MET 03

3. Maritime tracks __________ the relative and absolute humidity of an air mass. A) increase B) decrease C) have no effect on

4. Continental tracks __________ the relative and absolute humidity of an air mass. A) decrease B) increase C) have no effect on

1. According to the Bergeron classification of air masses (mark all correct answers): A) mTw means a moist maritime source; an air temperature characteristic of the tropics; an air mass which is warm relative to the surface it's travelling over. B) mP means a moist maritime source comprising polar air. C) cT means relatively dry continental air with tropical temperature characteristics. D) cAh means cold air of arctic origin travelling over a cold surface

2. The 3 main air masses that affect Europe are: A) Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime and Tropical Continental. B) Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime and Tropical Maritime. C) Polar Maritime, Arctic Maritime and Tropical Maritime. D) Polar Maritime, Polar Continental and Arctic Maritime.

5. Air masses that travel from warmer to colder locations are cooled from below, this __________ the ELR and __________ stability. A) decreases; increases B) increases; decreases C) decreases; decreases D) increases; increases

6. Air masses that travel over colder to warmer locations are heated from below, this __________ the ELR and __________ stability. A) increases; reduces B) increases; increases C) decreases; reduces D) decreases; increases

7. A weather front:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Is a boundary or zone separating 2 different air masses. B) On a chart, a warm front is denoted by semi-circles pointing in the direction of frontal movement. C) On a chart, a warm front is denoted by triangles pointing in the direction of frontal movement. D) Is a boundary between 2 air masses which has a depth of about 1-2 km from front to back.

8. The main global frontal systems are:Mark all correct answers. A) The polar front. B) The Arctic front. C) The ITCZ D) The Mediterranean front.

9. Which of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of a warm front? A) Warm fronts carry the risk of icing, low cloud, poor visibility and mist or fog. B) The leading edge of an advancing warm front rides over, and eventually replaces, a retreating mass of cooler air. C) The slope of a warm front is typically about 1:150. D) Warm fronts tend to produce more weather in winter. E) The weather steadily worsens as a warm front approaches. F) The warm front slopes towards its direction of movement. G) The leading edge of an advancing warm front slides under, and eventually replaces, a retreating mass of cooler air. H) Ground visibility improves dramatically after the warm front passes.

10. Which 1 of the following cloud sequences describes the onset and arrival of a warm front? In order of appearance over an observer on the ground: A) Ci, Cs AS, NS, St. B) St, Ci, Cs, NS. C) Cb Ac D) AS, NS, Cb. St

11. Which of the following are accurate statements about the characteristics of a cold front?Mark all correct answers. A) The typical cloud structure after the passing of a cold front is small isolated Cu. B) Cold fronts usually slope backwards relative to their movement, with a slope of approximately 1:75. C) A 'cold nose' is a feature of cold fronts but not warm fronts. D) Visibility tends to improve after the passing of a cold front. E) The risks of a cold front include CB/TS, heavy showers, hail, clear ice, gusts and windshear.

12. In a warm sector the following conditions can be expected:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Pressure constant or falling. B) In winter: St, Sc fog or mist and light drizzle. C) Pressure constant or rising. D) Good visibility.

13. In a quasi-stationary front:Mark all correct answers. A) If the warm air in a stationary front is stable and the slope is shallow, the clouds are stratiform, with drizzle and some icing aloft. B) If the slope is steep and significant warm air is being advected up the frontal slope, stratiform clouds with embedded showers result. Possibly severe weather. C) Expect extensive radiation fog if the cold air is saturated by warm rain or drizzle.

14. The stages and life cycle of a mid-latitude depression are: A) Cyclogenesis, mature, occluded and frontolysis. B) Frontolysis, occluded, cyclogenesis, and mature. C) Cyclogenesis, occluded, frontolysis, and mature. D) Occluded, cyclogenesis, frontolysis, and mature.

15. Mountains: A) Can strengthen or weaken fronts and accelerate or decelerate fronts. B) Strengthen and accelerate fronts. C) Weaken and decelerate fronts. D) Have little effect on the passage of a large air mass.

16. The pressure steadily __________ as a warm front approaches. A) falls B) rises C) remains constant

17. At the passing of a warm front, the wind __________. A) backs then veers B) veers then backs C) remains constant

18. An occluded front is formed by __________. A) cyclogenesis B) cyclonism C) cyclic uplift

19. In an occluded front, the warm sector air is __________. A) lifted off the surface B) squeezed between the warm and cold fronts C) veers then backs

20. The worst weather in an occluded front occurs __________. A) near the apex of the occlusion B) in the warm sector air

21. In Europe, warm occlusions are more common in __________; cold occlusions are more common in __________. A) winter; summer B) winter; winter C) summer; winter D) summer; summer

22. Most mid-latitude depressions move from __________ to __________ in __________. A) west; east; both hemispheres B) east; west; the northern hemisphere C) west; east; the northern hemisphere D) west; east; the southern hemisphere

23. The whole polar front moves in the same direction as, and parallel to, the isobars in the __________ at a speed determined by the geostrophic interval of the __________ isobars. A) warm sector; warm sector B) warm sector; cold sector C) cold sector; warm sector D) cold sector; cold sector

24. Generally, cold fronts move __________ than warm fronts. A) faster B) slower C) same speed

25. The west to east passage of waves of weather associated with polar front depressions or mid-latitude lows.This is a description of __________. A) westerly waves B) divergence C) convergence

26. Air rising or sinking in the atmosphere encounters barriers which prevent further vertical motion so, vertical motion is translated into horizontal motion. This is common at the bottom of high pressures near the surface and the top of low pressures near the tropopause.This description describe the mechanism which causes __________. A) divergence B) convergence

27. Atmospheric __________ is mostly caused by rising or sinking air drawing in air from either side. A) convergence B) divergence

28. __________ at the surface and __________ aloft produces areas of low pressure. A) Convergence; divergence B) Divergence; divergence C) Convergence; convergence D) Divergence; convergence

29. Convergence tends to __________ the creation of active weather. A) promote B) weaken C) diminish

30. Subsidence is a feature of __________ pressure systems. A) high B) low C) mid

31. Subsidence tends to produce __________ pressure gradients with little weather. A) slack B) strong C) no

32. Valid causes of non-frontal depressions include:Mark all correct answers. A) High level divergence. B) Thermal lows. C) Orographic lows. D) Polar depressions. E) Secondary depression. F) Cyclogenesis.

33. Non-frontal low-pressure areas with weak circulation that occur due to intense heating over the continents in the subtropics during the warm season.This is a description of a __________ low. A) thermal B) orographic C) divergence D) Convergence

34. The mass of air in the column reduces because air leaves more quickly at high level than it can enter at the surface. Net loss of mass means lower pressure.This is a description of high level __________. A) divergence B) convergence C) depression

35. __________ lows result from small-scale lows forming downwind of mountain barriers. A) Orographic B) Thermal C) Divergence D) Convergence

36. Polar lows are caused by very cold air from ice shelves or very cold land masses blowing over the relatively warmer sea. This produces __________ atmospheric conditions. A) very unstable B) moderately unstable C) relatively stable D) stable

37. Study this diagram and identify which of the statements below is correct. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 6. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A is typical of a polar front depression. B) B is an example of an occluded front. C) C is typical of a secondary depression. D) D is an example of a cold front. E) E is an example of a warm front. F) A is typical of a secondary depression. G) A is a classic warm sector.

38. Study this diagram and identify which of the following statements is correct. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 7. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A shows cyclones which occur all year round B) C shows typhoons which occur predominantly between June and November. C) B shows cyclones which occur between November and April. D) D shows hurricanes which occur between May and November. E) E shows hurricanes which occur between June and November. F) D shows hurricanes which occur between November and April. G) E shows cyclones which occur between June and November. H) A shows hurricanes which occur between October and May. I) C shows hurricanes which only occur between July and December. J) B shows typhoons which occur between November and April.

39. Tropical revolving storms require energy from a large body of water which must be greater than __________°C.

40. Tropical revolving storms require an unstable, moist atmosphere with little vertical shear and can only begin to generate beyond the latitudes of __________°N/S.

41. Study this image of a hurricane off the eastern seaboard of the USA. The fastest winds will be found in the sector labelled: A) B B) A C) C D) D

42. Which of these statements about the ITCZ is/are correct?Mark all 4 correct answers. A) The ITCZ reaches 23.5° N at the northern hemisphere summer solstice and moves south, crossing the equator at the equinox, reaching 23.5° S at the southern hemisphere summer solstice. B) The ITCZ produces TS/CB's, severe turbulence, windshear, hail, icing, tornadoes, lightning, heavy rain. C) The ITCZ is an area of convergence. D) In the area occupied by the ITCZ, surface air temperature and humidities are typically >18°C and 80% RH. E) Thunderstorm activity in the ITCZ is sufficiently scattered that it doesn't represent a significant hazard to aviation. F) The northern and southern limits of the ITCZ correspond to the Earth's angle of tilt with respect to its orbital plane.

43. Study the image and then identify the correct statements.Mark all 4 correct answers. A) A shows Hadley cells. B) E shows areas of low pressure. C) D shows areas of low pressure. D) C shows Polar cells. E) F shows areas of low pressure. F) A shows Ferrel cells.

44. Study the image and then identify the correct statement. A) B shows the position of the ITCZ in July. B) A shows the position of the ITCZ in July.

45. Study the image and then identify the correct statements.Mark all correct answers. A) C is the Arid Zone. B) B shows Tropical Zones. C) E is a Warm Temperate Zone. D) A is the Polar Zone. E) D is the Polar Zone.

46. Study the image and then identify the correct statement. A) A represents the situation over the Indian subcontinent in July. B) B represents the situation over the Indian subcontinent in July.

47. Study the image and then identify the correct statements.Mark 2 correct answers. A) C shows the Harmattan wind, which is a local manifestation of the trade winds. B) B shows the Harmattan wind in August. C) A shows the Harmattan wind in August. D) A shows the situation in January.

48. Study these 2 images and then identify the correct statement(s). A) B shows the pattern of flow over SE Asia in July. B) A shows the pattern of flow over SE Asia in July. C) A shows the pattern of flow over SE Asia in January. D) B shows the pattern of flow over SE Asia in January.

49. This image shows the pattern of flow over Australia in: A) December/January. B) March/April. C) June/July. D) September/October.

50. Study this image and identify the correct statement(s).Mark all correct answers. A) The general situation is typical of the northern hemisphere summer. B) The large pressure system over Siberia is a high pressure region. C) The pressure system over Greenland is in a region occupied by 'statistical lows'. D) A shows the position of the Azores High in July. E) A shows the position of the Azores Low in July. F) A shows the position of the Azores Low in winter.

51. Study the image and then identify the correct statement. A) This image shows the general situation in the southern hemisphere summer. B) This image shows the general situation in the southern hemisphere winter.

52. Study the image then identify the correct statement(s) below.Mark 2 correct answers. A) The inflow towards the north eastern coast of South America could be categorised as mE. B) This situation is representative of the South American summer. C) The warm wind flowing off the eastern seaboard is typical of the Pampero. D) The cold wind flowing across the tip of South America is known as the Pampero. E) This situation is typical of the South American winter.

53. Large, warm high pressures exist between 20° to 35° latitude. This creates a band around the Earth called the sub tropical high pressure belt.It is characterised by clear skies, warm surface conditions and light winds. There is a large diurnal temperature variation over land.This weather pattern occurs at the subsidence areas between the __________ cells. A) Hadley and Ferrel B) Ferrel and Polar C) Hadley and Polar

54. Which 5 of the following statements about satellite observations is/are accurate? A) Satellites allow observations and data gathering over areas where normal observations and recordings are not possible. B) The main uses of satellite pictures is to identify cloud and cloud composition, pollution, fronts, rainfall, storms, water vapour, air masses and surface temperature. C) Different imagers operate on different wavelengths, depending on the purpose of the observation. For example visible, short wave IR, and long wave IR. D) It’s difficult to distinguish between low, medium, and high level clouds on visible images. E) IR images can distinguish between high and low level clouds. F) The main uses of satellite pictures is to identify cloud and cloud composition, pollution, fronts, rainfall, CAT, water vapour, air masses and surface temperature. G) Satellites make measurements directly by sensing the radiation from the surfaces below.

55. Which 2 of the following statements about airborne weather radar (AWR) is/are correct? A) Most modern AWR have doppler capability. B) AWR can only detect returns from liquid water. C) Most modern AWR can detect areas of ice crystal icing. D) Antenna pan (sweep) is controlled automatically by the system. Tilt always has to be manually adjusted by the crew. E) Anomalous propagation is a phenomenon which causes CBs to be hidden.

56. __________ images can reveal wind patterns and jet streams. Darker colours indicate drier air; brighter colours indicate high moisture content, or vice versa. A) Water vapour B) Visible C) Infrared

57. Tracking clouds, or areas of water vapour across consecutive satellite images, can reveal __________. A) atmospheric motion vectors B) areas of CAT C) vertical development of CBs

58. Study the image below and identify the 5 correct statements relating to possible threats. A) Although D is not within an area of radar returns, this location could carry the threat of severe turbulence. B) A may contain further active cells, masked by the large line of storms between it and the aircraft. C) B reveals the most intense cell activity: very severe turbulence, icing, hail and risk of loss of control or structural failure. D) C is an area where ice crystal icing may be a risk (taking into account the relative direction of the wind). E) E is a relatively low threat area. F) A there is no threat in this area. G) The principal threat at E is anomalous propagation.

59. Which of the following are valid contents of an AIREP?Mark all correct answers. A) Location. B) Time. C) Flight level. D) Aircraft type. E) Wind direction. F) Wind speed. G) Air temperature. H) Humidity (if available). I) Turbulence (if any) J) Icing (if any).

60. AIREPS are required for which of the following?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Moderate or severe icing. B) Severe mountain waves. C) Volcanic ash. D) Any encounter with icing. E) Isolated thunderstorms.

61. Which of the following are valid contents of a runway state designator?Mark all correct answers. A) Type of deposit. B) Extent of deposit. C) Depth of deposit. D) Friction coefficient (or braking action). E) Expected clearance time.

62. Which of the following information can be obtained in digital data format by aircraft with data link capabilities?Mark all correct answers. A) Information about upper winds and temperature. B) TAFs. C) METARs. D) SIGMETs. E) ATIS.

63. Aerodrome warnings are given for which of the following threats?Mark all correct answers. A) Gales. B) Strong winds. C) Thunderstorms. D) Hail. E) Snow. F) Frost. G) Fog and freezing rain or drizzle. H) CAT.

64. METAR EGLL 041400Z 250G30KT 3000 1200SW FEW034 23/05 Q1023Mark all 5 correct answers. A) This is a weather report. B) There were less than 3 oktas of cloud. C) The cloud base was 3400 ft. D) The report was issued at 1400 UTC E) Minimum visibility is 1200 m to the south-west F) The QNH is 1023 hPa G) This is a forecast. H) This was issued on 14th April. I) The cloud base is 340 ft. J) The QFE is 1023 hPa.

65. TAF EGNT 24241059Z 2412/2512 25010KT 9999 SCT025 BECMG 2421/2423 VRB03KT PROB30 TEMPO 2500/2506 4000 BR BECMG 2509/2512 14010KT Mark all 4 correct answers. A) This forecast covers a 24 hr period. B) The wind is not forecast to exceed 10 kt during the period of the forecast. C) The principal hazard is 4 km visibility in mist between midnight and 0600 on the 25th. D) You may expect a runway change at, or after, 0900Z on the 25th. E) This forecast was issued on 24th October. F) The visibility is forecast to be 9.9 km. G) There are 3-4 oktas of cloud at 25000 ft.

66. Surface wind measurements contained in METAR and SPECI reports are referenced to __________ North and are averaged over the previous __________ minutes. A) True; 10 B) Magnetic; 10 C) True; 30 D) Magnetic; 30

67. Winds reported by the control tower and in local routine reports (ATIS) are averaged over the previous __________ minutes and are referenced to __________ North. A) 2; Magnetic B) 2; True C) 10; Magnetic D) 10; True

68. An _____ is a report from an aircraft in flight given in either of 2 standard formats: Routine aircraft observations given during en-route and climb-out phases of the flight; generally only requested from aircraft with a data link capability. Special and other non-routine aircraft observations during any phase of the flight. A) air report (AIREP) B) pilot report (PIREP) C) special report (SPECI)

69. Both types of AIREP can be transmitted by datalink or voicecom __________. A) to an appropriate ATC controller B) to meteorological watch offices C) to WAFCs

70. They prepare global sets of gridded forecasts for flight planning (upper wind, temperature, humidity) and also produce gridded datasets for specific FLs showing the temperature of the tropopause, the direction and speed of the maximum wind, cumulonimbus clouds, icing and turbulence.This is a function of __________. A) world area forecast centres B) meteorological watch offices C) meteorological optical rangers

71. Associate the met product and its description:Met actuals report giving routine weather reports. A) METAR B) TAF C) AIRMET D) SPECI E) SIGMET F) GAMET

72. Associate the met product and its description:Provides a forecast for an aerodrome, usually covering a period of 9, 24 or 30 hours. A) TAF B) METAR C) AIRMET D) SPECI E) SIGMET F) GAMET

73. Associate the met product and its description:A briefing service for low level GA aircraft < FL 120.. A) AIRMET B) METAR C) TAF D) SPECI E) SIGMET F) GAMET

74. Associate the met product and its description:Weather report which supplements routine reports when significant improvements or deteriorations occur. A) SPECI B) METAR C) TAF D) AIRMET E) SIGMET F) GAMET

75. Associate the met product and its description:A weather advisory issued by MWO's that contains meteorological information concerning the safety of all aircraft. A) SIGMET B) METAR C) TAF D) AIRMET E) SPECI F) GAMET

76. Associate the met product and its description:An area forecast for low altitude intended for GA aircraft. A) GAMET B) METAR C) TAF D) AIRMET E) SPECI F) SIGMET

77. A SIGMET message concerning a tropical cyclone begins with a 2-letter identifier code group: A) TC B) WV C) WC D) AT

78. Pre-recorded, plain language, ground-to-air radio broadcasts of aerodrome reports and forecasts are known as __________. A) VOLMET B) ATIS C) TAF D) SPECI

79. A continuous broadcast of arrival or departure information for busy airports, preceded by an identification letter. Includes such information as runway in use, surface wind, RVR, present weather, significant cloud and type of approach expected. This is a description of a service called __________. A) automatic terminal information service (ATIS) B) VOLMET C) aerodrome terminal information service (ATIS) D) aerodrome traffic information service (ATIS)

80. Associate the facility with the service it provides:Provides operational information and also implements a global framework for the national met services. A) WMO B) VAACs C) TCACs D) WAFC E) MWO

81. Associate the facility with the service it provides:Forecasts of volcanic ash clouds. A) VAACs B) WMO C) TCACs D) WAFC E) MWO

82. Associate the facility with the service it provides:Forecasts of tropical cyclones. A) TCACs B) WMO C) VAACs D) WAFC E) MWO

83. Associate the facility with the service it provides:Provides upper air gridded forecasts of upper winds; upper-air temperature humidity; direction, speed and flight level of maximum wind; flight level etc. A) WAFC B) WMO C) VAACs D) TCACs E) MWO

84. Associate the facility with the service it provides:Provides SIGMETs and AIRMETs. A) MWO B) WMO C) VAACs D) TCACs E) WAFC

85. Which of the following values corresponds to a NE-wind?

86. Which of the following statements are conditions that must be in place in order for mountain waves to form? 1. The wind blows within 30° of a right angle to the mountain range. 2. The wind speed abeam the top of the mountain exceeds 20 kt. 3. The wind speed decreases with altitude but the direction remains fairly constant. 4. The atmosphere is unstable on the windward side of the mountain top..

87. What is the interval over which the wind speed is reported for METARs and SPECIs?

88. The typical height of the vertical area affected by sea breeze in mid-latitudes is approximately:

89. Which of the following values corresponds to a SW-wind?

90. What is the approximate height of the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?

91. In which of the following circumstances would the formation of a low-level jet stream in the evening be most likely?

92. The wind which results from warming on the side of a mountain valley is known as:

93. In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows:

94. When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface wind to:

95. ln relation to the wind speed and direction at the top of the friction layer, which change in wind will a pilot normally experience during descent to the surface over land in the northern hemisphere?

96. An 'ANABATIC' wind is a wind which:

97. In a land and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:

98. Up to which flight level could the effects of mountain waves be expected to be encountered?

99. Convergence over a uniform surface is caused by:

100. A 'sea breeze' blows:

101. The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being the same):

102. When flying in mountainous terrain and assuming ISA temperatures and strong winds, which of the following is correct?

103. Which of the following is true of a 'land breeze'?

104. What is “Surface wind”?

105. Which type wind flows down slope becoming warmer and drier?

106. The wind which results from air cooling on the side of a mountain valley is known as:

107. In the proximity of the polar jet stream, where do wind shear and clear air turbulence (CAT) occur?

108. The most frequent wind direction in a valley near the ground, caused by thermal effects is towards the:

109. CAT can be described as turbulence:

110. The 'sea breeze' is a wind from the sea:

111. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?

112. Mountain waves should be expected:

113. A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be regarded as:

114. The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on:

115. Conditions most favourable for the formation of a low-level frictional turbulence are:

116. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:

117. With regard to temperature, which of the following is correct for the polar climates?

118. The location of which jet stream is largely dependent on the position of weather fronts?

119. You are on an approach to an airfield, descending through the friction layer. The wind changes from a headwind to a slight right crosswind.

120. How far and how high up can mountain waves reach originating from the Rocky Mountains (USA)?

121. What is correct regarding an anabatic wind? It can be described as a wind that blows:

122. At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind

123. It is the early afternoon on a sunny day in summer, and you are flying over the west coast of the Netherlands. If there is a non-frontal environment with a slack pressure gradient, the wind direction at the surface is likely to be:

125. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling polar front depressions during summer?

124. The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

126. A plain in western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

127. Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy thunderstorms?

128. What types of cloud will you see flying at FL 50 towards a warm front?

129. The polar front is the:

130. What type of clouds can one expect after a cold front has passed?

131. Which option correctly places, in a chronological order, the four stages of a mid- latitude depression life cycle? The stages are named and described as follows: Occlusion: the cold front has caught up with the warm front, the warm air has been partially lifted up. Developed: fronts are well defined, there is a pronounced warm sector. Cyclogenesis: a disturbance and fall in pressure causes cyclonic circulation. Frontolysis: all the warm air has been lifted up.

132. Which type of air mass never occurs over Central Europe?

133. In the Northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 ft AGL directly towards the centre of a LOW pressure area, will find the wind most likely blowing from:

134. An air mass which originates over the North Atlantic between 50 and 70 degrees north and is moving in over Scandinavia is called

135. How does the Polar Front move with seasons?

136. When a front crosses a mountain range, its activity:

137. When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?

138. In the northern hemisphere, during periods of prolonged cloudless skies over land, associated with anticyclonic conditions, the:

139. Mountains can affect ice accretion, due to orographic intensification, because:

140. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the Mediterranean climate?

141. In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:

142. An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:

143. When a rain shower approaches and passes an airfield, the following will happen:

144. What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?

145. Which one of the following statements is correct? A cold front:

146. How do air masses move at a warm front?

147. Frontal fog will dissipate when the:

148. The following changes are observed when a front has passed in the Northern Hemisphere: Wind: Sharp veer. Clouds: Embedded CBs. Pressure: Stops decreasing at the lowest value. Visibility: Very poor. What kind of front and airmass is it?

149. The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus, and altostratus. The Sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens, rain begins to fall from nimbostratus and the cloud base is lowering. These phenomena describe the approach of a:

150. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Polar lows are formed over water only. 2. Thermal lows are formed over land only.

151. What is the average diameter of a tropical revolving storm in the mature stage?

152. How many hurricanes form on average per year in the Atlantic?

153. What average geographical latitude is assumed for the zone of the travelling frontal depressions?

154. A blocking anticyclone in the northern hemisphere is:

155. A pilot must be very careful when planning a flight near a Tropical Revolving Storm (TRS) over the North Atlantic that is moving westwards and approaching the Caribbean islands. Why is that?

156. Where is the ferrell cell located within the global pressure system?

157. What are typical systems in the northern winter season between 50°N and 60°N?

158. State the approximate dimensions of a typical, full developed tropical revolving storm (TRS):

159. The 500 hPa contour chart is equivalent to:

160. You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area. An anticyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind affecting you, will be:

161. Which statement is correct? The Ferrel cell:

162. During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?

163. In the middle of the eye of a hurricane the wind speed is:

164. In which part of the world are tropical revolving storms (TRS) most frequent?

165. Over the Indian ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are:

166. On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?

167. What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?

168. What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?

169. Although the large-scale structure of atmospheric circulation varies from year to year (e.g. El Nino/La Nina events), the basic structure remains fairly constant because it is determined by:

170. What is the correct statement regarding cold air drops?

171. An area on a synoptic chart appearing as a 'V-shaped' extension of a low pressure area is called a:

172. Which set of surface values for temperature/relative humidity and freezing level is typical for the tropical rain climate?

173. What is the typical position of ITCZ in July?

174. During the approach to Mumbai (19° N 73° E ) on the west coast of India, you are listening to the ATIS on 15th of July at 0700 LT. Which of the following reports is most likely?

175. What is characteristic of the pamperos?

176. In which general direction does a polar front depression move?

177. Thunderstorms are often preceded by:

178. In the northern hemisphere the secondary depressions move:

179. Where are easterly waves found?

180. What are the typical climatic characteristics of a coastal area situated in the mid- latitude (disturbed temperate) climatic zone?

181. What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south?

182. What is the Bora?

183. When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?

184. The main icing zone in the ITCZ is located between

185. Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with strong winds from the south (Foehn)?

186. Which of the following is typical for the snow (tundra) climate?

187. Where is a squall line most likely to be expected?

188. In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?

189. Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?

190. The SW monsoon starts in the month of:

191. When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

192. Foehn-effects in mountainous areas occur:

193. A main condition for the development of tropical showers and thunderstorms in the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)is the presence of:

194. What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air drop?

195. Which of the following statements concerning the airflow during the summer monsoon is correct?

196. You could expect a wind similar to the Mistral to form under which of the following conditions?

197. Although the large-scale structure of atmospheric circulation varies from year to year (e.g. El Nino/La Nina events), the basic structure remains fairly constant because it is determined by:

198. A cold air drop can be best identified by means of:

199. In the disturbed temperate regions:

200. What is the reason for the seasonal movement of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)?

201. Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone?

202. An aircraft is operating over the plains of Tanzania in summer at low level, where the ITCZ is situated. What conditions are most likely to be experienced?

203. An observer is on the ground. What weather can he expect in the middle of a cold air drop?

204. According to ICAO, vertical visibility should be reported: (1) when expressed in feet, in steps of 100 ft up to 2000 ft; (2) when expressed in metres, in steps 30 m up to 600 m.

205. What is the meaning of the expression 'FEW'?

206. A METAR states that the wind direction is 130° , wind velocity is 5 kts, visibility is 8 km, clouds are scattered at 25 000 ft, temperature is 12° C, due point is -8° C and QNH is 1028 hPa. Which of the following weather conditions would result in a change of the current broadcast METAR (ATIS), meaning a publication of a new ATIS?

207. Which of these statements about weather satellites are correct or incorrect? 1. The pictures from geostationary weather satellites are generally of higher resolution than the pictures from satellites in a polar orbit. 2. Satellites in a polar orbit are closer to the earth than geostationary satellites.

208. What is included in a METAR regarding runway condition? 1 - Runway designator. 2 - Airport designator. 3 - Extent of contamination. 4 - Depth of deposits. 5 - Breaking coefficient. 6 - Prediction/trend.

209. The isohypse 11 880 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the following pressure level?

210. On a weather chart, widespread fog is indicated by:

211. The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical values immediately following the term PROB, are:

212. The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:

213. The volcano alert code used in field E of an ASHTAM is:

214. On a significant weather chart you notice a surface weather front with an arrow labelled with the no 5 pointing outward perpendicular from the front. This would indicate:

215. If during the last 10 minutes preceding the issuance of a METAR the wind velocity deviates more than 10 kt from mean value obtained during the same period of time, this will be indicated as:

216. What does the term SIGMET signify?

217. A pilot is planning to depart from an airfield at sea level in the southern hemisphere below a layer of nimbo-stratus cloud with ceiling 5000 ft, the surface temperature at the airfield is +3°C, +7° C at the cloud ceiling, and it is raining. The aircraft's initial track will be towards a nearby mountain range. Which of the following phenomena might indicate a risk of icing outside of the cloud shortly after take-off?

218. On an infrared meteorological satellite image, a large, bright-white area is clearly noted. On a visible satellite image of the same area, at the same time, a translucent whitish layer is observed. The most likely conclusion from both images is that there is:

219. Different reports of the surface wind at an aerodrome are listed below. Which of the statements best explains the variability in the reported surface wind?

220. In the METAR code the abbreviation VCBLDU means:

221. Decode the following message: CNL AD WRNG 3 101100/101130

222. A pilot wants to select airport for arrival with a runway where RVR is at least 550 metres. Considering the following METARs, valid for the arrival time, choose the appropriate airport (assume all other criteria for landing to each airport). EGKK 191050Z 09002KT 0200 FZFG R0BR/0350 R0BL/0500 VV001 M03/M02 Q100B WS RWY08R. EGLF 191050Z 07003KT 0200 FZFG R06/0700D VV001 M03/M03 Q1008. EGGW 191050Z 08004KT 0200 FZFG R0B/0300U VV001 M02/M02 Q1007. EGLL 191050Z 09002KT 0100 FZFG R09L/0300U R09R/0500U VV001 M02/M02 Q1008.

223. How often shall the information produced by an airfield windshear alert system be updated?

224. Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?

225. What can be said if you encounter +FZRA during flight?

226. What is a radiosonde?

227. A SIGMET:

228. What is a ceilometer used for?

229. Which of the following statements about advantages or disadvantages of IR and visual satellites is true?

230. The horizontal visibility given for VFR flight planning by a MET Office is:

231. The units of measurement used for RVR are:

232. On a significant weather chart the thunderstorm symbol signifies:

233. You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a fine and hot summer day. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?

234. What is the abbreviation used in METAR and TAF, when ice particles with a diameter of 4 mm have been observed?

235. The type of information given by airborne weather radar is a map with an indication of

236. What does a Radiosonde measure?

237. What does the code TAF AMD mean?

238. What does RVR stand for?

239. What does the information 'R23L/P1200' imply?

240. What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

241. In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?

242. An aircraft encounters atmospheric conditions in which abrupt changes of attitude and altitude of the aircraft occur. Changes in accelerometer readings go up to 1.2 g measured at the aircraft`s centre of gravity. Loose objects inside the aircraft are tossed about. Which report, if any, is required?

243. What are the meanings of the meteorological abbreviations SQ, BR, MIFG and SG respectively?

244. A possible threat associated with the use of airborne weather radar to detect potentially hazardous conditions is:

245. VTSP CNL AD WRNG 2 300100/300300 This message means:

246. The image on a modern airborne weather radar (AWR) shows a hook shape. What can be concluded?

247. Which of the following correctly describes how area forecasts of upper-air meteorological phenomena, for pre-flight planning purposes, are produced?

248. By use of Doppler techniques, modern airborne weather radar can detect turbulence in:

249. Compare meteorological visibility: (Note RA = rain, DZ = drizzle, FG = fog, SN = snow, BR = mist) Which statement is correct?

250. The crew of an aircraft flying from London Heathrow (EGLL) to Palma de Mallorca (LEPA), when passing to the west of Paris, wish to check the latest weather at aerodromes in the vicinity, in case of the need for an in-flight diversion. To obtain this information what single source of meteorological information, available through HF, could the crew consult?