INST 01

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 1. The relationship between pressure units is: 1 millibar=__________ hPa. A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1000

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 2. The relationship between pressure units is: 1 hPa =__________ Pa. A) 100 B) 10 C) 1000 D) 10 000

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 3. The relationship between pressure units is: 1 Bar =__________ hPa. A) 1000 B) 10 C) 10 000 D) 100

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 4. ISA sea level pressure is: __________ mb A) 1013,25 B) 29.92 C) 14.7 D) 1023.25

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 5. ISA sea level pressure is: approximately __________ psi. A) 14,7 B) 29.92 C) 1013.25 D) 1023.25

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 6. ISA sea level pressure is: __________ in Hg A) 29,92 B) 1013.25 C) 14.7 D) 1023.25

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 7. 1 __ is approximately equal to atmospheric pressure at sea level. It is equal to 1000 ____. A) Bar, hPa B) Bar; in Hg C) Bar; PSI D) Pascal; hPa

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 8. In Europe altimeters are calibrated in: A) Feet B) Metres. C) Yards. D) PSI.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 9. Pitot/static systems on large aircraft: A) Have redundancy thanks to multiple, interconnected and substitutable sources. B) Are always discrete systems to protect against data contamination. C) Are only ever pneumatic to prevent data-corruption error. D) Sometimes use MEMS sensors located in an ADC.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 10. In aviation the normal pressure unit used is the __________. A) Hectopascal B) Pascal C) Bar D) PSI

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 11. Instrument error' describes a category of errors caused by: A) Imperfections in the manufacture or calibration of the instrument and wear and tear during service. B) Changes in pressure when the aircraft pitches and turns. C) Icing of the static ports. D) Connecting the wrong pressure source to the instrument during installation.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 12. The unit of pressure used in the US is __________ of mercury. A) Inches B) Bar C) PSI D) Centimetre

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 13. The SI unit of pressure is the __________. A) Pascal B) Hectopascal C) Bar D) PSI

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 14. Hydraulic pressure is usually measured in psi, which stands for __________. A) Pounds per square inch. B) Pascal per square inch. C) Pressure per square inch. D) People per square inch.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 15. Pitot/static system heating: A) Prevents ice from blocking the pressure sensors B) Removes temperature error from pressure measurements. C) Ensures pressure sensing is always based on ISA air density at 15°C. D) Avoids thermodynamic error.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 16. Total pressure is: A) Static pressure + dynamic pressure B) Displayed as a Mach number. C) Displayed as an indicated air speed. D) ½ρV².

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 17. Static pressure is: A) The pressure force caused by the mass of the air above B) The sum of the mass of the gas and its velocity squared, divided by air density. C) The pressure of the unaccelerated air, measured at the nose of the aircraft just behind the propeller. D) The sum of stagnation and pitot pressures.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 18. Which of the following statements about sensing errors is/are correct? Mark 3 correct answers. A) Instrument error is the inevitable result of manufacturing tolerances, friction and wear. B) Manoeuvre error is minimised by paring static ports on opposite sides of the fuselage. C) Position error is predictable. In CAT aircraft it is compensated for by a computer. D) Error from non-longitudinal axial flow, including manoeuvre error, is minimised by pairing static ports and by measuring side-slip using side-slide angle sensors. E) Manoeuvre error is the result of an airflow disturbance at the wing/fuselage joint. F) Position error is minimised by locating the pitot ports on the side of the fuselage.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 19. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Static system error… Mark 2 correct answers. A) Is reduced by converting the sensed air pressure to digital data at or near the static port. B) Is made worse when the tube runs are straight. C) Is removed by having matching pairs of static ports on opposite sides of the fuselage. D) Is partly caused by friction in the tubes between the static port and the instrument.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 20. Dynamic pressure is: Mark all correct answers. A) The pressure solely attributable to the movement of the air relative to the aircraft. B) Pitot pressure minus static pressure. C) 1/2 the air density x the square of the true air speed. D) Measured using a pitot tube with an open end into the airflow.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 21. The exact value for the SPS is __________ hPa. A) 1013,25 B) 1023.25 C) 1003.25

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 22. You leave airfield A with QNH 1010 hPa set. You arrive overhead airfield B, which has a QNH of 1020 hPa, without adjusting your altimeter. With an indicated altitude of 3000 ft, what is your true altitude, if there is no temperature error. A) 3300 ft B) 2700 ft C) 3030 ft D) 2970 ft

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 23. You are at a sea level airfield with an outside air temperature of -15ºC (ISA-30). You set the correct QNH of 1030 hPa. You have to pass over a mountain shortly after departure, and need a true altitude of at least 4000 ft for safe clearance. The indicated altitude you must be at before passing over the mountain is: A) 4480 ft B) 4120 ft C) 3520 ft D) 3880 ft

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 24. An altimeter set to QNH indicates approximately the __________ __________ on touchdown. A) Airfield elevation B) regional elevation C) circuit elevation D) QFF

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 25. A warm column of air is __________ than a relatively cold column. A) Less dense B) denser C) Exactly the same density

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 26. In some CIS and Asian countries altimeters are calibrated in: A) Metres B) Feet. C) Yards. D) PSI.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 27. The pressure measured at ground level at an airfield is called __________. A) QFE B) QNH C) QFF D) ambient

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 28. Adjusting QFE to sea level using ISA conditions gives __________. A) QNH B) QFE C) QFF D) Ambient

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 29. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Has a stack of aneroid capsules connected by levers and gears to multiple pointer hands. A) Sensitive Altimeter (Has a stack of aneroid capsules) B) Simple Altimeter C) Servo-assisted Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 30. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Has an increased operating range and accuracy. When equipped with altitude reporting, may be used in some categories of controlled airspace. A) Sensitive Altimeter (Has an increased operating range) B) Simple Altimeter C) Servo-assisted Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 31. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Uses jewelled bearings and a vibration system to reduce lag and improve accuracy. A) Sensitive Altimeter (Uses jewelled bearings) B) Servo-assisted Altimeter C) Simple Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 32. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Always has an altitude reporting function. A) Servo-assisted Altimeter (Always has an altitude reporting function.) B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Simple Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 33. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Is the minimum standard of altimeter which might meet RVSM accuracy requirements. A) Servo-assisted Altimeter (Is the minimum standard) B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Simple Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 34. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Near-zero friction means almost no lag and greater accuracy. A) Servo-assisted Altimeter (Near-zero friction) B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Simple Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 35. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: The 'E' bar of the E-I bar transducer is driven by a motor which also drives the pointer hands and numerical display. A) Servo-assisted Altimeter (The 'E' bar of the E-I bar) B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Simple Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 36. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Has limited accuracy and range. A) Simple Altimeter (Has limited accuracy and range) B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Servo-assisted Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 37. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: Is not sufficiently accurate for training or commercial aircraft. A) Simple Altimeter (not sufficiently accurate for training or commercial aircraft). B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Servo-assisted Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 38. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: One capsule is connected to a pointer hand. A) Simple Altimeter (One capsule is connected) B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Servo-assisted Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 39. Select which of these 3 altimeter types is most accurately described by each statement: The only reference pressure which can be accurately set is QFE, while on the ground before take-off. A) Simple Altimeter (The only reference pressure) B) Sensitive Altimeter C) Servo-assisted Altimeter

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 40. When in the cruise and clear of all terrain, altimeters are set to the __________ pressure setting (SPS). A) standard B) series C) single D) sensitive

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 41. Static system leaks cause the altimeter to: A) Under-read if the aircraft is pressurised and over-read if it is unpressurised. B) Over-read if the aircraft is pressurised and under-read if it is unpressurised. C) Over-read in all aircraft types. D) Under-read in all aircraft types.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 42. An altimeter set to QFE indicates approximately __________ on touchdown. A) Zero B) 100 C) 10 D) 50

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 43. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes the operating principle of an altimeter? Mark 4 correct answers. A) A leaf spring prevents the capsules from compressing too much at sea level. B) As the aircraft climbs, the pressure in the altimeter case increases. C) As the aircraft climbs, the pressure in the aneroid capsules increases. D) One or more partially evacuated dry (aneroid) capsules are connected to a pointer by levers and gears. E) The instrument case is well sealed and connected to the static ports. F) As the aircraft climbs, the aneroid capsules expand, moving the pointer to indicate higher altitude.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 44. Which of the following statements is/are accurate? Altimeter displays can comprise: Mark all correct answers. A) A vertical, straight scale known as an 'altitude tape.' B) A single pointer only. C) Multiple pointers. D) Numerical drums.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 45. Which of the following is true about GPS altitude? Mark all correct answers. A) It can be used to help to determine which, of 2 or more altimeters, is faulty if they disagree. B) It is not accurate enough to be displayed on flight instruments. C) It can be used as a back-up system in some aircraft, provided warnings are shown to the crew. D) Satellite coverage, geometrical priority for lateral navigation in satellite selection, and errors in geodetic modelling reduce its integrity and accuracy.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 46. Which of the following statements about altimeter lag is/are correct? Mark 2 correct answers. A) Lag is removed by using MEMS sensors which feed ADCs. B) Friction in the mechanism connecting the aneroid capsules to the pointer hands causes lag. C) Lag is a significant problem in the cruise. D) Lag is most dangerous in a climb.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 47. Which of the following statements about static system blockage is/are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) The altimeter will over-read in a descent. B) Complete blockage causes the altimeter to 'freeze'. C) Partial blockage causes large altimeter lag. D) The altimeter will over-read in a climb.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 48. The sealed case of a VSI is connected to static pressure via a metering unit to create __________ in the case. A) a pressure lag B) excess pressure

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 49. Inertia causes the piston to move when the __________ changes. A) aircraft's pitch rate B) aircraft's speed C) aircraft's height

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 50. Match the static system malfunction to one of the 2 descriptions of symptoms: Indication decreases to zero and stays there, regardless of vertical speed. A) Blockage B) Leak

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 51. The units displayed on a VSI are: A) Feet per minute (fpm) or metres per second (m/s). 1 m/s = 200 fpm. B) Metres per minute (mpm) or centimetres per second (cps). 1 mpm = 1.7 cps. C) Feet per minute (ft/min) or metres per minute (m/min). 1 m/min = 3.8 ft/min. D) Feet per second (fps) or metres per second (mps). 1 fps = 3.8 m/s.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 52. The higher the rate of change of pressure, the __________ the expansion or contraction of the capsule and the movement of the pointer hand connected to it. A) greater B) lesser

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 53. Match each description to the closest matching instrument type of the 3 given: May have a numerical value displayed, as well as a logarithmic pointer scale. A) Inertial VSI B) Instantaneous VSI. C) VSI.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 54. Match each description to the closest matching instrument type of the 3 given: Displays either inertial data or a blend of air data and inertial data on PFD. A) Inertial VSI B) Instantaneous VSI. C) VSI.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 55. Match each description to the closest matching instrument type of the 3 given: May indicate erratically in turbulence. A) Instantaneous VSI B) VSI. C) Inertial VSI

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 56. Match each description to the closest matching instrument type of the 3 given: Has a basic accelerometer to overcome lag. A) Instantaneous VSI. B) VSI. C) Inertial VSI

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 57. To prevent __________ IVSIs have a mass acting as a piston inside a cylinder. A) Lag B) over-pressure C) excess pressure

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 58. Match the static system malfunction to one of the 2 descriptions of symptoms: Normal or near-normal indications on an unpressurised aircraft. A) Leak. B) Blockage.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 59. Match the static system malfunction to one of the 2 descriptions of symptoms: Causes erroneous indications on a pressurised aircraft because cabin pressure changes at a different rate from static pressure. A) Leak B) Blockage.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 60. Match each description to the closest matching instrument type of the 3 given: Indication lags behind actual vertical speed. A) VSI B) Instantaneous VSI. C) Inertial VSI

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 61. VSIs suffer from: Mark all correct answers. A) Position error. B) Static system error C) Instrument error. D) Lag. E) Manoeuvre error. F) Pitot heating error.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 62. 100 kt is equivalent to: A) 185 km/h, and 115 mph B) 115 km/h, and 185 mph C) 54 km/h, and 87 mph D) 87 km/h, and 54 mph

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 63. VNE, the never exceed speed, is indicated by:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 64. The caution speed range is indicated by the arc shown at:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 65. Detail the colour of the line showing best rate of climb speed with one engine inoperative of an ASI speed scale markings? A) Blue B) Green C) Yellow D) Red & White stripes

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 66. VNO, the upper limit of the normal operating speed range is indicated by:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 67. The normal operating speed range is shown by the arc denoted by the letter:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 68. VSO, the stall speed at maximum weight, is shown at:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 69. VS1, the minimum steady flight speed, is shown at:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 70. VYSE, the minimum safe speed with one engine failed, is shown at:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 71. The colour of the arc showing normal operating speed range of an ASI speed scale markings is: A) Green B) White C) Yellow D) Red

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 72. VFE, the maximum speed with flap extended, is shown at:

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 73. In light aircraft made in USA, ________ is commonly used. A) mph B) kt C) metres per second D) km per hour

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 74. Detail the colour of the line showing maximum speed VNE of an ASI speed scale markings? A) Red B) Green C) White D) Blue

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 75. Detail the colour of the indicator moving to show maximum operating speed or mach (VMO/MMO) description of an ASI speed scale markings? A) Red & White stripes B) Red C) White D) Blue

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 76. The colour of the arc showing flap operating speed range of an ASI speed scale markings is: A) White B) Green C) Yellow D) Red

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 77. Detail the colour of the ASI speed scale markings for the arc showing caution speed range? A) Yellow B) Green C) White D) Blue

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 78. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Mark 3 correct answers. A) Density error can be accounted for using a navigation computer to predict your flight time and fuel required. B) Instrument error is small, and is not corrected by the pilot. C) Position error is corrected using a table, but only on small aircraft. D) Pitot/static system errors are corrected using a table in the flight manual. E) Compressibility error must be corrected at all speeds. F) Density error is large at all altitudes.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 79. When unreliable airspeed indications are suspected, which of the following statements are true? Mark 3 correct answers. A) Known combinations of pitch attitude and power setting can give a reliable safe speed for extended periods of time. B) Ambient wind noise may be a very gross indication of speed in certain conditions. C) GNSS gives a reasonably accurate TAS if wind speed and direction are known. D) The ambient wind noise inside the aircraft is always a reliable gross indication of airspeed. E) GNSS provides accurate TAS - subtract headwind from this to calculate groundspeed.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 80. Which of the following are valid potential signs of unreliable airspeed: Mark all correct answers. A) The aircraft's attitude is unusual for the current power setting and configuration. B) ASIs disagree with each other. C) Unexpected sensitivity to control inputs. D) Unexpected airframe buffet. E) An airspeed system warning.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 81. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes the operating principle of an ASI? Mark 4 correct answers. A) The instrument measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure (dynamic pressure). B) The capsule is connected to pitot pressure. C) Increasing speed causes the capsule to expand against a spring. D) Reducing speed decreases the pressure difference between the capsule and the casing. E) The instrument case is connected to pitot pressure. F) Increasing altitude causes an increase in pressure in the casing. G) The capsule is connected to dynamic pressure.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 82. If 520 kt TAS is M0.86, what is the OAT? A) -33°C B) 33ºC. C) -24ºC D) 24ºC.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 83. If TAS is 480 kt and OAT is -43°C, what is the Mach number? A) 0.81 B) 0.69. C) 0.72. D) 1.23.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 84. If the ambient air temperature is -33°C what is the local speed of sound? A) 604 kt. B) 682 kt. C) 661 kt. D) 584 kt.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 85. In this diagram A) A is CAS, B is TAS and C is Mach B) A is TAS, B is CAS and C is Mach. C) A is Mach, B is CAS and C is TAS.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 86. VMO and MMO A) Are the regulation limited maximum operating airspeed and Mach number respectively. B) Are different names for the same thing. C) Are the commercial aviation terms for VNE and MNE. D) Have the same safety margin as VNE.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 87. Mach number is: A) Indicated by a pointer hand on a mechanical Machmeter, or a numerical drum in a MASI displaying ADC-calculated data, or a number prefixed by 'M' displayed near the EFIS speed tape. B) Always indicated by a single pointer hand. C) Always indicated by a single pointer hand. D) Indicated by a pointer hand when generated by ADC data, or a drum or a digital Mach indication when driven by a mechanical Machmeter.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 88. The Machmeter doesn't suffer from compressibility error because: A) It measures dynamic pressure divided by static pressure, which is the same ratio that determines compressibility error. B) Speed isn't shown on instrument face, so it can't be in error. C) It is corrected by carefully calibrating the instrument scale to account for EAS being higher than CAS at high speeds. D) The mnemonic ECTM proves that to get from TAS to Mach you don't have to consider EAS, so this error is irrelevant.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 89. Select the correct effect on Machmeter indications for the problem given below: Pitot blockage when the aircraft is climbing. A) Over-read - may be large B) Under-read - may be large. C) Freezes. D) Small over-read.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 90. Select the correct effect on Machmeter indications for the problem given below: Static blockage when the aircraft is descending. A) Over-read - may be large B) Under-read - may be large. C) Freezes. D) Small over-read.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 91. Select the correct effect on Machmeter indications for the problem given below: Static leak in an unpressurised aircraft. A) Small over-read. B) Under-read - may be large. C) Freezes. D) Small under-read.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 92. Select the correct effect on Machmeter indications for the problem given below: Pitot leak in a pressurised aircraft. A) Under-read - may be large B) Freezes. C) Over-read - may be large. D) Small over-read.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 93. Select the correct effect on Machmeter indications for the problem given below: Static leak in a pressurised aircraft. A) Under-read - may be large. B) Freezes. C) Over-read - may be large. D) Small over-read.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 94. Select the correct effect on Machmeter indications for the problem given below: Pitot blockage when the aircraft is descending. A) Under-read - may be large. B) Freezes. C) Over-read - may be large. D) Small over-read.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 95. Select the correct effect on Machmeter indications for the problem given below: Static blockage when the aircraft is climbing. A) Under-read - may be large B) Freezes. C) Over-read - may be large. D) Small over-read.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 96. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) A climb profile such as 300 kt/M.80 is the usual way of operating a large aircraft. B) Climbing at a constant IAS could result in exceeding MMO. C) Descending at a constant M could result in exceeding VMO. D) When using the 300 kt/M0.8 descent profile, 300 kt would be the initial target, becoming M.80 at the crossover altitude.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 97. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describe the operating principles of the mechanical Machmeter? Mark 3 correct answers. A) If either the airspeed capsule or the altitude capsule expands, then the indicated Mach number increases. B) An altitude capsule moves the ratio arm along the ranging arm, altering the magnitude of pointer movement for the same deflection of the ratio arm. C) The instrument case is fed with static pressure. D) A capsule fed with static pressure moves the ratio arm against the ranging arm to deflect the needle. E) The subscale (reference pressure) must be set to, and remain at, QNH.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 98. Which of the following statements about VMO and MMO are correct?correct answers. A) VMO and MMO are shown by red 'bricks' at the top of a vertical speed tape on EFIS. B) VMO and MMO are shown by a red and white striped 'barber's pole' on a conventional ASI. C) VMO and MMO are indicated by a red flag appearing on a conventional Machmeter D) On an ASI, VMO is the top of the green arc and MMO is the top of the yellow arc. E) Whichever display method is used, only the highest of MMO and VMO is shown.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 99. Complete the following conversion to the nearest whole degree: 100K converts to __________°C A) -173 B) -183 C) -153 D) 173

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 100. Complete the following conversion to the nearest whole degree: -40°F converts to __________°C and __________K A) -40; 233 B) -40; 173 C) -30; 233 D) -50; 203

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 101. If the TAS is 300 kt and the SAT is -50°C, the TAT is approximately: A) -41ºC B) -59ºC C) -53ºC D) -34ºC

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 102. Complete the following conversion to the nearest whole degree: 82°F converts to __________°C A) 28 B) 18 C) 17 D) 30

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 103. Complete the following conversion to the nearest whole degree: 16°C converts to __________°F A) 61 B) 51 C) 27 D) 57

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 104. The commonly used unit of temperature in aviation is degrees __________. In the USA, degrees __________ is commonly used. Absolute temperature is measured using the __________ scale. A) Celsius; Fahrenheit; kelvin B) kelvin; Celsius; Fahrenheit C) Fahrenheit; Celsius ; kelvin D) Fahrenheit: kelvin; Celsius

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 105. Direct-reading temperature probes used on light aircraft __________ suffer from position error and significant instrument error. A) do B) don't C) never

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 106. Direct-reading temperature probes used on light aircraft are normally mounted __________. A) near the windshield. B) on the side of the fuselage. C) under the wing.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 107. Match the temperature described to one of these 3 descriptions: 1 - OAT 2 - SAT 3 - TAT The measured temperature using an aircraft-mounted sensor that is not in direct sunlight? A) OAT B) SAT C) TAT

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 108. Remote-reading temperature probes are mounted on a protruding leg to ensure that the sensed air is __________ the boundary layer. A) Outside B) Inside

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 109. Match the temperature described to one of these 3 descriptions: 1 - OAT 2 - SAT 3 - TAT The temperature outside the aircraft that is not affected by the movement of the aircraft through the air? A) SAT B) OAT C) TAT

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 110. Match the temperature described to one of these 3 descriptions: 1 - OAT 2 - SAT 3 - TAT The temperature obtained by subtracting the ram rise from the TAT? A) SAT B) OAT C) TAT

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 111. Match the temperature described to one of these 3 descriptions: 1 - OAT 2 - SAT 3 - TAT The temperature that determines the local speed of sound? A) SAT B) OAT C) TAT

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 112. Remote-reading temperature probes are used on CAT aircraft. To reduce position error, they are usually mounted on the fuselage where the airflow is __________. A) smooth B) stationary

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 113. Match the temperature described to one of these 3 descriptions: 1 - OAT 2 - SAT 3 - TAT The measured temperature outside the aircraft, that is affected by adiabatic heating, because the relative airflow at the sensor is reduced to zero? A) TAT B) SAT C) OAT

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 114. Match the temperature described to one of these 3 descriptions: 1 - OAT 2 - SAT 3 - TAT The temperature that determines relationship between TAS and IAS? A) TAT B) SAT C) OAT

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 115. Remote-reading temperature probes usually measure __________. This is useful because it determines the relationship between IAS and TAS. This temperature is displayed on the flight deck and used by the ADC. A) TAT B) SAT C) OAT

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 116. Which of the following statements about probe heating is/are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) Sensor heating is minimised by heating the probe body but not the sensor itself, and using airflow to prevent the sensor from being heated by the probe body. B) Heating is necessary to protect the probe from icing. C) Heating systems also heat the sensor. If this isn't either minimised or accounted for, an inaccurate temperature reading results. D) TAT probes can't give reliable readings when the aircraft is stationary.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 117. Vane detectors are pivoted well __________ of their centre of pressure. A) forward B) aft

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 118. Vane detectors__________ the angle of attack at the wing. A) Infer B) measure

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 119. When displayed on the flight deck of a CAT aircraft, AoA indications are usually shown as an analogue or analogue/digital display __________. A) on the PFD. B) on the ND. C) on a discreet AoA gauge.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 120. Which of the following statements about null-seeking probes is correct? Null seeking probes: A) Use a servo motor to rotate the probe until there is no differential pressure between the slots. B) Are sensitive to the difference in pressure sensed in slots either side of the fixed probe. C) Use a servo motor to rotate the probe until there is a differential pressure is sensed between the slots. D) Are usually mounted on the leading edge of the wing.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 121. Incorrect AoA indications: Mark 4 correct answers. A) May cause controllability problems B) Can be diagnosed by referring to the primary instruments and known combinations of pitch, power and airspeed. C) May cause failure of the stall warning system, or inappropriate stall warnings. D) May cause fly-by-wire system mode reversion including autopilot disconnection. E) Make control of the aircraft difficult when flying on instruments. F) Will not affect the flight envelope protection systems.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 122. Which of the following statements about AoA sensors is/are correct? AoA sensors: Mark 4 correct answers. A) Supply data to air data computers. B) Are electrically heated. C) Supply data to stall warning and prevention systems. D) Supply data to flight envelope protection systems. E) Are protected against icing by hot bleed air. F) Commonly feed a flight deck AoA display in CAT aircraft.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 123. Angle of attack sensing devices commonly found on CAT aircraft include: Mark 2 correct answers. A) Vane detectors B) Null-seeking slotted probes. C) Null-sensing vanes. D) Flapper switches.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 124. Angle of attack sensing devices commonly found on CAT aircraft include: Mark 2 correct answers. A) Vane detectors B) Null-sensing vanes. C) Null-seeking slotted probes. D) Flapper switches.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 125. The input data of an ADC (Air Data Computer) is: 1. OAT. 2. TAT. 3. Static pressure. 4. Total pressure. The combination of the correct statements is: A) 2, 3, 4. B) 1, 2, 3, 4. C) 1, 3, 4. D) 1, 2, 4.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 126. During the cruise at FL400, the pilot tubes of your aircraft become blocked by volcanic ash. After starting a descent, what should you be aware of? The airspeed display will: A) under-read B) over-read. C) be frozen. D) be unaffected.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 127. The AoA sensor consists of a __________ that receives the signal from __________. A) Potentiometer wiper, the wind wane B) Potentiometer wiper, the slotted probe C) Capacitance sensor, the differential probe D) Piezoelectric sensor, the slotted probe

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 128. A system using one or more ADCs, comprises __________ which collect analogue data, air data modules to convert analogue data to digital data, __________ to manipulate the data and one or more display units to display information to the pilot. A) sensors; a computer B) ADMs; a computer C) sensors; a digitiser D) ADMs; a digitiser

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 129. On a simple light aircraft using a single ADC: A) ADC failure requires you to use the standby pressure instruments. B) ADC failure results in loss of all pressure-sensing displays. C) Results in loss of your primary attitude information. D) Causes the OAT gauge to misread.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 130. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Pitot and static sensors are connected to nearby air data modules. Digital data is sent to the ADC which (on CAT aircraft) uses stored calibration data which removes most types of sensor error. This produces accurate outputs to ASI, altimeter, VSI and Mach number displays in CAT aircraft. B) ADCs are a single point of connection for the pitot and static systems. They comprise an altimeter, ASI, and Machmeter. C) ADCs contain air data modules for the pitot and static systems. They calculate Mach number using TAT, static and pitot pressure. D) On a modern CAT aircraft, alternate pitot and static sources send digital data directly to the EFIS display units (DUs).

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 131. Loss of an ADC: Mark 2 correct answers. A) Can be mitigated by manually or automatically switching to a second or even third ADC. B) Results in loss of all instruments supplied by its data. C) Affects all the main flight instrument displays. D) Can be mitigated by routing sensor data directly to the EFIS instruments.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 132. On CAT aircraft ADCs, an error correction performed by ADCs using stored sensor calibration data, practically eliminates: Mark all correct answers. A) Density error B) Position error. C) Compressibility error. D) Instrument error.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 133. Which of the following are valid inputs to ADCs: Mark 7 correct answers. A) Stored sensor calibration data. B) SAT. C) Dynamic pressure. D) Mach number. E) TAT. F) Static pressure. G) Total pressure. H) AoA. I) Flap position. J) Landing gear position.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 134. Which of the following are valid outputs from ADCs? Mark all correct answers. A) VMO/MMO pointer. B) IAS. C) TAS. D) SAT/OAT. E) TAT. F) Mach number. G) AoA. H) Vertical speed. I) Attitude. J) CAS.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 135. If you are flying through turbulence, you can expect the IVSI to (1) __ . You should (2) __ gradual changes. A) overread; (2) Ignore B) (1) under-read; (2) Ignore C) (1) over-read; (2) respond slowly to D) (1) under-read; (2) respond slowly to

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 136. Complete the following phrase: The signal on an angle of attack sensor is created by a (1 ) __ and is subject to 2) __ error. A) (1) potentiometer; (2) position. B) (1) magnetic sensor; (2) variation . C) (1) piezoelectric; (2) deviation. D) (1) capacitor; (2) scale.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 137. When the sea level OAT is +25°C, the deviation from standard temperature for aerodynamic computations is: A) +10°C B) 0°C C) +15°C D) -15°C

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 138. If the ADC fails, which of the following instruments related to the pitot-static instruments are affected? 1. Air Speed indicator 2. Vertical Speed indicator 3. Altimeter 4. Attitude indicator A) 1, 2 and 3. B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 . C) 1 and 3. D) 1 and 2.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 139. The data outputs from the ADC (Air Data Computer) are: 1. Altitude. 2. Mach number. 3. IAS. 4. TAS. 5. SAT. The combination of all of the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 3, 5. C) 2, 3, 4. D) 1, 4.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 140. The 'barber pole' VMO/MMO takes inputs from: 1. Aneroid capsule. 2. Differential pressure. 3. Temperature. The combination of correct statements is: A) 1, 2 B) 2,3. C) 1,3. D) 1,2,3.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 141. The output data calculated by the ADC (Air Data Computer) is 1. Attitude. 2. Pressure altitude. 3. TAT. 4. TAS. 5. CAS. The combination of the correct statements is: A) 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 3, 4, 5. C) 2, 3, 5. D) 1, 2, 4.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 142. What angle of bank should you adopt on the attitude indicator for a standard rate (rate 1) turn while flying at an TAS of 130 kts? A) 20° B) 15° C) 23° D) 18°

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 143. An air data computer (ADC): 1. Supplies the ground speed and the drift angle. 2. Determines the total temperature and the true altitude. 3. Receives the static pressure and the total pressure. 4. Supplies the TAS to the computer of the INS. A) 3, 4 B) 2, 3, 4. C) 1, 2. D) 2, 5.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 144. An aircraft is climbing at 800 ft/min, It is the equivalent of: A) 4.1 m/sec B) 12 m/sec C) 28.6 m/sec D) 43.2 m/sec

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 145. An aircraft is cruising at FL410, Mach 0.86. The ISA deviation is -12°C. What is the TAS of the aircraft? A) 479 kt B) 466 kt C) 566 kt D) 647 kt

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 146. In a barometric type instantaneous Vertical Speed indicator (IVSI), what ls used to quickly respond to altitude changes and provide Instant climb/descent Indications? A) An accelerometer to temporally change the pressure in the capsule. B) An accelerometer mechanically linked to the capsule, to expand it faster. C) A piston to temporarily change the diameter of the metering unit. D) Information from an air data inertial reference system.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 147. An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed: A) Decreases B) Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher. C) Remains constant. D) Increases.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 148. At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant: A) EAS B) CAS C) Ground speed D) TAS

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 149. How is a null-seeking AoA device protected from icing? A) Electric heating B) No protection at all. C) Chemically. D) Pneumatic heat.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 150. An airspeed indicator displays: A) IAS B) TAS C) EAS D) CAS

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 151. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement: The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : A) In standard atmosphere, to the pressure PS prevailing at this point. B) In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure PS. C) In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure PS prevailing at this point D) In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure PS.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 152. At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number: A) Increases when the altitude increases. B) Increases when the outside temperature decreases. C) Increases when the outside temperature increases. D) Decreases when the altitude increases.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 153. An aeroplane is descending from FL390 to ground level at maximum speed. For this descent what are the speed limits? A) Initially MMO, then VMO below a given flight level B) MMO only during all the descent. C) VMO only during all the descent. D) Initially VMO, then MMO below a given flight level.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 154. What can be said regarding a small aircraft's Angle of Attack (AoA) sensor? A) It is a small vane on the leading edge of the wing B) It is a small radar dish on top of the cockpit. C) It is located on the side of the fuselage. D) It is located on the tall of the aircraft.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 155. Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in: A) Lower TAS because air density increases. B) Lower TAS because air density decreases. C) Higher TAS because air density decreases. D) Higher TAS because air density increases.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 156. On the ground, during a left turn, the rate of turn indicator indicates: A) Needle to the left, ball to the right. B) Needle in the middle, ball to the right. C) Needle to the left, ball to the left. D) Needle in the middle, ball to the left.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 157. VNO is the maximum speed: A) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution. B) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected. C) with flaps extended in landing position. D) which must never be exceeded.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 158. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as: A) Position pressure error B) Instrument error. C) Barometric error. D) Hysteresis effect.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 159. The altimeter is supplied with: A) Static pressure B) Differential pressure. C) Dynamic pressure. D) Total pressure.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 160. The position error of an ASI results from: A) The effects of the airflow around the static vent and pitot head. B) Mechanical differences in individual instruments. C) The difference in air density from sea level ISA density. D) The fact that air becomes more compressible at high speeds.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 161. L-ended tube parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft senses the: A) Total pressure. B) Total pressure plus static pressure. C) Static pressure. D) Dynamic pressure.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 162. An Air Data Computer (ADC): A) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments B) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct altitude and speed information. C) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is blocked. D) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 163. What happens to your ASI when your static port has icing blockage (in a climb)? A) Under read B) Nothing C) Reads zero D) Over read

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 164. The limits of the yellow arc (caution speed range) of an airspeed indicator are: A) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit. B) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit. C) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit. D) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.

A-INST1-PT01.A-INSTRUMENTATION.docx | 165. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are: A) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit. B) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit. C) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit. D) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 1. The alignment of a gyro stabilized inertial platform consists in positioning the platform relative to: A) the vertical axis and true north. B) the pitch axis only. C) the pitch and roll axis. D) the roll axis only.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 2. If the navigation function of an INS is inoperative, the back up mode if existing, used to operate the INS is: A) the ATT mode which supplies attitude and heading data. B) the GS mode which supplies ground speed and heading data. C) the ATT mode which allows to maintain pitch attitude only. D) the OFF mode which turns off the navigation mode but recovers the heading mode.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 3. An autopilot system: A) must provide at least aircraft stabilisation functions. B) must provide at least aircraft guidance functions. C) must provide automatic take off functions. D) may provide automatic take off functions.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 4. When the autopilot is engaged, the role of the automatic trim is to: A) relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect B) block the elevator and pilot the aircraft only via the trim tab actuator or the horizontal stabiliser. C) react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode D) synchronize the longitudinal loop

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 5. The flight director provides information for the pilot: A) to join to a desired path with the optimum attitude. B) to remain within the flight envelope. C) to join a desired track with a 45° intercept angle. D) to join a desired track with a constant bank angle of 25°.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 6. The Mach trim system allows to: A) increase the longitudinal static stability of the aircraft by changing the horizontal stabilizer according to the Mach number. B) trim the pitch-up tendency at a high Mach number. C) search for the ideal C.G. location by transferring the fuel into the horizontal stabilizer. D) interlock the operation of the stick shaker at the oncoming of the high speed stall.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 7. The Yaw Damper system: 1 - counters any wrong pilot action on the rudder pedals; 2 - counters dutch roll; 3 - is active only when autopilot is engaged. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 2 B) 1, 2, 3. C) 1, 2. D) 2, 3.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 8. The flight envelope protection system prevents the aircraft from exceeding the limits of the following parameters (among others): 1 - cabin altitude 2 - bank angle 3 - angle of attack 4 - speed 5 - pitch attitude The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 2, 3, 4, 5. B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. C) 2, 5. D) 1, 2, 4

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 9. The autothrottle system: A) can be used for take-off. B) can be engaged in the TAS mode - holding of constant TAS - during a final approach. C) can be engaged in the GS mode - holding of constant Ground Speed - during a final approach. D) is automatically disconnected when the aircraft is on the ground.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 10. When cruising, the autothrottle system can be engaged in the following mode(s): holding of constant: 1 - TAS 2 - IAS 3 - Mach number The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 2, 3. B) 1, 2. C) 1, 2, 3.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 11. The on-board communication devices to transmit and receive datalink communication can be: 1- VHF COM 2- HF COM 3- SATCOM The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3. B) 1, 2.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 12. The ACARS allows air/ground datalink communications for: A) Airline Operational and Air Traffic Communications (AOC & ATC). B) Airline Operational Communication only (AOC). C) Air Traffic Control Communication only (ATC). D) Airline Operational and Public Communications (AOC & PC).

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 13. The basic on-board datalink communication system is typically composed by the following sub systems: 1 - Communication Management Unit (CMU) 2 - Multi-purpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) 3 - Communication unit (VHF, HF, Satcom) The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3. B) 1, 3. C) 1, 2. D) 2, 3.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 14. The data base of a FMC (flight management computer) is divided into two major sections: A) aeroplane performance and navigation. B) aeroplane performance and fuel saving. C) navigation and meteorology. D) inertial and navigation.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 15. For a FMS designed with the vertical navigation (VNAV) capability coupled to the autopilot, the FMS vertical command output can be: 1 - an angle of attack 2 - a flight path angle 3 - a speed target The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 2, 3. B) 1, 2. C) 1, 3.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 16. The FMS vertical navigation management is generally performed based on: A) the baro altitude input from the ADC. B) the GPS altitude computed by the GPS receiver. C) a mix of baro and GPS altitudes. D) the geometric altitude input from the Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS).

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 17. The validity period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical information stored in the database of a FMS is: A) 28 days. B) one calendar month. C) 3 calendar months. D) 14 days.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 18. In a FMS, MCDUs are used pre-flight to manually initialise with dispatch information the: 1 - Inertial Reference System (when installed). 2 - Flight Director and Auto Flight Control System. 3 - Air Data Computer. 4 - Flight Management Computer. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 1, 4. B) 1, 3. C) 2, 3, 4.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 19. The flight warning system (FWS) generates an advisory message if: A) crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be required. B) immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required. C) immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be required. D) crew awareness is required and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 20. If warning, caution, or advisory lights are installed in the flight deck, they must, unless otherwise approved by the Authority, be red for: A) warning lights. B) caution lights. C) advisory lights. D) other distress messages.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 21. An angle of attack sensor may consist of: 1 - an inertial system computing the difference between flight path and flight attitude 2 - a conical slotted probe which positions itself to determine the angle of attack 3 - a vane detector which positions the rotor of a synchro-transmitter The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 2, 3. B) 1, 2, 3. C) 1, 2. D) 1, 3.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 22. The altitude alerting system: A) alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitude. B) generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitude. C) alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity. D) alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 23. The GPWS is able to detect: 1 - excessive descent rate 2 - excessive terrain closing rate 3 - excessive angle of attack 4 - excessive descent pitch attitude The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: A) 1, 2. B) 1, 2, 3. C) 2, 4. D) 1, 4.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 24. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS II issues a: A) "traffic advisory" only. B) "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory". C) "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory". D) "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 25. According to CS25, a CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) must record: 1 - communications transmitted from or received in the aeroplane by radio 2 - communications of flight-crew members on the flight deck 3 - communications of flight-crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system 4 - audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 3, 4. B) 1, 2. C) 1, 3. D) 2, 4.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 26. If you are flying through turbulence, you can expect the IVSI to (1) __ . You should (2) __ gradual changes. A) (1) overread; (2) Ignore B) (1) under-read; (2) Ignore C) (1) over-read; (2) respond slowly to D) (1) under-read; (2) respond slowly to

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 27. INS/IRS are the main source of __________ data, and one of the main sources of navigation data in commercial aircraft. A) attitude B) heading C) direction D) altitude

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 28. Inertial systems require no external input except __________ to determine aircraft attitude and navigational data. A) TAS B) heading C) direction D) height

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 29. Early gyro-mechanically stabilised systems are conventionally called __________, while strap-down systems are called __________. A) INS; IRS B) IRS; INS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 30. __________ is stand-alone, __________ is integrated with the FMS. A) INS; IRS B) IRS; INS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 31. Accelerations are initially integrated to provide:Mark all correct answers. A) Vertical velocities. B) North-South velocities. C) East-West velocities. D) Horizontal velocities.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 32. The resulting velocities from the integration of accelerations are further integrated to give:Mark all the correct answers. A) North-South distance travelled. B) East-West distance travelled. C) Vertical distance travelled. D) True air speed

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 33. Corrections to the North-South, East-West and vertical velocities and distances travelled are needed to account for:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Gravity effect. B) Transport precession. C) Earth rate precession. D) Coriolis effect. E) Aircraft alignment. F) Hemispheric effect.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 34. Without access to the variation database or TAS the stand-alone INS can calculate: Mark 4 correct answers. A) Vertical velocity. B) Latitude and longitude. C) Groundspeed. D) True heading and true track. E) Wind direction. F) Magnetic heading.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 35. Stand-alone INS can calculate which of the following, with the additional input of TAS: A) Wind direction and speed. B) Magnetic heading and track. C) Latitude and longitude. D) True heading and true track.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 36. Stand-alone INS can calculate which of the following, when also provided with reference to a variation database: A) Magnetic heading and track. B) True heading and true track. C) Latitude and longitude. D) Wind direction and speed.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 37. Stand-alone INS position error is dependent on: Mark 4 correct answers. A) Computation errors. B) Gyro drift rate. C) Accelerometer bias. D) Platform misalignment. E) Power supply frequency drift. F) Equator error.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 38. __________ position is normally derived from a mathematical analysis of IRS, GNSS, DME VOR and LOC information. A) FMC mix B) aircraft C) IRS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 39. The aircraft must be __________ during alignment, so in-flight realignment is __________, although you may be able to recover attitude information. A) stationary; not possible B) moving; unreliable C) unpowered; slower D) stationary; unreliable

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 40. Aircraft position is __________ during alignment, which takes around __________ minutes at mid latitude, longer at higher latitudes. A) entered; 10 to 20 B) determined; 10 to 20 C) available; 10 to 20 D) entered; 5

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 41. Incorrect entry of latitude may lead to a loss of alignment, and is __________ critical than incorrect entry of longitude. A) more B) less

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 42. During alignment INS platforms are levelled and aligned with __________. A) True North B) Magnetic North C) True South D) Magnetic South

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 43. During alignment, accelerometers and computers determine orientation of the local _____ relative to the aircraft. A) vertical B) horizontal

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 44. During alignment IRS platforms determine the __________ and establish aircraft __________ heading. A) vertical; true B) horizontal; magnetic C) vertical; magnetic D) horizontal; true

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 45. Stand-alone INS typically has a position error of about __________ . A) 1 to 2 NM per hour. B) 5 to 10 NM per hour. C) 3 to 5 NM per hour. D) 0.1 to 0.5 NM per hour.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 46. Strap-down systems are fixed to the aircraft structure and normally consist of __________ and 3 accelerometers. A) 3 ring laser gyros B) 2 rate gyros C) 3 earth gyros D) 2 ring laser gyros

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 47. NAV' is selected on the IRS or ADIRU control panel. If alignment is complete the system will go into __________ mode. If alignment hasn't been carried out, the system will __________. A) Navigation; automatically enter ALIGN mode B) Alignment; automatically enter ALIGN mode C) Initial Position; automatically enter ALIGN mode D) Navigation; navigate with reduced accuracy E) Alignment; navigate with reduced accuracy F) Initial Position; navigate with reduced accuracy

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 48. On modern aircraft you will normally find 2, or more commonly 3: A) Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) each integrating an ADC and an IRU. B) IRUs and a combined air data concentrator. C) Air data systems and a combined inertial reference unit D) Inertial Navigation Systems with integrated Air Data Compensators.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 49. ATT. Selects the reversionary ‘Attitude’ mode.Which annunciator will be lit until the system is ready for use? It will supply pitch and role data as well as heading information although this requires a magnetic heading to be entered manually via the FMS CDU. A) ALIGN. B) FAULT. C) ATT. Attitude. D) NAV. Navigation.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 50. Selecting 'NAV' on the IRS / ADIRU controller: A) Set the unit in normal operation. B) Sets a reversion mode for when the ADC fails. C) Forces the FMC to use the IRU position in preference to GPS. D) Selects radio navigation in preference to inertial position information.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 51. Selecting 'ATT' on the IRS control panel: A) Is done following a failure indication to recover attitude information only. B) Starts the auto-alignment process. C) Allows a fast-align of the IRUs and will recover NAV functionality if the aircraft is straight and level. D) Allows updating of position as a navigation facility is overflown at a known time.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 52. Modern AHRS systems:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Provide attitude and heading information for display on an EFIS device. B) Are small, cheap and light, and suitable for even very small aircraft. C) Consist of solid-state accelerometers, gyroscopes and magnetometers. D) Consist of an ADC and an IRU. E) Are complex but highly accurate navigation and attitude reference systems suitable only for large aircraft. F) Are a hybrid device capable of updating any aircraft to CAT III.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 53. A traditional ring laser gyro (RLG) uses two laser beams travelling in __________ around a triangular path. The differences in the distances travelled due to the device's rotation causes a slight __________ which is measured to calculate the unit's rotation rate. A) opposite directions; frequency shift B) opposite directions; wave amplitude change C) the same direction; frequency shift D) the same direction; wave amplitude change

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 54. One of the advantages of the RLG compared with a mechanical gyro system is the __________. A) reduced time before alignment begins B) the ability to sense angular rotation in more than one plane C) They are more expensive, but relatively better value for money in terms of accuracy versus cost. D) They have very high-speed moving parts, providing greater accuracy.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 55. With an RLG system __________ can begin within a few seconds. A) alignment B) navigation

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 56. With an older generation mechanical rate gyro, rotation about the sensed axis causes _________ which is measured and used to calculate the rotation rate of the platform. A) precession B) wander C) frequency shift

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 57. The IRU's performance is checked post-flight by looking either at each unit’s residual __________ or the difference between each IRU's position and the position calculated by __________ . A) groundspeed; the FMC B) topple rate; the FMC C) groundspeed; the crew D) topple rate; the crew

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 58. The radio altimeter provides height information for pilots and aircraft systems including which of the following:Mark 3 correct answers. A) GPWS. B) Autothrust. C) Autoflight. D) Hydraulics. E) Pressurisation.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 59. Radio height is used for various auto-flight and system functions. Loss of signal may result in: A) Degraded function of systems requiring a radio height input. B) Reversion from fail active to fail passive autoland capability. C) Loss of vertical speed information below 1000 ft. D) Loss of altitude information below 2500 ft.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 60. The radio altimeter uses __________ wave, __________ modulated transmission. A) continuous; frequency B) intermittent; amplitude C) continuous; amplitude D) intermittent; frequency

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 61. The radio altimeter has __________ antenna,__________ for transmission, __________ for reception. A) 2; 1; 1 B) 3; 1; 2 C) 3; 2; 1 D) 2; 2; 0

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 62. A carrier wave with a linear ramp modulation is continuously transmitted by the radio altimeter.The system compares the __________ of the transmitted and received signals to determine the __________. A) frequency; height above the surface B) wavelength; height above the surface C) strength; height above the surface D) frequency; height above datum E) wavelength; height above datum F) strength; height above datum

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 63. In a radio altimeter, filtering prioritises the __________ frequency shift, so __________ surface is measured. A) lowest; nearest B) highest; nearest C) lowest; smoothest D) highest; furthest

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 64. The radio altimeter's antenna beam width is __________ to __________. A) very narrow; allow for typical pitch and roll attitudes B) very narrow; eliminate all sensing errors C) sufficiently wide; allow for typical pitch and roll attitudes D) sufficiently wide; eliminate all sensing errors

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 65. Radio Altimeter is calibrated to show __________ height in the landing attitude. A) wheel B) flight deck C) fuselage tail cone

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 66. What is the maximum altitude at which a radio altimeter provides indications?

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 67. During an instrument approach procedure, which of the following heights are radio altimeter alerts related to? A) decision B) runway C) obstacle D) terrain

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 68. The data used, and the code giving the instructions to the computer about what to do with the data, are known as: A) Software. B) Hardware. C) Interface. D) Equipment.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 69. A machine which manipulates data according to a list of instructions is called a __________. A) computer B) sensor

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 70. A computer, its associated equipment, and the devices used to input and output data are known as __________. A) Hardware. B) Software. C) Interface. D) Equipment.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 71. Digital data is moved within and between computers and input/output devices via a __________. A) data-bus B) data concentrator C) ethernet cable

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 72. The primary advantage of an external digital data-bus is: A) Reduced weight. B) Increased speed of transmission. C) Multiple redundant data paths within a single cable. D) Reduced requirement for electromagnetic shielding.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 73. Which of the following are valid inputs to, or outputs from, an ADC? A) Static pressure - input B) Dynamic pressure - input C) Air speed - output D) Altitude - output E) Vertical speed - output F) Angular accelerations - input

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 74. Which of the following are valid inputs to, or outputs from, an EGPWS/TAWS computer? A) GPS position - input. B) Terrain display on ND - output C) ADC data - input D) Terrain display on PFD - output

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 75. Which of the following statements about the FMS is/are correct? A) The CDU/MCDU is one way in which the crew may interact with the FMS. B) An FMS comprises one or more FMCs. C) An FMS outputs data to the PFD and ND. D) An FMS is a type of digital computer.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 76. Which of the following functions are managed from the EFIS control panel:Mark 5 correct answers. A) Altimeter pressure setting. B) Selecting either a Decision altitude (DA) / decision height (DH) selection. C) Selecting display modes on the ND. D) Adding or decluttering data displayed on the ND. E) Selecting radio navigation sources (VOR 1/2 and ADF 1/2). F) Switching on the flight director display for the PFD. G) Selecting display modes on the PFD and ND.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 77. A typical EFIS installation consists of: A) 2 identical DUs per pilot, with 2 more in the centre for other information. Data may be transferred from one display to another if a DU fails. B) 1 DU for each pilot and 2 central DUs which share information. C) 1 PFD DU and 1 ND DU per pilot, with EICAS DUs in the centre. They are not interchangeable but each can show all data. D) 3 identical DUs per pilot, with the inner one of each being able to share information or transfer data.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 78. An EFIS comprises:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Remote light sensors. B) Control panels. C) Display units (DUs). D) Symbol generators. E) One or more ADCs. F) At least one mechanical standby ADI.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 79. Typical PFD speed tape includes;Mark all correct answers. A) Bug/indication of selected airspeed. B) Rolling speed scale with numerical readout of current speed. C) Limiting airspeeds according to configuration. D) Take-off / landing reference speeds. E) Minimum airspeed. F) Minimum manoeuvre speed (Boeing) / lowest selectable airspeed (Airbus). G) Mach number. H) Speed trend vector. I) Taxiway speed limits. J) Fixed speed scale with rolling index.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 80. Selected Mach number is indicated by the: A) Speed bug on a corresponding IAS on the speed tape, Mach Number displayed as a numerical indication outside the speed tape and as a selected value on the MCP window. B) Speed bug on a corresponding IAS on the tape, with the Mach number shown as a numerical indication outside the tape. C) IAS values on the speed tape changing to Mach at the crossover altitude. The selected Mach number is in an enlarged font. D) Speed bug on a corresponding IAS on the tape, with the Mach number shown on the MCP speed window.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 81. Decision altitude/height is shown: A) Numerically on the PFD, and then decision height as an index on the radio altitude dial display. B) On the ND at the top right C) On the altitude tape next to the corresponding barometric altitude. D) Numerically on the ND, then decision altitude as an index on the radio altimeter dial display.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 82. The FMA is: A) Typically at the top of the PFD, and comprises boxes showing auto thrust, lateral and vertical modes engaged or armed. B) Typically on the ND, and comprises boxes showing RNP, ANP and position error. C) Typically at the bottom of the PFD, and shows when the autopilot and auto thrust are engaged or armed. D) Only useful when conducting an autoland.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 83. The ND (or EHSI) provides a mode-selectable colour navigation display. Typical display modes are:Mark 4 correct answers. A) PLAN. B) MAP (or ARC). C) VOR (or ROSE VOR). D) APP (or ROSE LS). E) ArcMap. F) RADIO ROSE. G) CENTRE LS.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 84. Which of the following is true? A) Appropriate range, mode and data selections made in flight can improve situation awareness. B) ND display mode selections should be left unchanged during flight. C) To avoid confusion, ND range selections should be left unchanged in flight, but display mode selections may be necessary. D) Either MAP or PLAN mode should be used for navigation during the cruise of flight.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 85. EFB provides an electronic replacement for paper documents and manuals. EFB hardware may be in the form of:Mark all correct answers. A) Integrated suites in the aircraft. B) Computer laptops. C) Tablet devices. D) Website or cloud-based applications.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 86. On older EFIS systems a single symbol generator (SG) failure affects __________ DU(s) so an operating ‘hot’ spare must be available. A) multiple B) single

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 87. A standby instrument system is necessary in case of complete EFIS failure. These instruments are __________. A) either mechanical or electronic B) always electronic C) always mechanical

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 88. Because of their location, standby instruments may be challenging to use from the__________ seat. A) right B) left

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 89. Radio altitude is shown numerically on PFD when the aircraft is at or below 2500 ft. On many aircraft it changes to a white analogue display during the approach. It changes to an amber colour on descent through __________. A) DH B) the Mapt

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 90. On a PFD: A) Heading/track information is shown either on a laterally scrolling scale or on a compass rose. B) A numerical indication shows the current heading/track. C) A heading track bug indicates the selected heading/track. D) A heading track bug indicates the current heading.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 91. PLAN mode is used __________. A) for checking your flight plan before flight. B) for flying your flight plan in flight.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 92. Plan mode is oriented __________. Heading information is not displayed. The currently selected waypoint (on the CDU) is displayed at the centre of the screen. A) North up B) Track up C) North down D) Track down

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 93. EFB software 'type' certification can be either: A) Type A - Misuse or malfunction has no adverse effect on flight safety, and Type B - applications where evaluation of the hazards presented by misuse or malfunction are required. B) Type 1 - no adverse effects on flight safety if it fails, or Type 2 - minor risk of major incident if it fails. C) Type 1 - small risks from misuse or malfunction, or Type 2 - larger risks from misuse of malfunction. D) Type A - No measured risk from misuse or malfunction, and Type B - acceptable measured risk from misuse or malfunction.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 94. Expanded map modes show similar data to full/rose modes but show a compass arc of about __________ degrees.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 95. Match the risks to the associated EFB application:Mass and balance calculations: - errors could result in __________ or out-of-limits loading A) over-weight B) data entry C) charts D) FCOM

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 96. Match the risks to the associated EFB application:Performance calculations: - errors of __________ or calculation could result in runway overrun. A) data entry B) MEL C) charts D) FCOM

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 97. Match the risks to the associated EFB application:Access to charts: - Approach __________ necessary for a safe approach may be unavailable. A) charts B) data entry C) over-weight D) FCOM

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 98. Match the risks to the associated EFB application:Access to manuals: - __________or FCOM information required in flight may not be available. A) MEL B) data entry C) charts D) FCOM

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 99. A typical EFIS installation comprises: A) 2 identical DUs per pilot, with 2 more in the centre for other information. Data may be transferred from one display to another if a DU fails. B) 1 PFD DU and 1 ND DU per pilot, with EICAS DUs in the centre. They are not interchangeable but each can show all data. C) 3 identical DUs per pilot, with the inner one of each being able to share information or transfer data. D) 1 DU for each pilot and 2 central DUs which share information.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 100. PFD attitude information comprises an attitude indicator, with __________ symbol. A) an aircraft B) a bank angle

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 101. __________ __________ command bars are superimposed when selected by the pilot. A) Flight director B) Flight organiser C) Flight supervisor

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 102. Which of the following are associated with the PFD altitude display? A) Pressure datum setting. B) A bug showing selected/target speed. C) Highlighted altitude information under certain conditions. D) A numerical display of the current altitude. E) A scrolling altitude tape.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 103. Which of the following statements about the vertical speed display is/are correct? A) The vertical speed display can show certain types of TCAS RA guidance information. B) Vertical speed is shown to the right of the speed tape. C) Vertical speed is shown to the left of the altitude tape. D) Vertical speed is shown on the PFD and ND

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 104. Which of the following are features of the ND in MAP(Arc) display mode? A) An aircraft symbol is shown at the centre of a compass scale and range markers. B) Selected heading and track is displayed. C) TAS/GS is displayed. D) Data from the navigation database such as airports, waypoints or navigation facilities can be shown if desired. E) Raw data from VOR and ADF can't be shown in this mode - only in ROSE mode. F) Data from the navigation database such as airports, waypoints or navigation facilities is always displayed. G) The display is oriented North-up.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 105. Which of the following are typical components of a HUD system?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Projector and stowable combiner unit. B) Controls including declutter and dimmer. C) The display guidance computer (DGC), or HUD computer. D) Computer, sometimes known as the GGS. E) Stowable depictor-combiner.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 106. Which of the following are valid reasons for, and benefits of, a HUD system?Mark all correct answers. A) Improved accuracy of flying, leading to lower chance of aircraft upset. B) Increased situational awareness owing to a reduced need to look inside to view the PFD. C) Reduced minima for departure. D) Reduced minima for landing. E) Easier to fly a high-speed approach to save time and ease congestion

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 107. Which of the following information may be included on a HUD display?Mark all correct answers. A) Runway symbol on final approach. B) Altitude. C) Speed including speed trend. D) Heading. E) Flight path vector (track and vertical flight path). F) Flight mode annunciator (FMA). G) CAS/TCAS, TAWS and wind shear command annunciations. H) Speed trend only. I) CAS/TCAS, TAWS and wind shear warnings with prompt to refer to the PFD.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 108. Which of the following statements about a HUD system are true?Mark 2 correct answers. A) It is possible to declutter the display using a manual control. B) The HUD's normal display mode may automatically adapt the information shown based on the flight phase. C) Most HUD systems incorporate a synthetic display. D) A HUD completely removes the need for the PF to look at the main instrument panel.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 109. Which feature matches which system?An enhanced database used as reference to show ground features and obstructions on the PFD or HUD. A) SVS B) EVS C) CVS D) AVS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 110. Which feature matches which system?Uses external sensors such as IR cameras to generate a real-time image on the PFD or HUD. A) EVS B) SVS C) CVS D) AVS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 111. Which feature matches which system?Limited because it is not based on sensory information so cannot reduce your approach minima. A) SVS B) EVS C) CVS D) AVS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 112. Which feature matches which system?Has limited sensitivity because it uses temperature and temperature differences to produce an image. A) EVS B) SVS C) CVS D) AVS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 113. Which feature matches which system?Has safety implications if the aircraft's positioning accuracy is degraded. A) SVS B) EVS C) CVS D) AVS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 114. Which feature matches which system?Enables reduced minima on take-off and landing because of the greater visibility afforded to the pilot. A) EVS B) SVS C) CVS D) AVS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 115. Which feature matches which system?A system integrating 2 systems to give a wide angle of view, combined with a real-time image. A) CVS B) SVS C) EVS D) AVS

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 116. Which of the following statements about data link transmissions are true? Data links:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Reduce pilot and controller workload. B) Allow clearer communications. C) Reduce voice radio frequency congestion. D) Reduce misunderstandings and the need to repeat messages. E) Increase pilot and controller workload. F) Increase voice radio frequency congestion.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 117. The terms 'uplink' and 'downlink': A) Describe messages sent to and from an aircraft respectively. B) Describe which equipment controls the link. Messages sent to an AOC are downlinks and messages sent to ATC are uplinks. C) Are analogous to PC internet data. Data sent from the aircraft is an uplink and received data is a downlink. D) Describe the highest transmitter. When the aircraft is on the ground, received messages are downlinks; when in the air, they are called uplinks. The opposite is true for messages sent.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 118. Which of the following statement(s) about Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B) is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Currently, all traffic over 5700 kg, or operating IFR, must have ADS-B by 2020. B) Suitably equipped aircraft can receive ADS-B broadcasts. C) ADS-B transmits about every second. D) ADS-B transmits registration plus other aircraft information, GNSS data, 3-D velocity and altitude. E) ADS-B is limited to line-of-sight between air and ground stations, but ALAS augments this using satcom. F) ADS-B enhances and may replace secondary surveillance radar. G) All traffic operating VFR is required to have ADS-B. H) ADS-B transmits registration, GPS data, heading and altitude. I) ADS-B transmits about every minute.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 119. Which of the following statement(s) about ADS-C is/are correct?Mark 4 correct answers. A) .*All but Emergency ADS-C contracts are initiated by ATC. B) ADS-C relies on downlink reports from aircraft avionics systems in accordance with contracts established with ATC. C) ADS-C initial logon is initiated by the crew. D) ADS-C contracts include Periodic, Demand, Event and Emergency contracts. E) All but Period ADS-C contracts are initiated by the crew. F) All ADS-C messages are released manually by the crew.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 120. ADS-C Period contracts.... A) Are sent at a time interval set by ATC when they establish the contract. B) Are sent every 5 minutes. C) Are sent every 8 minutes. D) Are sent at a time interval published in the AIP for the airspace concerned.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 121. A type of ADS-C contract often sent to multiple aircraft simultaneously is the … A) Demand contract. B) Emergency contract. C) Period contract. D) Event contract.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 122. The type of ADS-C contract where multiple contracts can be established with the same aircraft simultaneously is the… A) Event contract. B) Period contract. C) Emergency contract. D) Demand contract.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 123. ADS-C Event contracts require downlinks when the specified event occurs. Events used in FANS 1/A are:Mark 4 correct answers. A) Waypoint change. B) Vertical rate change. C) Lateral deviation. D) Altitude range change. E) FIR change. F) Navigation accuracy change.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 124. CPDLC is: A) A text message system between pilots and ATC, using pre-formatted Request, Response, Report and clearance messages. B) A text message system between pilots and ATC, using pre-formatted Requirement, Resolution and Report messages. C) A text message system between pilots and ATC, using free-format messages. D) A text message system between pilots and ATC used in emergency only.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 125. ADS-C Emergency contracts are: A) Established by the pilot. They highlight the aircraft to ATC and send frequent downlinks. B) Established by the aircraft automatically when a Master Warning is triggered. C) Established by ATC after receiving a PAN PAN or a MAYDAY call. They require downlinks every minute. D) Established by either ATC or the crew in response to any emergency.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 126. Which of the following are CNS/ATM applications used by FANS 1/A equipment? A) AFN, ADS and CPDLC using the ACARS network. B) ADS and CPDLC only. C) AFN, ADS and CPDLC using the ATN network. D) ACARS, AFN, ADS and CPDLC.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 127. ATCU ACARS messages include:Mark 3 correct answers. A) D-ATIS. B) Pre-departure clearances. C) Oceanic clearances. D) OOOI event messages. E) Technical data downlinks.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 128. ICAO CNS/ATM: A) Is a protocol for data link based communication navigation and surveillance between ATCUs and aircraft. B) Is a protocol for data link based communication between ATCUs and aircraft. C) Is a protocol for satellite based navigation. D) Is a type of FANS 1/B equipment.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 129. Select the characteristics of the communication links that are used in aircraft:Global coverage: A) SATCOM B) HF C) VHF D) VHF & SATCOM

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 130. Select the characteristics of the communication links that are used in aircraft:Short-range (line of sight): A) VHF B) HF C) SATCOM D) VHF & SATCOM

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 131. Select the characteristics of the communication links that are used in aircraft:Range affected by ionospheric conditions: A) HF B) SATCOM C) VHF D) VHF & SATCOM

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 132. Select the characteristics of the communication links that are used in aircraft:High quality transmission: A) VHF & SATCOM B) HF C) SATCOM D) VHF

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 133. Select the characteristics of the communication links that are used in aircraft:High transmission rate: A) VHF & SATCOM B) HF C) SATCOM D) VHF

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 134. Select the characteristics of the communication links that are used in aircraft:Medium transmission rate: A) HF B) SATCOM C) VHF D) VHF & SATCOM E) Annunciator

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 135. Match the descriptions and to one of the given components:Can receive messages from the ground and the flight deck. A) Printer B) ATSU C) DCDU D) CDU/MCDU E) Annunciator

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 136. Match the descriptions and to one of the given components:Computer connecting to ground services using the most cost-effective means available. A) ATSU B) Printer C) DCDU D) CDU/MCDU E) Annunciator

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 137. Match the descriptions and to one of the given components:Used where integration cannot provide functionality needed. A) DCDU B) Printer C) ATSU D) CDU/MCDU E) Annunciator

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 138. Match the descriptions and to one of the given components:Provides interface for input and output of data in the flight deck. A) CDU/MCDU B) Printer C) ATSU D) DCDU E) Annunciator

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 139. Match the descriptions and to one of the given components:Used where integration is impractical, and provides data input/output. A) DCDU B) Printer C) ATSU D) CDU/MCDU E) Annunciator

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 140. Match the descriptions and to one of the given components:Informs pilots of the receipt of messages. A) Annunciator B) Printer C) ATSU D) DCDU E) CDU/MCDU

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 141. Which of the following is true? A) FMS integrates with engine, fuel, autoflight and other systems, shares data with them, and provides outputs to many systems depending on its level of complexity. B) FMS are stand-alone systems which are 'firewalled' to protect them from contamination from faulty data from other systems. C) FMS shares a special bus with FADEC and autoflight systems which is separate from all other systems and protected from pilot data error. D) FMS outputs to many aircraft systems but is protected by data not being allowed in from the databusses.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 142. The area of the CDU screen reserved for data entry, before it is inserted into the system, is known as: A) The scratchpad. B) An optional data field. C) A compulsory data field.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 143. A data field, identified by empty boxes, is a: A) A compulsory data field. B) The scratchpad. C) An optional data field.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 144. A data entry field containing underscore dashes is a: A) Optional data field. B) Compulsory data field. C) Scratchpad area.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 145. An accurate aircraft clock is important because: A) It provides a time reference for ACARS, ADS, CPDLC and engine and systems maintenance. B) It provides a time reference for FMC speed calculations. C) It is used to calculate the time remaining to the active waypoint and groundspeed. D) GMT time is added to the radar plot of the aircraft when mode S is in use.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 146. Data provided by FMS (FMGS) includes:Mark all correct answers. A) Altitude/flight level predictions. B) Lateral and vertical navigation guidance. C) Present position. D) Time predictions. E) Fuel predictions.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 147. Which of the following is NOT true? A) Incorrect data is almost always of no consequence because of multiple system redundancy and cross-comparison. B) Garbage in/garbage out - the FMS can only make correct calculations and predictions if given accurate data. C) Incorrect waypoint entry would lead to a failure to follow the cleared route. D) Incorrect performance data could lead to a failure to reach an assigned altitude by the required point.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 148. Abnormal configurations affect the accuracy of FMC calculations during flight… A) Where the FMC cannot detect the failure, and the pilot cannot or does not enter the configuration change into the FMC. B) If the FMC is unable to correct the configuration. C) Always resulting in inaccurate FMC calculations. D) Only while the FC re-initialises as it learns the new fuel/distance/time relationship.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 149. Which of the following are valid types of sensor inputs for FMS position fixing?Mark all correct answers. A) Runway threshold B) GNSS C) IRS D) DME E) VOR F) NDB

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 150. The navigation database provides:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Data relating to navigation such as airports, runways, navigation facilities, airways and airspace. B) Information which enables the FMS to define a lateral flight path. C) Navigation and regulation information to enable accurate and compliant flight planning. D) All data relating to the operation of the aircraft, such as radio beacons, navigation aids, cost indices, weight and balance limitations and performance margins. E) All the navigation and performance data used by the FMS and FADEC.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 151. Waypoints and pseudo-waypoints (offsets from database items) can be defined by:Mark all correct answers. A) Latitude/Longitude manual entry. B) Place/bearing distance (PBD). C) Place/bearing/place/bearing (PBX). D) Place/distance (PD). E) Time/bearing/place/time (TBT)

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 152. The aircraft performance database: A) Is used to determine optimum cruise flight level. B) Is used to calculate optimum climb, cruise and descent speeds. C) Is used to calculate maximum thrust settings. D) Contains the engine thrust rating, the aircraft variant and the aircraft performance manual data. E) Is used to determine the best alternate aerodrome in case of weather diversion. F) Can be edited by the crew. G) Contains crew-entered performance calculations.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 153. Why is it important to verify the correct aircraft variant and engine rating are set in the FMS? A) If the incorrect variant or engine rating is set, speeds, optimum cruise altitudes and thrust setting limits will be incorrect. B) The performance database will not allow access to the FMC unless the correct data is set. C) Unless the correct variant is set, speed and altitude calculations can't be made. D) Incorrect data will lead to a runway excursion on take-off.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 154. Which of the following statements are accurate for some types of aircraft?Mark all correct answers. A) Fuel prediction accuracy depends on changes in load, winds, climb profile and assigned cruise flight level. B) Fuel used is subtracted from initial fuel on board to find the calculated fuel on board. This is compared with totalizer fuel. C) Fuel used by all engines since engine start is displayed; this is added to fuel remaining for comparison against initial fuel on board. D) Comparing actual fuel at a waypoint with predicted fuel at a waypoint is a useful fuel consumption check. E) Fuel remaining is always the figure shown against the waypoint on the computer flight plan.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 155. Which of the following statement(s) is/are accurate?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Database-loaded approaches remove potential errors such as incorrect tuning or selecting the wrong final approach course. B) FMS position can be derived from multiple sources using combined inputs. C) Reduction in available position inputs to the FMS (particularly GNSS) may lead to RNP criteria not being achieved. D) FMS position is only ever derived from a single source of position data, whichever is deemed at the time to be the most accurate. E) Database-loaded approaches may be modified with additional user-selected waypoints to assist with energy management.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 156. Which of the following statements(s) is/are accurate?Mark all correct answers. A) Situational awareness can be improved by adding user-defined points to routes, for example to assist with descent planning. B) The crew cannot edit the navigation database. C) The crew can add user-defined waypoint and routes into the FMS. D) The company can edit the navigation database to define its own CO ROUTES, departures and approaches.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 157. The AIRAC cycle is __________days. Data is rigorously controlled and verified.

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 158. There are always 2 navigation databases: the __________ and the standby databases. A) active B) current C) latest D) effective

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 159. The next database in the AIRAC cycle is loaded into the system by the __________ several days before the effective date. A) engineers B) crew C) flight despatcher D) ATC

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 160. The __________ have ultimate responsibility for ensuring that the new database is made active on the effective date. A) crew B) engineers C) flight despatchers D) ATC

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 161. The __________ page shows the aircraft variant, engine type and rating and the period of validity of the navigation database. A) IDENT B) Performance C) Route D) Position

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 162. The __________ page shows the aircraft's current position for IRS alignment and FMS position. A) Position B) Performance C) Route D) IDENT

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 163. The __________ page shows departure, destination and alternate airfields. A) Route B) Performance C) Position D) IDENT

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 164. The __________ page shows SIDs, airways and STARs. A) Route B) Performance C) Position D) IDENT

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 165. The __________page shows aircraft mass, flap setting, FLEX/assumed temperature/derate, and take-off speeds. A) Performance B) Route C) Position D) IDENT

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 166. How long will the ADIRU alignment approximately take at around 60° North?

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 167. A stable platform inertial navigation system uses:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 168. The sensors of an INS measure:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 169. In a ring laser gyro, the dither motor prevents lock-in:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 170. The principle of a laser gyro is based on:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 171. Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats. In which of the following formats can waypoints be entered into all INSs?

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 172. Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 173. The strapdown IRS:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 174. To obtain at a given moment the instantaneous speed from the accelerations:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 175. In an inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 176. IRS is a self-contained system because:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 177. During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 178. A message or data downlink means:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 179. ACARS allows air/ground datalink communications for:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 180. Comparing the media used to transmit datalink communications, the appropriate classification from the slowest to the fastest data transmission rate is:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 181. What is the purpose of an onboard ATSU?

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 182. Routes where the FANS-1/A concept is used:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 183. The FANS concept makes use of:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 184. FANS was developed by ICAO:

A-INST2-PT01.A.pdf | 185. How is a peripheral device like a printer or a supplemental hard drive directly connected to a computer?