQUIPMENT of the ICAO Flight Plan form? A) A GPS receiver that can be augmented by Galileo is fitted. B) The aircraft is suitably equipped for any published GNSS procedure. C) A GNSS receiver that complies with the requirements of ICAO Annex 10 is fitted. D) A GPS receiver that complies with the requirements of ICAO Annex 10 is fitted.

[FPL-PT01 #66] In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route: A) The words “as cleared” should be entered. B) The letters DCT should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route. C) It is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit. D) It is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route.

[FPL-PT01 #67] In the ATS flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by: A) Placing a tick in the relevant box. B) Listing the items carried on the “REMARKS” line. C) Crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried D) Circling the relevant box.

[FPL-PT01 #68] In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier must always: A) Include the aircraft registration marking. B) Be the RTF callsign to be used. C) Include an indication of the aircraft type. D) Include the operating agency designator.

[FPL-PT01 #69] Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes 'NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT'In this case 'NUMBER' means: A) The number of aircraft flying in a group. B) The ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643. C) The number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL). D) The registration number of the aircraft.

[FPL-PT01 #70] When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered: A) The most descriptive abbreviation. B) “XXXX” followed by an entry in Item 18. C) “NONE” D) “ZZZZ” followed by an entry in Item 18.

[FPL-PT01 #71] In the event that SELCAL is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered? A) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION B) ROUTE C) EQUIPMENT D) OTHER INFORMATION

[FPL-PT01 #72] When completing an ATS flight plan before departure, the time information which should be entered in item 13 'Time' is: A) Estimated off-block time. B) Planned take-off time. C) Planned engine start time. D) The time of flight plan filing.

[FPL-PT01 #73] Refer to the Jeppesen GSPRM, VFR+GPS Chart ED-4.What is the projection type and scale of the chart? A) Lambert's Conformal Conical Projection - 1:500 000 B) Lambert's Conformal Cylindrical Projection - 1:500 000 C) Lambert's Conformal Conical Projection - 1:5 000 000 D) Mercator's Conformal Conical Projection - 1:500 000

[FPL-PT01 #74] Refer to the Jeppesen GSPRM, VFR+GPS Chart ED-4.What feature can be found at N47°10’ E011°40’? A) Danger Area, LO D-21. B) Obstacle 2014' amsl. C) PAT DME 112.00 MHz. D) Lit obstacle 2129' amsl.

[FPL-PT01 #75] Refer to the Jeppesen GSPRM, VFR+GPS Chart ED-4.What is the minimum grid area altitude in the chart grid box bounded by the coordinates N48°30’ E012°00’? A) 3300' amsl B) 3200' amsl C) 3800' amsl D) 3700' amsl

[FPL-PT01 #76] Which of the following is the correct VFR cruising altitude, on a heading of 176°T in nil wind, in a region where magnetic variation is 6°W? A) FL 180 B) FL 210 C) FL 125 D) FL 175

[FPL-PT01 #77] Which of the following is the correct VFR cruising altitude when crossing a mountain range (elevation = 7749' amsl) on a true track of 187° (magnetic variation = 14°E). QNH = 1013 hPa? A) FL 100 B) FL 115 C) FL 110 D) FL 95

[FPL-PT01 #78] An aircraft takes off from an aerodrome at an elevation of 1000 ft amsl and climbs to 7000 ft amsl at a rate of climb of 500 fpm, and an average TAS of 100 kt, with a tailwind of 20 kt. What is the approximate distance covered to the top of climb? A) 24 km B) 44 nm C) 44 km D) 39 nm

[FPL-PT01 #79] Refer to Jeppesen GSPRM VFR+GPS Chart ED-4What frequency is used for VDF at Stuttgart airport (EDDS) (N48°41.4’ E009°13.3’)? A) 134.50 MHz B) 122.80 MHz C) 118.80 MHz D) 129.60 MHz

[FPL-PT01 #80] Refer to CAP 697 Figure 2.1.Given OAT = ISA and a departure airport at sea level, an aircraft with a take-off mass of 3650 lb climbs to FL120 for its cruise. Calculate the time, the fuel and distance in the climb? A) 19 min, 6.4 USG, 38 nm B) 9 min, 3.5 USG, 19 nm C) 12 min, 4.2 USG, 24 nm D) 23 min, 7.4 USG, 47 nm

[FPL-PT01 #81] Refer to CAP 697 Figure 2.2.Given a power setting of 23 in.Hg. and 2300 RPM, ISA +20°C, find the manifold air pressure, fuel flow, indicated speed and true air speed for the optimum cruise at a pressure altitude of 12 000 ft. A) 19.2 in.Hg, 10.6 GPH, 135 KIAS and 153 KTAS B) 19.2 in.Hg, 10.3 GPH, 129 KIAS and 152 KTAS C) 19.1 in.Hg, 10.9 GPH, 132 KIAS and 161 KTAS D) 19.2 in.Hg, 10 GPH, 123 KIAS and 151 KTAS

[FPL-PT01 #82] Refer to CAP 697 Figure 2.3.Given a power setting of 21 in.Hg. and 2100 RPM, OAT = -3°C in ISA conditions, find the manifold air pressure, fuel flow, indicated speed and true air speed for the economy cruise at full throttle and pressure altitude of 10 000 ft. A) 20.8 in.Hg, 9.6 GPH, 126 KIAS and 143 KTAS B) 20.8 in.Hg, 10.0 GPH, 132 KIAS and 144 KTAS C) 20.8 in.Hg, 9.5 GPH, 119 KIAS and 141 KTAS D) 21.0 in.Hg, 9.6 GPH, 126 KIAS and 140 KTAS

[FPL-PT01 #83] Refer to CAP 697 Figure 2.4.Find the maximum range of an aircraft, given a cruise pressure altitude of 8000 ft, a full throttle power setting of 2300 RPM, and nil wind? A) 845 nm B) 894 nm C) 800 nm D) 912 nm

[FPL-PT01 #84] Refer to CAP 697 Figure 2.5.Given a cruising pressure altitude of 9000 ft and a FULL THROTTLE power setting at 2300 RPM, what are the safe and ATC endurances in hours and minutes? A) 4 hr 55 min & 5 hr 40 min B) 5 hr 30 min & 6 hr 00 min C) 6 hr 15 min & 5 hr 30 min D) 5 hr 30 min & 6 hr 15 min

[FPL-PT01 #85] Given the following information, what is the highest Minimum Grid Area Altitude between Schwäbish Hall (EDTY) N49°08' E009°47' and Karlsruhe/Baden-Baden ((EDSB) N48°46' E008°06?' Visibility: 20 kmCloud: OVC 7000Temperature: ISAQNH: 1033 hPaW/V: 100°(T)/30 ktCAS: 145 kt A) 5500 ft B) 4200 ft C) 4100 ft D) 3500 ft

[FPL-PT01 #86] Given the following information, what is the height of the highest obstacle within 5 nm of track between Schwäbish Hall (EDTY) N49°08' E009°47' and Karlsruhe/Baden-Baden ((EDSB) N48°46' E008°06?' Visibility: 20 kmCloud: OVC 7000Temperature: ISAQNH: 1033 hPaW/V: 100°(T)/30 ktCAS: 145 kt. A) 2359 ft B) 5500 ft C) 2803 ft D) 1895 ft

[FPL-PT01 #87] Given the following information, what is the TAS in the cruise at the highest VFR cruising altitude between Schwäbish Hall (EDTY) N49°08' E009°47' and Karlsruhe/Baden-Baden ((EDSB) N48°46' E008°06?' Visibility: 20 kmCloud: OVC 7000Temperature: ISAQNH: 1033 hPaW/V: 100°(T)/30 ktCAS: 145 kt. A) 156 kt B) 127 kt C) 160 kt D) 162 kt

[FPL-PT01 #88] Given the following information, when flying between Schwäbish Hall (EDTY) N49°08' E009°47' and Karlsruhe/Baden-Baden (EDSB) N48°46' E008°06', what is the flight time between the line features formed by the A81 and A8 autobahns (motorways)? Visibility: 20 kmCloud: OVC 7000Temperature: ISAQNH: 1033 hPaW/V: 100°(T)/30 ktCAS: 145 kt. A) 19 min B) 9 min C) 38 min D) 7.5 min

[FPL-PT01 #89] Given the following information, when flying between Schwäbish Hall (EDTY) N49°08' E009°47' and Karlsruhe/Baden-Baden ((EDSB) N48°46' E008°06', what station and frequency should you contact for a flight information service on leaving Schwäbish Hall Information? Visibility: 20 kmCloud: OVC 7000Temperature: ISAQNH: 1033 hPaW/V: 100°(T)/30 ktCAS: 145 kt. A) Völkleshofen Lichtenberg 130.12 MHz B) Langen Information 128.95 MHz C) Stuttgart Tower 119.05 MHz D) Schwäbish Hall 108.05 MHz

[FPL-PT01 #90] Given the following information, when flying between Schwäbish Hall (EDTY) N49°08' E009°47' and Karlsruhe/Baden-Baden ((EDSB) N48°46' E008°06', what radio navigation aid could you use for distance and (nearly) accurate groundspeed to the first line feature, the A81 autobahn (motorway)?Visibility: 20 kmCloud: OVC 7000Temperature: ISAQNH: 1033 hPaW/V: 100°(T)/30 ktCAS: 145 kt. A) KRH VOR/DME 115.95 MHz B) LBU VOR/DME 109.20 MHz C) KBD DME 115.80 MHz D) SHD DME 108.05 MHz

[FPL-PT01 #91] Given the following information, calculate the maximum attainable flight time and range. Average fuel flow: 9.6 US gal/h Available fuel: 50 US gal TAS:100 kt Wind component: 15 kt tailwind The flight time is (1) …. and the range is (2) …..

[FPL-PT01 #92] VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:

[FPL-PT01 #93] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. Find the frequency of the navaid which is located approximately 11 NM south of Munich aerodrome?

[FPL-PT01 #94] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. An aircraft is on a VFR flight in Austria. The departure airfield is RIED KIRCHHEIM (LOLK, N48 12.8 E13 20.8) and the destination is FREISTADT (LOLF, N48 30.9 E14 24.5). Which of the following radio frequencies should be used as a radio navigation aid if the pilot intends to fly directly to the destination?

[FPL-PT01 #95] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen Chart Aberdeen 10-1R. What is the frequency of Aberdeen Radar?

[FPL-PT01 #96] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. ETSI INGOLSTADT MANCHING N48.42.9, E01132.0. You are in the CTR. Which Frequency would be the correct one to use?

[FPL-PT01 #97] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. Find the the frequency of the LINZ ATIS.

[FPL-PT01 #98] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen VFR chart ED-4. What is the True Course and distance for a direct flight from Scharnstein aerodrome (LOLC) (N47°54' E013°56') to Trieben aerodrome (LOGI) (N47°30' E014°30')?

[FPL-PT01 #99] On a VFR flight, the traffic circuit altitude has to be established 5 NM before reaching the destination aerodrome. The descent must begin no later than how many nautical miles' ground distance from the airfield? Rate of descent: 500 ft/min Ground speed during descent: 130 kt Initial altitude: 4500 ft AMSL Traffic circuit altitude: 2500 ft AMSL

[FPL-PT01 #100] An aircraft is flying at FL180, OAT -11°C, QNH 1003. What is the true altitude?

[FPL-PT01 #101] When reviewing the wind charts in the briefing room, you notice that the average wind in cruise will be 25 kt headwind. Given following data, what will be the flight time to destination? Time to top of climb : 30 min Cruise leg: 740 NM FL380 TAS: 460 kt ISA -10°C Time from top of descent to landing : 22 minutes

[FPL-PT01 #102] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen ALICANTE VFR Approach Plate 19-1. On recovery to Alicante from the East; what is the maximum altitude approaching the NE Reporting Point?

[FPL-PT01 #103] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen ALICANTE - charts 19-1, 19-2 and 19-3. What is the maximum permissible altitude for reaching the compulsory reporting point NE?

[FPL-PT01 #104] Given the following information, what is the expected leg time? Leg track : 090° Distance : 100 NM TAS: 350 kt Wind: 030°/100 kt

[FPL-PT01 #105] A descent is planned from 7500 ft AMSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft AMSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:

[FPL-PT01 #106] You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ?

[FPL-PT01 #107] GSPRM - Friedrichshafen VFR 19-1 Following a take-off on RWY 24, what is the track and maximum altitude for a departure via visual reporting point NOVEMBER ?

[FPL-PT01 #108] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. You depart from BEILNGRIES / EDNC aerodrome (N49 01.3 E011 29.1) and then continue eastbound at the minimum grid altitude. Your altimeter scale is incorrectly set to 1010 hPa while the QNH given by the aerodrome is 1001 hPa. What is your approximate true altitude, shortly after departure, if the temperature at 3500 ft is 18°C?

[FPL-PT01 #109] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. Refer to MUNCHEN airport (EDDM, N048° 21.23' E11° 47.17'). What is the lowest altitude of class C airspace?

[FPL-PT01 #110] Refer to GSPRM Amsterdam (16-2) You are in a class B aircraft flying at 185 kt. What is the visibility limit for a circle to land approach?

[FPL-PT01 #111] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. SONNEN (EDPS) to STRAUBING (EDMS). What is the highest obstacle within 5 nm? Tip - EDMS is North East of Munich region.

[FPL-PT01 #112] Calculate the time it will take to fly from A to B on a cross country flight given the data below. Distance A to B: 83 NM TAS:120 kt TT: 130° W/V: 022°/23 kt

[FPL-PT01 #113] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen VFR Chart ED-4. Find the highest obstacle or elevation, within a 10 NM wide corridor and considering a 5 NM radius around the aerodromes, when flying directly from Griesau (N48°57', E12°25') to Arnbruck (N49°7', E12°59').

[FPL-PT01 #114] Given the following Information, at what distance should the pilot commence the descent in order to arrive overhead the airfield at 2000 ft? Cruise level: FL95 GS: 155 kt TAS: constant Wind component: negligible Temperature: ISA QNH: 1030 hPa Rate of descent: 500 ft/min

[FPL-PT01 #115] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen Chart Alicante 11-1. What is the height of the highest obstacle within the approach plan view?

[FPL-PT01 #116] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen Alicante VFR chart 19-1. How many VFR approaches are available?

[FPL-PT01 #117] Given the following information, what is the wind correction angle to be applied? Wind = 060°/60 kts (T) TAS= 380 kts Variation = 5°E Heading = 85° (M)

[FPL-PT01 #118] Flight planning chart for an aeroplane, states that the time to reach FL 190 at a given gross mass is 22 minutes and the distance travelled is 66 NM (no wind). What will be the distance travelled with a average head wind component of 35 kt?

[FPL-PT01 #119] How many feet you have to climb to reach FL75? Given: Departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft QNH = 1023 hPa Temperature = ISA 1 hPa = 30 ft

[FPL-PT01 #120] Refer to CAP workbook SEP Figure 2.4. Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs Aviation gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal Take-off altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt Cruising altitude 8000 ft Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20 degrees celsius lean of peak EGT. Calculate the range.

[FPL-PT01 #121] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. What is the distance between MUNICH 112.30 MUN and WALDA 112.8 WLD?

[FPL-PT01 #122] Refer to GSPRM - AMSTERDAM Terminal Chart 16-2. What is the MDA for the NDB approach on runway 18C?

[FPL-PT01 #123] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen Alicante 10-3 chart. Departure procedure Astro4A, QNH 1040, ROC 800 FT/min, GS 133 KT, at ALT VOR climb from 4000 FT to FL 080. When will you reach TOC?

[FPL-PT01 #124] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen VFR Alicante Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3. What is the distance (NM) between reporting points N and NE?

[FPL-PT01 #125] You are flying a heading of 020° with a TAS of 180 kt. If the wind is from 060° at 30 kt, what will your drift angle and ground speed be?

[FPL-PT01 #126] Given the following Information, calculate the drift angle: TAS:179 kt Wind: 330°(M)/25 kt VAR: 20°W Course: 210°(M)

[FPL-PT01 #127] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. Flying from REGENSBURG EDNR (N49°08' E012°05') to STRUNKOVICE LKSR (N49°05' E014°04.5') What is your Magnetic Track?

[FPL-PT01 #128] The minimum climb gradient for obstacle clearance is 4%. TAS for the best rate of climb is 230 kt. Given a tailwind of 15 kt, what minimum rate of climb can be achieved?

[FPL-PT01 #129] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen VFR Chart ED-4. Choose the correct statement on a standard day regarding the airspace above Stuttgart Airport (EDDS, N48°41.4', E009°13.3').

[FPL-PT01 #130] Along the route the highest obstacle ls 13 421 feet AMSL. If the QNH is 989 hPa, the MT ls 311° and the temperature is 10 degrees below ISA, the lowest appropriate VFR flight level that you could choose in order to clear this obstacle by a minimum of 2000 feet is:

[FPL-PT01 #131] A mountain 6011 ft AMSL will be crossed. What is the lowest VFR ICAO level the aircraft must fly to obtain a clearance of 2000 ft? Given: Variation: 10°W Aircraft's Track: 356°T Aircraft's HDG: 355°M QNH: 990 hPa Assume 7 hPa = 30 M

[FPL-PT01 #132] A VFR flight is planned from aerodrome A to aerodrome B on a 085° track. What would be an appropriate Flight Level for this route?

[FPL-PT01 #133] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen VFR Chart ED-4 chart. Flying from EDPJ LAICHINGEN airport (48°30'N 009°38'E) to EDTM MENGEN airport (48°03'N 009°22'E). What is the magnetic course and the distance?

[FPL-PT01 #134] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4.: Flying from LOLF (48’31N 14’24E) to Dingolfing (48’40N 12’30E). What visual cue is appropriate to use to assure that you are on the right Track ?

[FPL-PT01 #135] You want to plan a very accurate VFR route within a controlled airspace. Which of the following landmarks do you consider best suited for insertion into a GNSS flight plan using coordinates?

[FPL-PT01 #136] Refer to GSPRM - VFR chart ED-4. A VFR flight from LOLK to LOLF. Which of the following nav aids would be a suitable radio navigation aid for the flight?

[FPL-PT01 #137] Refer to GSPRM Jeppesen Chart Amsterdam 10-2B. The ATIS can be found on which VOR?

[FPL-PT01 #138] A twin engine piston aircraft planning to fly VFR from A to B. Given the following data, what is the minimum block fuel? Flight Time 1hr 50 min Dep Airfield is the Dest Alternate Taxi 8 L, Fuel for Departure and Climb 30 L ,Fuel Go around and Climb 30 L ,App and Landing 14 L, Fuel Flow Cruise: 58 L / hr , Fuel Flow Holding 50 L / hr. Answer in Litres.