A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 1. ACAS II is: A) An ICAO standard for anti-collision systems. B) The brand name of the system developed by Honeywell which automatically deconflicts traffic. C) A computer system in ATC centres which coordinates traffic automatically to avoid collisions. D) A device which helps aircraft avoid collisions with other traffic.
A) An ICAO standard for anti-collision systems.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 2. Which of the following statements about ACAS is/are true?Mark 2 correct answers. A) ACAS II systems issue commands in the vertical plane only. On most types, you must manually manoeuvre the aircraft to comply with the command. B) ACAS defines collision avoidance standards, without specifying a minimum separation between aircraft. C) ACAS defines anti-collision systems which give a minimum 300 ft separation between conflicting aircraft. D) ACAS II systems can only deal with 1 threat aircraft at a time.
A) ACAS II systems issue commands in the vertical plane only. On most types, you must manually manoeuvre the aircraft to comply with the command. B) ACAS defines collision avoidance standards, without specifying a minimum separation between aircraft.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 3. A TCAS RA: A) May not require any change of pitch; no manoeuvre should be started until the required control inputs needed are understood. B) Always requires a change of pitch of 3 to 4 degrees only. C) May require a reversal of the initial commands if ATC override the RA. D) Must only be complied with if no conflict with ATC instructions exists.
A) May not require any change of pitch; no manoeuvre should be started until the required control inputs needed are understood.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 4. Which of the following statements about ACAS II compliant systems is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Traffic is shown with an arrow up or down if their rate of change of altitude is greater than 500 fpm. B) If conflicting aircraft both have ACAS II systems, the RAs will be coordinated. C) Climb commands may be given to avoid an aircraft above - instinctive inputs could cause a greater risk of collision. D) Light aircraft, without altitude reporting, at airfields close to large airports can cause distracting TAs but not RAs. E) Detected aircraft, without altitude reporting, can create a RA but cannot be coordinated.
A) Traffic is shown with an arrow up or down if their rate of change of altitude is greater than 500 fpm. B) If conflicting aircraft both have ACAS II systems, the RAs will be coordinated. C) Climb commands may be given to avoid an aircraft above - instinctive inputs could cause a greater risk of collision. D) Light aircraft, without altitude reporting, at airfields close to large airports can cause distracting TAs but not RAs.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 5. Which of the following statements about TCAS II system interrogations is/are true?Mark all correct answers. A) TCAS interrogations normally occur every second. B) The transponder uses 2 omnidirectional antennae to respond to ATC Mode S interrogations. C) The TCAS computer has 2 directional antennae to receive broadcasts from other aircraft. D) Traffic can be detected at 35 to 40 miles horizontally. E) In any setting traffic up to 2000 ft above and below is detected. F) TCAS functions are limited to 2% of transponder time. G) Setting 'ABV' or 'BLW' extends the height limit to 5000 ft. H) ATC radar requirements for Mode S transponder capacity are protected by increased surveillance.
A) TCAS interrogations normally occur every second. B) The transponder uses 2 omnidirectional antennae to respond to ATC Mode S interrogations. C) The TCAS computer has 2 directional antennae to receive broadcasts from other aircraft. D) Traffic can be detected at 35 to 40 miles horizontally. E) In any setting traffic up to 2000 ft above and below is detected. F) TCAS functions are limited to 2% of transponder time.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 6. To be detected by TCAS II, intruders need to be equipped with:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Mode S, to generate coordinated RAs. B) Mode A, to generate TAs (but not RAs). C) Mode C, to generate RAs. D) Mode A, to generate RAs (but not TAs). E) Mode C, to generate coordinated TAs.
A) Mode S, to generate coordinated RAs. B) Mode A, to generate TAs (but not RAs). C) Mode C, to generate RAs.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 7. The criteria used to trigger an alarm (TA or RA) are: A) The time to closest point of approach (TAU) and the difference of altitude. B) SAU and radio altitude. C) The time to closest point of approach (CPA) and TAU. D) The magnitude of closest point of approach (TAU) and the difference of altitude.
A) The time to closest point of approach (TAU) and the difference of altitude.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 8. Proximate' traffic is: A) Less than 6 nm and 1200 ft from the aircraft. B) Less than 4 nm and 2000 ft from the aircraft. C) More than 6 nm and 2000 ft from the aircraft. D) Between 4 nm and 6 nm from the aircraft.
A) Less than 6 nm and 1200 ft from the aircraft.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 9. Which of the following statements about TCAS display traffic symbols is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The symbols may have an adjacent arrow indicating the traffic's vertical speed, if it exceeds 500 fpm. B) The symbols are positioned on the display, based on their relative bearing and distance. C) The symbols are labelled with altitude difference in hundreds of feet. D) All traffic symbols are yellow, except RAs which are red.
A) The symbols may have an adjacent arrow indicating the traffic's vertical speed, if it exceeds 500 fpm. B) The symbols are positioned on the display, based on their relative bearing and distance. C) The symbols are labelled with altitude difference in hundreds of feet.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 10. TA symbols are: A) Solid amber (EVSI) or yellow (ND) circles. B) White filled diamonds. C) Red squares. D) Yellow circles or diamonds.
A) Solid amber (EVSI) or yellow (ND) circles.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 11. TCAS RA visual indications comprise: A) On some aircraft, a red 'avoid' trapezium on the PFD. B) A red square on the EVSI or ND. C) A red area on the VSI scale. D) On some aircraft, a green area on the VSI. E) On some aircraft, a red-filled avoid area in the HUD.
A) On some aircraft, a red 'avoid' trapezium on the PFD. B) A red square on the EVSI or ND. C) A red area on the VSI scale. D) On some aircraft, a green area on the VSI.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 12. Movement of traffic symbols on the horizontal display: A) Should not be interpreted as tracks because the system's design makes this unreliable. B) Are accurately displayed tracks because the directional antennae are carefully calibrated. C) Is a reliable indicator of aircraft tracks, but only at low altitudes. D) Does not indicate the relative bearing of proximate traffic.
A) Should not be interpreted as tracks because the system's design makes this unreliable.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 13. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:Displayed as a hollow diamond. A) Other Traffic B) Resolution Advisory C) Proximate Traffic D) Traffic Advisory
A) Other Traffic
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 14. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:Displayed as a solid red square. A) Resolution Advisory B) Other Traffic C) Proximate Traffic D) Traffic Advisory
A) Resolution Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 15. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:Displayed as a solid diamond. A) Proximate Traffic B) Other Traffic C) Resolution Advisory D) Traffic Advisory
A) Proximate Traffic
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 16. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:Displayed as a solid yellow circle. A) Traffic Advisory B) Other Traffic C) Resolution Advisory D) Proximate Traffic
A) Traffic Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 17. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:Associated with aural alert 'traffic, traffic'. A) Traffic Advisory B) Other Traffic C) Resolution Advisory D) Proximate Traffic
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 18. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:Associated with multiple aural alerts e.g. 'climb, climb'. A) Resolution Advisory B) Other Traffic C) Proximate Traffic D) Traffic Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 19. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:Will draw red areas on the EVSI or PFD VSI. A) Resolution Advisory B) Other Traffic C) Proximate Traffic D) Traffic Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 20. Match the description to the correct TCAS output:May be preventative or corrective. A) Resolution Advisory B) Other Traffic C) Proximate Traffic D) Traffic Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 21. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:ACAS II systems use the Modes S transponder to interrogate traffic. A) True B) False
A) True
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 22. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:ACAS II systems use the Mode C transponder to receive other traffics' Mode S broadcasts. A) False B) True
A) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 23. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:The relative position of intruders is determined from their GNSS position. A) False B) True
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 24. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:The direction of intruders is found using direction-finding antennae. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 25. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:The distance of intruders is calculated from the time taken to receive replies. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 26. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:ADC data is used to calculate the relative altitude of intruders and to inhibit 'climb' RAs when performance is limited. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 27. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:RA data is used to inhibit certain RAs below set heights. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 28. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:RA data is used to inhibit aural warnings below set heights. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 29. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:FWC data is used to inhibit RAs during wind shear and GPWS warnings. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 30. Identify if the following statements about ACAS II system architecture are true or false:Flap and gear position do not affect TAs or RAs. A) False B) True
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 31. Identify if the following statements about TCAS II systems are true or false:The time limit to CPA depends on the aircraft's altitude and the system's sensitivity level (SL). The value to trigger an RA is between 15 and 35 seconds. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 32. Identify if the following statements about TCAS II systems are true or false:The intended vertical separation given by an RA is 300 ft to 600 ft (700 ft above FL420) depending on the sensitivity level (SL). A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 33. Identify if the following statements about TCAS II systems are true or false:No RA can be generated below 1000 ft above the ground. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 34. Identify if the following statements about TCAS II systems are true or false:'Increase Descent' RAs are inhibited above 1450 ft above the ground. A) False B) True
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 35. Identify if the following statements about TCAS II systems are true or false:At high altitudes, aircraft performance is taken into account to inhibit 'climb' and 'increase climb' RAs. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 36. Identify the type of TCA's aural alert:'Monitor vertical speed'. A) Preventive Advisory B) Corrective Advisory C) Traffic Advisory
A) Preventive Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 37. Identify the type of TCA's aural alert:'Climb, climb'. A) Corrective Advisory B) Preventive Advisory C) Traffic Advisory
A) Corrective Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 38. Identify the type of TCA's aural alert:Climb, crossing climb'. A) Corrective Advisory B) Preventive Advisory C) Traffic Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 39. Identify the type of TCA's aural alert:'Traffic, traffic'. A) Traffic Advisory B) Preventive Advisory C) Corrective Advisory
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 40. Vertical speed: A) Is shown as a needle against a logarithmic scale, with TCAS commands shown as a red 'avoid' and green 'fly to' areas on the scale. B) Is normally minimized, but is restored to a linear analogue scale when TCAS commands (red avoid areas) are active. C) Is displayed only when TCAS RA commands are active, and are a pseudo-ironic digital ensemble. D) Is shown as a needle against a linear scale.
A) Is shown as a needle against a logarithmic scale, with TCAS commands shown as a red 'avoid' and green 'fly to' areas on the scale.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 41. The purpose of GPWS is to: A) Warn of potential controlled flight into terrain. B) Prevent controlled flight into terrain. C) Prevent excessive rates of descent, within predefined parameters. D) Prevent closure with terrain below predefined limits.
A) Warn of potential controlled flight into terrain.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 42. Inputs to the GPWS system include:Mark 5 correct answers. A) ILS glide slope deviation. B) Radio altitude. C) Barometric altitude. D) Airspeed. E) Aircraft configuration. F) ILS localiser. G) GNSS altitude. H) Groundspeed.
A) ILS glide slope deviation. B) Radio altitude. C) Barometric altitude. D) Airspeed. E) Aircraft configuration.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 43. GPWS aural warnings are: A) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP' for modes 1 and 2 only, and 'WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR' for mode 7.' B) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP' for modes 1, 2, 4, and 7. C) PULL UP, PULL UP, PULL UP' for modes 1, 2, and 4. D) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP' for modes 1, 2, 4, and 5.
A) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP' for modes 1 and 2 only, and 'WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR' for mode 7.'
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 44. GPWS visual warnings can be: A) Red 'PULL UP' or 'WIND SHEAR' on PFD, and/or red warning lights on the glareshield. B) Amber captions on the PFD and red warning lights on the glareshield. C) Amber 'PULL UP, PULL UP on the ND, and/or amber warning lights on the glareshield. D) Red 'PULL, UP, PULL UP' on the PFD, ND and CDU, or red warning lights on the glareshield.
A) Red 'PULL UP' or 'WIND SHEAR' on PFD, and/or red warning lights on the glareshield.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 45. Which of the following are accurate comparisons of TAWS with GPWS: A) TAWS has all the GPWS modes and also has advanced terrain warnings. B) TAWS and GPWS are identical and synonymous. C) TAWS refers to GPWS which also has GNSS position and altitude information to refine Mode 1 and Mode 4. D) TAWS has advanced terrain modes, whereas GPWS only has a terrain awareness display.
A) TAWS has all the GPWS modes and also has advanced terrain warnings.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 46. The inputs available to TAWS include:Mark all correct answers. A) Geometric altitude. B) All the inputs available to GPWS. C) Global terrain and obstructions database information. D) GNSS position information. E) ADIRU position information. F) An internet-based airfield database updated in real-time.
A) Geometric altitude. B) All the inputs available to GPWS. C) Global terrain and obstructions database information. D) GNSS position information. E) ADIRU position information.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 47. TAWS look-ahead terrain alerts and warnings may comprise:Mark all correct answers. A) On some types, a red visual warning 'TERRAIN' on the ND. B) Alerts triggered 40 to 60 seconds from potential impact. C) The aural alert 'CAUTION TERRAIN' and the amber visual alert 'TERRAIN' on the PFD. D) The aural warning 'TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP' or 'TERRAIN AHEAD PULL UP'. E) The red visual warning 'PULL UP' on the PFD. F) Warnings triggered 20 to 30 seconds after potential impact.
A) On some types, a red visual warning 'TERRAIN' on the ND. B) Alerts triggered 40 to 60 seconds from potential impact. C) The aural alert 'CAUTION TERRAIN' and the amber visual alert 'TERRAIN' on the PFD. D) The aural warning 'TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP' or 'TERRAIN AHEAD PULL UP'. E) The red visual warning 'PULL UP' on the PFD.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 48. EGPWS/TAWS relies on accurate position data. Consequently: A) There is a risk of no warning, or false warnings, of potential impact with terrain. Terrain function should be inhibited if position accuracy is downgraded. B) Warnings should be disregarded if position accuracy is in doubt, or if the EPU is greater than 2 nm. C) The system won't generate alerts or warnings if the EPU/EPE/ANP is greater than 2 nm. D) Excessive position accuracy commonly generates spurious warnings. In this case, obtain clearance from ATC before climbing.
A) There is a risk of no warning, or false warnings, of potential impact with terrain. Terrain function should be inhibited if position accuracy is downgraded.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 49. TAWS spurious warnings can be caused by:Mark all correct answers. A) Excessive rate of descent and high speed will trigger warnings based on time to impact on the current trajectory. B) Excessive air speed when at low level and approaching a turn, beyond which is rising terrain. C) Excessive rate of descent; TAWS is unaware of the level-off altitude and will alert based on time to impact on the current trajectory. D) Excessive rate of descent if the level-off altitude in the MCP is less than 1000 ft above the height of the terrain.
A) Excessive rate of descent and high speed will trigger warnings based on time to impact on the current trajectory. B) Excessive air speed when at low level and approaching a turn, beyond which is rising terrain. C) Excessive rate of descent; TAWS is unaware of the level-off altitude and will alert based on time to impact on the current trajectory.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 50. GPWS produces audio and visual __________ when the outer envelope is encroached. You must __________. A) alerts; adjust the flight path B) warnings; adjust the flight path C) alerts; press the master caution twice D) warnings; press the master caution twice
A) alerts; adjust the flight path
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 51. GPWS audio and visual __________ are triggered when the inner envelope is encroached. This requires immediate action to achieve a maximum__________ climb until terrain clearance is assured. A) warnings; angle B) warnings; rate C) alerts; angle D) alerts; rate
A) warnings; angle
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 52. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Terrain clearance insufficient when not in the landing configuration.
4
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 53. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Excessive terrain closure rate, even if not descending.
2
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 54. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Altitude call- outs when preset radio altitudes are passed.
6
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 55. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Visual 'SINK RATE' on PFD, aural 'SINK RATE, SINK RATE' alert.
1
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 56. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Aural alert 'BANK ANGLE' when the bank angle is excessive.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 57. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Excessive rate of descent at low altitude triggers a warning.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 58. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:An alert is triggered by excessive deviation below the ILS glide slope.
5
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 59. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Altitude loss after take-off or go-around triggers an alert.
3
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 60. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:A high rate of descent at low altitude triggers an alert.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 61. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Generates a reactive wind shear alert or warning when below 1500 ft.
7
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 62. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:A visual 'DON'T SINK' on the PFD, and an aural 'DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK'.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 63. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:An aural 'TERRAIN, TERRAIN alert and a visual 'TERRAIN' on the PFD.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 64. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Visual and aural alerts can be 'TOO LOW GEAR' or 'TOO LOW FLAP' or 'TOO LOW TERRAIN'.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 65. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Inhibited close to the ground to avoid nuisance warnings during landing.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 66. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Visual 'GLIDE SLOPE' on the PFD and an aural 'GLIDE SLOPE' alert.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 67. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Aural alert 'CAUTION WIND SHEAR' and a visual 'WIND SHEAR' on PFD.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 68. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Aural 'WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR' warning and a visual 'WIND SHEAR' on PFD.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 69. Select the Mode associated this description of conventional GPWS:Can be inhibited by the crew.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 70. Identify if the following statements about TAWS advanced terrain warnings are true or false:They are determined by comparing GNSS/ADIRU position and geometric altitude with the terrain/obstructions database. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 71. Identify if the following statements about TAWS advanced terrain warnings are true or false:The terrain awareness display is visible on the ND whenever terrain is detected. A) False B) True
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 72. Identify if the following statements about TAWS advanced terrain warnings are true or false:Terrain >2000 ft amsl is shown in red on the ND. A) False B) True
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 73. Identify if the following statements about TAWS advanced terrain warnings are true or false:Terrain between 2000 ft above and 500 ft below the aircraft is shown in yellow or amber. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 74. Identify if the following statements about TAWS advanced terrain warnings are true or false:The terrain awareness display is shown on the ND when selected; this prevents weather radar information from being displayed. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 75. Identify if the following statements about TAWS advanced terrain warnings are true or false:Terrain between 500 ft and 2000 ft below the aircraft is shown in green. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 76. The CVR records:Mark all correct answers. A) The voices of flight crew using the public address system. B) An excessive rate of descent towards a planned level-off altitude of 1000 ft agl. C) Voice transmissions to and from the flight deck. D) The aural environment of the flight deck. E) Voice or audio signals heard through the pilots' headsets or speakers.
A) The voices of flight crew using the public address system. B) An excessive rate of descent towards a planned level-off altitude of 1000 ft agl. C) Voice transmissions to and from the flight deck. D) The aural environment of the flight deck. E) Voice or audio signals heard through the pilots' headsets or speakers.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 77. Which of the following are parameters recorded by a DFDR?Mark all correct answers. A) Additional parameters according to FDR capacity and operational requirements. B) Flaps/slat position or flight-deck selection. C) Normal acceleration. D) Time or relative time count. E) Attitude (pitch and roll). F) Air speed. G) Pressure altitude. H) Heading. I) Groundspeed. J) OAT.
A) Additional parameters according to FDR capacity and operational requirements. B) Flaps/slat position or flight-deck selection. C) Normal acceleration. D) Time or relative time count. E) Attitude (pitch and roll). F) Air speed. G) Pressure altitude. H) Heading.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 78. The purpose of aircraft condition monitoring systems (ACMS) is to record data for:Mark all correct answers. A) Flight safety programmes. B) Management purposes. C) Maintenance intervention and planning. D) Component life monitoring. E) Passenger in-seat satellite traffic billing.
A) Flight safety programmes. B) Management purposes. C) Maintenance intervention and planning. D) Component life monitoring.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 79. The ACMS system:Mark all correct answers. A) Can generate maintenance messages and send them via ACARS without notifying the crew. B) Gathers inputs from all aircraft systems, including the FMS CDU (MCDU). C) Has a data management unit which facilitates data access/export by the engineers. D) Records data digitally. E) Can also output acquired information to ACARS, ATSU or the flight deck computer. F) Gathers inputs only from those systems not covered by the DFDR.
A) Can generate maintenance messages and send them via ACARS without notifying the crew. B) Gathers inputs from all aircraft systems, including the FMS CDU (MCDU). C) Has a data management unit which facilitates data access/export by the engineers. D) Records data digitally. E) Can also output acquired information to ACARS, ATSU or the flight deck computer.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 80. Which of the following statements about cockpit voice recorders is/are accurate? A) You are permitted to erase the CVR recording after flight. B) Tampering with the CVR system or its data is not an offence. C) The CVR only records words spoken in the cockpit. D) The CVR may be mounted anywhere in the airframe.
A) You are permitted to erase the CVR recording after flight.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 81. Which of the following statements about DFDRs is/are true?Mark all correct answers. A) An event button is the only flight deck control for the DFDR system. B) The DFDR is contained within an impact-resistant housing, equipped with an underwater locator beacon. C) The DFDR is normally located at the rear of the aircraft to improve crash-survivability. D) The Data Interface and Acquisition Unit gathers data for the DFDR and allows data export. E) The power control unit shuts down the system a fixed time period after the last engine is shut down. F) A power control unit turns on the system 5 minutes after the battery switches are set to ON, or when the last engine starts.
A) An event button is the only flight deck control for the DFDR system. B) The DFDR is contained within an impact-resistant housing, equipped with an underwater locator beacon. C) The DFDR is normally located at the rear of the aircraft to improve crash-survivability. D) The Data Interface and Acquisition Unit gathers data for the DFDR and allows data export. E) The power control unit shuts down the system a fixed time period after the last engine is shut down.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 82. Components of a CVR system - match the components to a description:Has an impact-resistant housing, capable of surviving in deep water, and an underwater locator beacon. A) The recorder. B) The flight data recorder C) The control unit. D) The cockpit area microphone (CAM).
A) The recorder.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 83. Components of a CVR system - match the components to a description:Is a device in the CVR control panel which captures cockpit noises and conversations. A) The cockpit area microphone (CAM). B) The headset microphone C) The test panel D) The flight data recorder
A) The cockpit area microphone (CAM).
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 84. Components of a CVR system - match the components to a description:Contains test and erase buttons, a headset jack, and a status light or gauge. A) The control unit. B) The headset microphone C) The recorder. D) The cockpit area microphone (CAM).
A) The control unit.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 85. Components of a CVR system - match the components to a description:This component, and the test/erase button, are the only controls on the flight deck. A) The auto/on switch. B) The headset microphone C) The test panel D) The cockpit area microphone (CAM).
A) The auto/on switch.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 86. Identify which if the following statements about flight safety programmes are true or false:Data from the ACMS can be used as part of the flight data monitoring (FDM) programme. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 87. Identify which if the following statements about flight safety programmes are true or false:FDM is a safety programme which normally protects the anonymity of pilots. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 88. Identify which if the following statements about flight safety programmes are true or false:Grave exceedances of parameters may warrant further investigation by the operator. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 89. Identify which if the following statements about flight safety programmes are true or false:Management can use FDM data to discipline pilots for any parameter exceedances. A) False B) True
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 90. Identify which if the following statements about flight safety programmes are true or false:The purpose of FDM is to identify adverse safety trends and tailor subsequent training programmes to enhance operational safety. A) True B) False
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 91. Incorrect pressure sensing may cause:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Inaccurate control of the related system (e.g. thrust). B) Misleading indications. C) Automatic reversion to functioning sensor channels which thus always removes the problem. D) Incorrect fuel totalizer indication.
A) Inaccurate control of the related system (e.g. thrust). B) Misleading indications.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 92. The quantity of fuel may be measured by: A) Volume or mass. B) Volume or flow rate. C) Mass or flow rate. D) Flow rate or temperature.
A) Volume or mass.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 93. Your aircraft has 2000 kg of fuel on board, and your flight plan requires that you have a fuel quantity on board of 5000 kg. How many U.S. gallons of fuel (s.g. 0.8) do you need to load?
975
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 94. You need 4000 kg of fuel for your flight. As you arrive at the aircraft, the refueller hands you a receipt for 2000 L of fuel showing s.g. 0.78. He says he used 4000 kg to set the aircraft's automatic refuelling system. Which of the following is an acceptable figure for the fuel remaining, after the previous flight, in the aircraft technical log? A) 2500 kg B) 2200 kg C) 1500 kg D) 3000 kg
A) 2500 kg
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 95. Which of the following factors may affect the measurement of the volume or mass of fuel in the fuel tanks?Mark all correct answers. A) The aircraft's linear acceleration. B) Temperature of the fuel. C) The aircraft's attitude. D) Viscosity of the fuel.
A) The aircraft's linear acceleration. B) Temperature of the fuel. C) The aircraft's attitude.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 96. Which of the following is/are valid adjustment methods used in large aircraft to improve the accuracy of fuel measurement?Mark 3 correct answers. A) 'Still pipes' to minimise acceleration errors. B) Measurement of fuel temperature and volume, to calculate the mass of fuel. C) Multiple sensors to take into account attitude changes. D) Displaying fuel temperature to the crew. E) Still pipes' to make the gauge read accurately when parked on a slightly sloping apron.
A) 'Still pipes' to minimise acceleration errors. B) Measurement of fuel temperature and volume, to calculate the mass of fuel. C) Multiple sensors to take into account attitude changes.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 97. Which of the following refuel procedures is correct? A) Note the fuel mass remaining post-flight, record the volume added, convert the added volume to mass, compare the sum of mass remaining and mass added (calculated fuel) to the indicated fuel quantity. Physically check the tanks if the difference is greater than the prescribed maximum in the aircraft manual. B) Note the fuel volume remaining post-flight, record the volume added, convert the volume added to mass and compare with the refueller's receipt. Physically check the tanks if the difference is less than the prescribed minimum. C) Check the gauges carefully to ensure the required mass is on board. Check the receipt from refueller to ensure that the quantity billed is correct, check that the gauges are not recorded as inaccurate in the technical log. Always do a 'stick' check. D) Check that the fuel gauges show the mass required. Check the mass shown on the refueller's receipt and deduct from the volume remining post-flight. Any discrepancy requires a 'stick' check.
A) Note the fuel mass remaining post-flight, record the volume added, convert the added volume to mass, compare the sum of mass remaining and mass added (calculated fuel) to the indicated fuel quantity. Physically check the tanks if the difference is greater than the prescribed maximum in the aircraft manual.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 98. Total fuel consumption is calculated by: A) Fuel flow x time B) Fuel flow ÷ time C) Fuel flow + time D) Fuel flow x time squared
A) Fuel flow x time
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 99. The usual measure of engine speed is: A) RPM for piston engines, and percentage of maximum RPM for turbofan engines. B) For all engine types, the percentage of maximum RPM. C) For all engine types, RPM. D) RPM is used for turbofan engines, and percentage of maximum RPM is used for piston engines.
A) RPM for piston engines, and percentage of maximum RPM for turbofan engines.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 100. Which of the following is/are correct statements about engine thrust displays?Mark 4 correct answers. A) EPR changes as the aircraft accelerates during take-off, so the thrust must be set by 60 kt and then not adjusted. B) Secondary indications of EPR or N1 are commonly used. C) EPR is the ratio of engine inlet pressure to exhaust pressure. D) N1 is the percentage of maximum RPM for the fan (LP shaft) of a turbofan engine. E) N1 is usually the percentage of maximum speed for the HP shaft of a turbofan engine. F) EPR is the ratio of inlet pressure to combustion chamber pressure.
A) EPR changes as the aircraft accelerates during take-off, so the thrust must be set by 60 kt and then not adjusted. B) Secondary indications of EPR or N1 are commonly used. C) EPR is the ratio of engine inlet pressure to exhaust pressure. D) N1 is the percentage of maximum RPM for the fan (LP shaft) of a turbofan engine.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 101. Which of the following statements about using EPR as a reference for engine thrust is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) On many engine types, if a pressure sensor fails, then this is sensed and the engine reverts to a degraded mode of operation - typically using N1. B) EPR uses the principle that thrust is relative to the increase in pressure caused by the engine. C) If a pressure sensor fails, or partially blocks, then engine thrust will be sensed incorrectly. D) EPR is a direct measurement of thrust.
A) On many engine types, if a pressure sensor fails, then this is sensed and the engine reverts to a degraded mode of operation - typically using N1. B) EPR uses the principle that thrust is relative to the increase in pressure caused by the engine. C) If a pressure sensor fails, or partially blocks, then engine thrust will be sensed incorrectly.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 102. The relationship between torque, RPM and power is: A) RPM x torque = power B) Torque x power = RPM C) Power x RPM = torque D) Torque ÷ RPM = power
A) RPM x torque = power
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 103. Which of the following is/are valid units used to measure or display torque?Mark 4 correct answers. A) Percentage of maximum torque. B) Inch pounds. C) Foot pounds. D) Newton metres. E) Brake horsepower. F) Inch kilograms.
A) Percentage of maximum torque. B) Inch pounds. C) Foot pounds. D) Newton metres.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 104. Which of the following statements about engine vibration monitoring is/are accurate?Mark all correct answers. A) There are no absolute units of vibration. B) Gas turbine engines are usually relatively free of vibration, so vibration levels are a good measure of engine mechanical health. C) A mechanical vibration sensor uses a spring-mounted magnet inside a pick-up coil. The output voltage is proportional to the amplitude of the vibrations. D) Some sensor types use a piezoelectric crystal mounted on the HP shaft. Vibrations cause strains in the crystal which consequently produces a voltage proportional to the frequency of vibration.
A) There are no absolute units of vibration. B) Gas turbine engines are usually relatively free of vibration, so vibration levels are a good measure of engine mechanical health. C) A mechanical vibration sensor uses a spring-mounted magnet inside a pick-up coil. The output voltage is proportional to the amplitude of the vibrations.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 105. Match the statement to their sensor type:Measures high pressure sources. A) Bourdon Tube B) Bellows C) Aneroid Capsule D) Diaphragm
A) Bourdon Tube
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 106. Match the statement to their sensor type:Measures low to medium pressures. A) Bellows B) Bourdon Tube C) Diaphragm D) Aneroid Capsule
A) Bellows
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 107. Match the statement to their sensor type:Measures only low pressures. A) Aneroid Capsule B) Bourdon Tube C) Bellows D) Diaphragm
A) Aneroid Capsule
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 108. Match the statement to their sensor type:Measures a wide range of pressure, but sensitivity is inversely proportional to range of operation. A) Diaphragm B) Bourdon Tube C) Bellows D) Aneroid Capsule
A) Diaphragm
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 109. Match the statement to their sensor type:Has a partly evacuated capsule, expanding and contracting when the pressure around it changes. A) Aneroid Capsule B) Bourdon Tube C) Bellows D) Diaphragm
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 110. Match the statement to their sensor type:An external pressure source is fed to the interior, causing the unit to expand when pressure increases. A) Bellows B) Bourdon Tube C) Aneroid Capsule D) Diaphragm
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 111. Match the statement to their sensor type:Can be used to sense the difference in pressure between two pressure sources. A) Diaphragm B) Bourdon Tube C) Bellows D) Aneroid Capsule
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 112. Match the statement to their sensor type:Comprises a curved metal tube, open at one end, which straightens slightly when internal pressure rises. A) Bourdon Tube B) Bellows C) Aneroid Capsule D) Diaphragm
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 113. Match the fuel gauge type to the descriptions given:An approximately accurate system only used in small aircraft. A) Float gauge B) Capacitance gauge C) Ultrasound gauge
A) Float gauge
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 114. Match the fuel gauge type to the descriptions given:A system used on many large aircraft which measures the different permittivity of air and fuel. A) Capacitance gauge B) Float gauge C) Ultrasound gauge
A) Capacitance gauge
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 115. Match the fuel gauge type to the descriptions given:A system which measures the temperature of the air in the tank and the time taken for transmissions to travel to and from the surface of the fuel. A) Ultrasound gauge B) Float gauge C) Capacitance gauge
A) Ultrasound gauge
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 116. The types of tachometer found on aircraft include:Rotating __________ : A flexible shaft connects the engine and the instrument, and drives a drag cup by magnetism. They are found on smaller and older aircraft. A) magnet B) tacho C) phonic D) impulse
A) magnet
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 117. The types of tachometer found on aircraft include:Electrical: using 3-phase __________-generators. A small generator is driven by the engine shaft. This outputs 3-phase AC to drive a small motor in the gauge, which drives a drag cup by magnetism. The AC signal can be fed to EFIS displays on later aircraft. A) tacho B) magnet C) phonic D) impulse
A) tacho
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 118. The types of tachometer found on aircraft include:Electronic: An impulse or __________ wheel has a magnetic sensor close to the fan blades or to teeth on a rotating gear. These generate a series of electrical pulses. A computer measures the pulses and converts to RPM. Requires electrical power to function. A) phonic B) tacho C) magnet D) drive
A) phonic
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 119. Torque sensors may be:Mechanical. The axial load of a helical gear drives a piston compressing oil in a cylinder. The oil __________ is proportional to the torque. This system is relatively heavy, expensive and maintenance intensive. A) pressure B) height C) depth
A) pressure
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 120. Torque sensors may be:Electronic. Solid state __________ gauges use a metal which changes __________ with changing strain. 4 sensors mounted at right angles are mounted on the side of a drive shaft. The system is cheap, light and simple. It can have multiple channels for redundancy. It __________ suitable for FADEC engines. A) strain; resistance; is B) piezoelectric; capacitance; is C) piezoelectric; capacitance; is not D) diode; resistance; is
A) strain; resistance; is
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 121. Fuel flow meters measure the volume or __________ of fuel per unit of time. They are normally measured in the __________ fuel line and represent the rate at which the engines are consuming fuel. A) mass; LP B) mass; HP C) density; LP D) density; HP
A) mass; LP
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 122. Which of the following statements about aircraft and mission monitoring systems architecture is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The systems display (SD) is normally the lower central display. B) The architecture is similar to EFIS, with duplicated interchangeable DUs. C) The system can automatically or manually switch displays when required. D) The engine and warning display (EWD) is usually the upper central display. E) Multifunction display units (MFD/MFDU) are common on later generations of aircraft. They give access to the FMS and also to mission monitoring functions. F) DUs can perform multiple functions. G) The crew can choose which system page to display. H) The Airbus system is known as EICAS. I) Boeing system is known as Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM).
A) The systems display (SD) is normally the lower central display. B) The architecture is similar to EFIS, with duplicated interchangeable DUs. C) The system can automatically or manually switch displays when required. D) The engine and warning display (EWD) is usually the upper central display. E) Multifunction display units (MFD/MFDU) are common on later generations of aircraft. They give access to the FMS and also to mission monitoring functions. F) DUs can perform multiple functions. G) The crew can choose which system page to display.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 123. When using electronic checklists, it's important to: A) First consider the consequences of actions commanded by the electronic checklist before actioning them. B) Follow the recommended actions exactly and completely at all times. C) Carry out as quickly as possible any non-normal or emergency checklist actions to stabilise the situation. D) Acknowledge, but then delete, any non-critical, non-normal checklist actions if your workload is currently too high.
A) First consider the consequences of actions commanded by the electronic checklist before actioning them.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 124. Consider the 2 statements below: 1. 15° Celsius = 273 Kelvin. 2. 15° Celsius = 59° Fahrenheit. Which combination of answers matches the statements?
1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 125. Which of the following statements is/are correct as regards a synchroscope on a multi-engine aircraft? A synchroscope ls used to: 1. reduce structural vibration and noise 2. achieve symmetrical thrust and fuel consumption.
1 ls correct, 2 ls Incorrect.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 126. The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with: 1. Aircraft attitude. 2. Accelerations. 3. Atmospheric pressure. 4. Fuel temperature. The combination of correct statements is:
1, 2, 4.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 127. The disadvantages of a float type fuel gauge are: 1. The design is complex. 2. The indications are influenced by the aircraft attitude variations. 3. The indications are influenced by the accelerations. 4. The indications are influenced by temperature variations. The combination of correct statements is:
2, 3, 4.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 128. According to the range of pressure to be measured (low, medium, high), different types of pressure sensors are used. Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable. 1. Bellows type 2. Bourdon tube type 3. Aneroid capsule type
3, 1, 2.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 129. A mechanical fuel flowmeter uses:
A spring-loaded vane.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 130. A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the hot junction and the cold junction of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of the:
Cold junction is maintained constant.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 131. The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that:
Contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different metals.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 132. Concerning a fuel gauge system, the most relevant fuel parameter is:
Mass.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 133. An engine vibration meter is indicating '4'. What is the unit of this indication?
No units are specified
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 134. On a multi-engine aircraft, a synchroscope provides an indication of the difference in:
speed (RPM) between the engines.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 135. An electronic torque meter senses:
Twisting of the engine output shaft.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 136. Select the option which correctly completes the above statement. A stall warning system (1)_____ and the stall protection system (2)_____.
(1) Alerts the pilot (2) Prevents the stall
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 137. To warn the flight crew, an overspeed warning system can use: 1. An aural warning. 2. A stick shaker connected to the control column. 3. A vibration device connected to the auto-throttle. The combination of the correct statements is:
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 138. Which of the following will trigger a "Master Warning"? 1. Engine fire. 2. Brake overheat. 3. Overspeed.
1 and 3
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 139. At a high angle of attack, dependent on the type of airplane, the stall protection system can: 1. Inhibit pitch trim orders in the nose up direction. 2. Retract speed brakes. 3. Increase thrust. The combination of the correct statements is:
1, 3.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 140. The outputs of the GPWS are: 1. Pitch up command to the AFCS 2. Aural alert 3. Aural Warning 4. Aural Klaxon Alert 5. Terrain shown on ND The combination regrouping all correct statements is:
2 and 3 only
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 141. After a Radio Altimeter failure, which of the following systems are affected? 1. Autobrake system 2. EGPWS 3. Autothrottle 4. ISIS
2, 3
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 142. The following is/are terrain display alerts of the EGPWS: 1. Runway overrun protection 2. Conflicting traffic on the ground 3. Excessive deviation from the localiser 4. Terrain clearance floor 5. Wind shear during take-off
4 only
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 143. When TAWS is fitted it must be connected to a:
4-dimensional FMS.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 144. A TCAS II resolution advisory is displayed as:
a red full square.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 145. In case of impending stall, the flight warning system (FWS) generates:
A warning message.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 146. When the flight warning system (FWS) identifies an overspeed condition (airspeed exceeding VMO/MMO), it generates:
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 147. In case of impending stall, the flight warning system (FWS) generates:
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 148. If crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be required, the flight warning system (FWS) generates:
An advisory message.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 149. What should a takeoff warning provide, as a minimum requirement?
An aural warning in the initial take-off roll.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 150. When does the stall protection system activate?
Before exceeding the critical angle of attack, irrespective of whether the crew is taking the corrective action.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 151. In the event of a conflict, the TCAS II presents warnings to the crew such as:
Climb or Descent.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 152. In an aircraft NOT fitted with an EFIS the master caution light illuminates and an audible alarm is triggered. How does the crew find information about the cause of the caution indication?
From the annunciator lights on the central warning panel.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 153. The enhanced GPWS terrain display uses the following colours:
Green, Amber, Red, Blue.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 154. The flight warning system (FWS) generates a caution message if:
Immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be required.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 155. The flight warning system (FWS) generates a warning message if:
Immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 156. When a TCAS RA is generated, the required vertical speed:
Is displayed on the VSI.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 157. Which of the following will trigger a take-off warning alert?
Parking brake on.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 158. The Flight Warning System:
Receives, categorises, and gives status messages from aircraft systems.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 159. A training aircraft is approaching an intended stall. No aural or visual indication of the impending stall is given; you feel aerodynamic buffet. Then, the stick pusher activates. What do you enter into the technical log book?
Stall warning inoperative, stall protection working.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 160. For compatibility between the different components of a flight warning system, the priority from the highest to the lowest is:
Stall, Windshear, GPWS, TCAS.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 161. Choose the option which correctly describes the difference between TAWS, HTAWS and GPWS:
TAWS and HTAWS use a radio altimeter and a 3D database and GPWS uses a radio altimeter.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 162. A GPWS is able to alert the crew of excessive sink rate (rate of descent) while below a certain height above terrain. Where does the GPWS derive the sink rate from?
The air data computer rate of descent.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 163. TCAS generates a TA or RA according to:
Time
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 164. The purpose of GPWS is:
to provide information and alert the pilots of a potentially hazardous terrain situation.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 165. Flight warning systems provide alerts, appropriate for the severity and the flight phase, to the flight crew using:
Visual and/or aural alerts.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 166. According to CS 25, a CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) must record: 1. Communications transmitted from or received in the aeroplane by radio. 2. Communications of flight-crew members on the flight deck via the area microphone. 3. Communications of flight-crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system. 4. Audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker. The combination of the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 167. According to CS25, a CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) must record: 1 - communications transmitted from or received in the aeroplane by radio 2 - communications of flight-crew members on the flight deck 3 - communications of flight-crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system 4 - audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 168. Which of the following are main components of a CVR? 1. Two control units (start sequence, event mark setting). 2. An area microphone. 3. A control unit with the following controls auto/on, test and erase, and a headset jack. 4. Limited flight-deck controls such as erase and test switches. 5. Limited flight-deck controls but includes an event switch. 6. A shock-resistant tape recorder or digital storage associated with an underwater locating device beacon (ULB).
2, 3, 4, 6.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 169. The cockpit voice recorder must preserve the conversation and aural warnings of the last:
30 minutes of operation.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 170. An Aeroplane Condition Monitoring System (ACMS) makes use of aircraft input data and also:
a data management unit, a recording unit, and outputs (e.g. a printer or ACARS).
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 171. The Flight Data Recorder makes use of:
a recording system, an "event• button, and an underwater locating device.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 172. A CVR consists of:
a tape recorder, Underwater Locating Device, area microphone, and control unit.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 173. The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when the:
Aircraft cannot any longer move by its own power.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 174. The airline you are working for has a FDM system in operation. What is true about the acquired Information? 1. If the pilot purposely and recklessly exceeds stated parameters and limitations, the company can put him/her under Investigation. 2. The data will be used to find reoccurring adverse safety trends. 3. The Information will be used to improve crew training.
All of the above.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 175. The purpose of a Flight Data Monitoring (FDM) programme is to collect flight data:
anonymously, to improve safety.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 176. Acquired data from the Aircraft Condition Monitoring System (ACMS) may be used:
As part of an FDM and safety programme.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 177. By what means are messages from an Aeroplane Condition Monitoring System (ACMS) transmitted to the maintenance base?
Digital datalink, without crew notification.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 178. What is correct regarding the FDM? A Flight Data Monitoring (FDM) programme collects and analyses aircraft flight data for the purpose of:
identifying adverse safety trends and tailoring training programmes.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 179. Which of the following are main features of IHUMS?
Monitoring & trending
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 180. Which of the following are factors that determine the type and number of parameters to be recorded by a FDR (flight data recorder)?
Recording capacity and applicable operational requirements.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 181. Summarise benefits of IHUMS:
Reduced risk of catastrophic failure of rotor or gearbox, improved rotor track & balance giving lower vibration levels, accurate recording of flight exceedances.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 182. What is, in computer terminology, an operating system?
The programme that controls a computer's basic functions.
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 183. A Cockpit Voice Recorder must record:
voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker and voice communications
A-INST2-PT03.A.pdf | 184. When must the flight data recorder automatically stop data recording?
When the aeroplane cannot any longer move by its own power.
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