OPS 01

1. The term 'CAT operations' describes: A) The transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or valuable reward. B) The carriage of passengers or mail in any circumstances. C) The carriage of passengers, cargo or mail across international borders. D) Any flight operated by the holder of a commercial pilot's licence.

2. The ICAO document applicable to operations by operators authorised to conduct international CAT operations is: A) ICAO Annex 6, Part 1. B) ICAO Annex 18, Part CAT. C) Regulation 965/2001. D) ICAO Annex 6, Part Int.

3. What area of operations is covered by Regulation 965/2012 Annex VIII? A) Speciailised Operations B) Non-Complex Aircraft C) Specific Approvals D) Aeroplane Maintenance

4. What are ICAO SARPS? A) Standards and Recommended Practices B) Standard Aviation Requirements and Practices C) Standard Aviation Recommended Procedures D) Standards and Required Procedures

5. As a minimum the flight safety documentation system comprises the __________ manual and the __________ control manual. A) operations; maintenance B) operations; ground C) Training; maintenance D) Training; ground

6. CAT operations are only legal if the operator has an: A) air operator's certificate B) air operations certificate C) airline operations certificate

7. An applicant for an AOC must submit: A) Its name and address. B) A description of the proposed operation. C) The types and registrations of its aircraft. D) A description of its management system and organisational structure. E) The names of the accountable manager, nominated persons, and their qualifications. F) A copy of the OM. G) A statement that the documents submitted are compliant with regulations. H) The names and licence numbers of its pilots. I) The name of the accountable engineer. J) Copies of last annual accounts.

8. Before issuing or revalidating an AOC, the authority verifies that: A) The OM is compliant with the regulations. B) All aircraft have valid certificates of airworthiness. C) The maintenance system has been approved. D) The organisation and management are suitable and adequate. E) The applicant has an adequate quality system. F) The required training programmes are in place. G) The applicant has approved flight crew. H) Applicant has not submitted more than 1 ASR per 100 flights.

9. Before conducting CAT operations, the operator must: A) Obtain an AOC issued by the relevant Authority. B) Apply for an AOC from the relevant Authority. C) Apply for an AOC from EASA. D) Obtain approval from IATA.

10. The rules relating to language require that: A) The OM is in English unless the Authority approves otherwise. B) The operator may translate the OM into another language, but an English copy is required. C) Crew must communicate in a common language. D) Operational staff must communicate in the OM language. E) The crew must communicate in English. F) Operational staff must communicate in English.

11. Identify the true and false statements.Personnel must have access to parts of the OM related to their duties. A) True B) False

12. Identify the true and false statements.Crew members must have personal copies of the OM Part A and Part B. A) True B) False

13. Identify the true and false statements.All personnel must have personal access to the OM Parts A, B and C. A) False B) True

14. Identify the true and false statements.Flight crew must have personal copies of the OM Parts A, B and C. A) False B) True

15. Identify the true and false statements.Copies of all parts of the OM must be kept in the aircraft library. A) False B) True

16. OM Part A contains which of the following? A) Non-type-related operational policies, instructions and procedures. B) Ground de-icing and anti-icing procedures. C) Adverse weather procedures. D) Wake turbulence guidance. E) Crew incapacitation guidance. F) Use of the MEL and CDL. G) Security procedures. H) Accident and incident handling. I) Training policies and procedures. J) Route and aerodrome information.

17. The OM Part B contains which of the following? A) Abnormal and emergency procedures. B) The CDL. C) The MEL. D) Emergency evacuation procedures. E) Aerodrome and area information. F) Training policies and procedures.

18. Before authorising the use of an aerodrome, the operator must ensure that it has adequate (select 6): A) Communications. B) Sufficient lighting. C) Emergency services. D) ATS. E) Navigation aids. F) Meteorological reports. G) Customs facilities. H) Engineering support. I) Flight crew rest facilities. J) Rail and road infrastructure.

19. Identify the true statements below. An operator's management system must include: A) The lines of responsibility, including direct safety accountability to the accountable manager. B) A description of principles regarding safety (safety policy). C) Identification of aviation safety hazards, evaluation, management and mitigation of risks. D) Personnel training and verification of competence. E) Documentation of management system processes and records, ensuring activity is traceable. F) Methods to monitor compliance and feedback to accountable manager. G) A means to ensure that contractors meet all requirements, or work under the approval and control of the operator. H) A means for verifying that all 3rd party contractors hold an appropriate AOC.

20. Identify if this is a true or false statement.Digital flight data monitoring programmes use data from operations for safety and disciplinary purposes. A) False B) true

21. Identify if this is a true or false statement.A flight data monitoring programme should exist for aircraft with MCTOM > 20 000 kg. A) True B) false

22. Identify if this is a true or false statement.A flight data monitoring programme must exist for aircraft with MCTOM > 27 000 kg. A) True B) false

23. The operator's flight safety programme: A) Identifies adverse trends or deficiencies. B) Protects the identity of the reporter or allows anonymous reports. C) Promulgates relevant information/documents relating to ASRs, accidents or incidents. D) Does not apportion blame. E) Automatically copies all reports to the relevant authority

24. The commander or operator must submit an ASR to __________ for any incident that endangered, or could have endangered, safety. A) the Authority B) EASA C) IATA

25. An ATC service appropriate to airspace and rules of the air: A) Must be used for all flights when possible. B) Must be used by all aircraft with a MCTOM > 27 000 kg. C) Must be used by all aircraft with a MCTOM > 20 000 kg. D) Is not essential for a flight in which no passengers are carried.

26. Before authorising the use of an aerodrome, the operator must ensure that it has adequate: A) Runway length, width, slope and surface. B) Approach facilities and procedures. C) Fire and rescue facilities. D) ATS. E) Customs facilities. F) Engineering support.

27. Operators must not permit the use of portable electronic devices: A) That can adversely affect aeroplane systems or equipment. B) Of any type at any time. C) Between taxi-out and taxi-in. D) While the engines are running.

28. PRMs must not occupy seats where their presence might: A) Impede crew in their duties. B) Obstruct access to emergency equipment. C) Impede emergency evacuation. D) Require access to personal belongings in flight.

29. Which of the following render a passenger unsuitable to occupy a seat next to an emergency exit (e.g. over-wing exits): A) Physical or mental disability. B) Blindness or deafness. C) Old age or sickness, causing difficulty in moving fast. D) Obesity, causing difficulty moving to / through emergency exit. E) PRMs, inadmissible passengers, deportees, persons in custody. F) Passengers with animals. G) Company personnel. H) Age less than 21. I) Age over 70 years of age. J) Smokers or vapers.

30. The Commander must ensure that access to the flight deck shall only be provided to: A) The operating crew. B) Representatives of the inspecting authority. C) Others specified in the OM. D) Children. E) Friends and Family.

31. If a crew member is working for more than one operator the responsibility for flight, duty and rest records rests with: A) The crew member. B) The operator. C) The Commander. D) The Authority.

32. Task specialists must always be restrained when: A) When carrying out tasks with external doors open or removed. B) In their assigned station during critical phases of flight, and when deemed necessary by the commander, unless otherwise specified in SOPs. C) Carrying out duties specified in SOPs. D) Reporting to the commander any defect might affect the safety of operations.

33. During take-off and landing, flight crew must be at their assigned station.During other flight phases, flight crew members may leave their stations if necessary: A) For the performance of their duties. B) For their physiological needs. C) During landing, when caring for a critically ill passenger. D) For their psychological needs.

34. Which of the following documents must be carried on every flight: A) The aircraft’s certificate of registration. B) The aircraft’s C of A. C) The aircraft’s noise certificate. D) A copy of the AOC. E) The aircraft’s radio licence. F) The 3rd-party liability insurance certificate. G) Licences with appropriate ratings for all flight crew. H) Licences with appropriate flight certifications for all cabin crew. I) The flight crew's log books.

35. Which of the following manuals must be carried on every flight: A) Current parts of OM relevant to flight crew duties - easily accessible to crew. B) The AFM, unless the Authority accepts that the OM contains all relevant information. C) Current parts of OM relevant to cabin crew duties - easily accessible to crew. D) A compendium of EU regulations. E) The ICAO TIs for the carriage of dangerous goods.

36. Which of the following information / forms must be carried on every flight: A) The operational flight plan. B) The aeroplane's technical log. C) Details of the filed ATS flight plan. D) The NOTAM/AID briefing document. E) Mass and balance documentation (the load sheet). F) Notification of special categories of passenger (SCP). G) Notification to commander of special loads (NOTOC). H) Current maps, charts and associated documents. I) Other documents required by the State of the operator e.g. Passenger manifest, cargo manifest. J) Forms to comply with reporting requirements.

37. The commander must produce all required documents within a reasonable time if asked by a representative of: A) The Authority. B) IATA C) ICAO D) The Operator

38. Which of the following information must be retained on the ground: A) A copy of the OFP where appropriate. B) Copies of relevant parts of the aircraft's technical log. C) Route-specific NOTAM/AIS documentation if edited by the operator. D) Mass and balance documentation (the load sheet) if required. E) The NOTOC. F) The flight crew's performance calculations (Vspeeds) G) Meteorological information. H) Notification of special categories of passenger (SCP).

39. The journey log (or equivalent) must include the: A) Aircraft's registration. B) Date. C) Crew names. D) Crew duty assignments. E) Place of departure. F) Place of arrival. G) Time of departure (off-block time). H) Time of arrival (on-block time). I) Hours of flight. J) Commander’s signature.

40. The commander is responsible for: A) The safety of the crew, passengers and cargo. B) Passenger safety from the moment they arrive on board until they disembark. C) The safety of the crew and passengers only. D) The loading of cargo onto the aircraft. E) Passenger safety from doors closed to doors open.

41. The crew must: A) Report to the commander any defect which might affect safety. B) Report to the commander any occurrence which is affecting safety. C) Comply with the operator's occurrence reporting scheme. D) Comply with flight and duty time limitations.

42. CRM elements of training must be covered:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Before starting operations. B) During the conversion course. C) As part of recurrent training. D) During a first officer's line check. E) During every element of required training.

43. A conversion course must be completed:Mark 2 correct answers. A) When changing your type of aircraft. B) When joining an operator. C) When changing your class of aircraft. D) As part of your annual line check.

44. During a conversion course, flight crew may not operate other types or classes of aircraft.This rule doesn't apply to flight crew who are exclusively operating Performance Class __________ aircraft. A) B B) A C) C D) D

45. Which of the following are included in the Operator's initial conversion course:Mark all correct answers. A) Ground training/checking. B) Emergency/safety equipment training/checking. C) Flight training/checking (aircraft and/or FSTD). D) CRM training elements. E) Line flying under supervision. F) Line check. G) First aid training. H) ‘Pool drill’. I) Command responsibilities training.

46. Which of the following manoeuvres must be included in the OPC:Mark all correct answers. A) Rejected take-off in FSTD (touch-drills in aircraft). B) OEI precision approach to minima. C) Non-precision approach to minima. D) OEI missed approach from minima. E) OEI Landing / single-engine aircraft PFL. F) Automatic approach and landing.

47. Which of the following are included as the content of the Command course:Mark all correct answers. A) FSTD training. B) OPC as commander. C) Command responsibilities training. D) Line training as commander under supervision - min 10 flights. E) Line check as commander. F) CRM training. G) Emergency/safety equipment training/checking. H) Flight training/checking (aircraft and/or FSTD).

48. Which of the following are valid additional conversion and recurrent training requirements for single pilot IFR/night operations:Mark all correct answers. A) Engine management and emergency handling. B) Normal, abnormal and emergency checklist use. C) ATS communications. D) Departure and approach procedures. E) Autopilot management. F) Simplified in-flight documentation use. G) Single-pilot CRM. H) Night arrival procedures. I) Night-time CRM issues.

49. When a pilot has an OML licence restriction, the other pilot must be: A) Fully qualified on type, no OML, less than 60 years old. B) Fully qualified on type, no OML, less than 65 years old. C) Fully qualified on type, no OML, less than 59 years old. D) No OML, less than 60 years old.

50. When IFR or night flying, 2 pilots are required for:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Turboprops with a MOPSC >9. B) Turbojets. C) Turboprops with a MOPSC >19. D) Turbojets with a MOPSC >9.

51. When operating an in-flight relief (heavy) crew at or above FL 200, the commander can be relieved by: A) A commander, or an ATPL-holding co-pilot who is type-rated, satisfies the recency requirements and is in date with recurrent training. B) A commander, or a CPL/ATPL-holding co-pilot who is type-rated, satisfies the recency requirements and is in date with recurrent training. C) Any CPL-holding co-pilot who is type-rated, satisfies the recency requirements and is in date with recurrent training. D) Any flight crew member.

52. Pilots operating both aeroplanes and helicopters may only operate __________ type(s) of each.

53. A captain may be assigned to operate from the co-pilot's position for training or checking a __________ or when designated by the operator to act as co-pilot. A) commander B) new first officer

54. Flight crew must not operate on more than __________ type(s) or variant(s) unless competent to do so.The Operator must assess the differences, similarities, SOPs and handling characteristics of the aircraft to ensure that such an operation is justified.

55. Recency, training and checking requirements must be met for each type/variant operated by an individual crew member, except where the __________ approves credit(s) across types or variants. A) Authority B) Operator C) ICAO

56. To be nominated as the commander of a flight, the flight crew member must have:Mark all correct answers. A) The level of experience specified in the OM. B) Knowledge of the routes/area and aerodromes, facilities, terrain, obstructions and procedures. C) Completed a command course if operating multi-crew aircraft. D) A minimum of 1500 hrs.

57. Which of the following statements are valid?Mark all correct answers. A) The composition and number of flight crew must be in accordance with the AFM/OM. B) The flight crew must hold valid licences, be qualified and be competent. C) The flight crew may comprise additional members above that required by the AFM. D) Only 1 inexperienced flight crew member is permitted in a crew. E) A flight engineer station must be occupied by a flight engineer.

58. For single-pilot IFR, the pilot must have:Mark all correct answers. A) At least 50 hrs IFR on type/class of which at least 10 hrs as commander. B) Flown within the last 90 days on the type or class. C) At least 5 IFR single-pilot flights D) At least 3 instrument approaches, or an IFR instrument approach check on the type of class. E) Flown within the last 60 days on the type or class.

59. __________ training is appropriate when 2 variants of the same aircraft type have very similar equipment and handling characteristics. A) Familiarisation B) Differences C) Accurate

60. __________ training is required when the variants are broadly similar but have some significant differences that justify time in the simulator or aircraft. A) Differences B) Familiarisation C) Accurate

61. The mandatory training/checking items required before a commander may operate in the co-pilot's position include:Mark all correct answers. A) Engine failure during take-off. B) OEI approach and go-around. C) OEI landing. D) At least one PBN precision and one PBN non-precision apprach.

62. 'A non-technical crew member assigned to perform in-flight duties related to the safety of passengers' is a description of: A) Cabin crew. B) Flight crew. C) Check-in staff. D) Handling staff.

63. Additional crew (e.g. escorts, security staff etc) in the cabin must not:Mark all correct answers. A) Wear cabin crew uniform. B) Occupy required cabin crew stations. C) Impede operating cabin crew in their duties. D) Assist cabin crew in their duties.

64. To be nominated as senior cabin crew member (SCCM) the crew-member must have at least 1 year's experience as cabin crew and have passed a course which must include training on:Mark all correct answers. A) Pre-flight briefing - allocation of crew to stations, responsibilities, etc. B) Crew co-operation - discipline, chain of command, communication etc. C) The Operator’s requirements - passenger briefing, bag stowage etc. D) Human factors - including CRM. E) Flight/duty time limitations. F) Dealing with passengers with reduced mobility (PRM).

65. An aircraft must have cabin crew, when there are passengers on board, if its MOPSC is greater than:

66. Which of the following are valid requirements for cabin crew?Mark all correct answers. A) Must be >18 years old. B) Must be physically and mentally fit for duty. C) Must have completed training/checking. D) Must have completed conversion/differences training. E) Must have completed recurrent training. F) Must be competent to perform the duties specified in OM. G) May be freelance/part-time crew; comply with all requirements of regulations. H) Must hold a valid attestation issued by operator that requirements of regulations have been met. I) Must be trained and qualified on type/variant. J) Must be >21 years old.

67. During __________ phases of flight, cabin crew must be seated at assigned station and must not perform any duties other than those required for safety. A) critical B) difficult C) turbulent

68. Cabin crew can operate on up to __________ different aeroplane types. This number may be increased if the procedures are similar. In this context a 'different type’ means that equipment locations, exits or procedures are different.

69. If no other conditions apply, then the mandatory minimum number of cabin crew is the greater of:Mark 2 correct answers. A) The number of cabin crew established during the aircraft certification process for the MOPSC, reduced by 1 for every whole multiple of 50 passenger seats below this maximum in the configuration used by the operator. B) 1 cabin crew member for every 50, or fraction of 50, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the aircraft to be operated. C) The number of crew designated by the Authority. D) 1 cabin crew member for every 60, or fraction of 60, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the aircraft to be operated.

70. When on stand and not refuelling the minimum requirements for cabin crew:Mark all correct answers. A) Require a SCCM among the crew. B) 1 crew member per 50 or part of 50 passengers on the same deck. C) 1 crew member present at each pair of floor level emergency exits. D) 1 crew member per 100 or part of 100 passengers on the same deck.

71. In unforeseen circumstances, the aircraft can operate with reduced crew if passenger numbers are reduced to ensure the rules are met. In such cases a report must be made to __________. A) the Authority B) EASA C) the Operator D) ICAO

72. The Operator must:Mark all correct answers. A) Nominate a home base for each crew member. B) Publish duty rosters in advance so crew can plan adequate rest. C) Appreciate the relationship between frequency and pattern of duty and rest periods. D) Consider the cumulative effects of long duty and minimum rest periods. E) Plan duty periods to avoid serious disruption of established sleep patterns. F) Plan and publish days free of duty in advance. G) Plan rest periods sufficient to overcome the effects of previous duties.

73. 'Any task a crew member performs for the operator'. This is a definition of: A) Duty B) Duty period. C) Rotation. D) Reserve.

74. The location from where the crew member normally starts and ends a series of FDPs and where crew accommodation is not required'. This is a definition of: A) Home base. B) En-route location. C) On-airport standby duty. D) Dead-heading'.

75. The mandatory requirements defining 'suitable accommodation' include a separate room for each crew member:Mark all correct answers. A) In a quiet environment. B) With a bed. C) Sufficiently ventilated. D) With controllable light and temperature. E) With access to food and drink. F) With a desk. G) With internet access. H) With a TV, or some other form of relaxing entertainment.

76. Flight time specification schemes must specify recurrent extended recovery rest periods to compensate for cumulative fatigue. Such periods must be a minimum of __________ hours, including __________ local night(s). A) 36; 2 B) 36;3 C) 36;1 D) 36;4 E) 24;2 F) 24;3 G) 24;1 H) 24;4 I) 12;2 J) 12;3

77. Before exercising Commander’s discretion the commander must: A) Consult the crew on their alertness levels before deciding on extension. B) Obtain the permission of all the crew members. C) Obtain the permission of the majority of the crew members. D) Obtain the permission of the Operator.

78. Which of the following rules are relevant to airport standby periods:Mark all correct answers. A) The start and end time must be notified to crew to allow adequate rest to be planned. B) Crew are considered to be on standby from report at the airport until the end of the notified period. C) Standby counts in full as duty - any FDP counts in full from the airport standby report time. D) Accommodation is required for crew on airport standby. E) Crew are considered to be on standby from the nominated start of the standby duty until the end of the nominated period.

79. The Operator’s flight time specification scheme must specify:Mark all correct answers. A) The maximum duration of airport standby. B) The impact of time on airport standby on FDP that may be assigned, based on: the need for immediate readiness of the crew member, the interference of standby on sleep patterns, sufficient notification to protect a sleep opportunity between call for duty and assigned FDP. C) The minimum rest period following a standby which doesn't result in a FDP. D) How time on standby, other than airport standby, is counted for cumulative duty periods. E) The maximum duration of a flight duty period when this occurs as a result of standby.

80. Which of the following rules apply to commander's discretion:Mark all correct answers. A) If, on the final sector within an FDP, the allowed increase is exceeded because of unforeseen circumstances after take-off, the flight may continue to the planned destination or alternate aerodrome. B) The rest period following the FDP may be reduced but can never be less than 10 hours. C) In case of unforeseen circumstances which could lead to severe fatigue, the commander must reduce the actual FDP and/or increase the rest period to eliminate any detrimental effect on flight safety. D) The Commander must submit a report to the Operator whenever, at his/her discretion, a FDP has been increased, or a rest period reduced. E) The maximum FDP may not be increased by more than 4 hours, unless the flight crew is augmented, in which case the maximum FDP may be increased by not more than 5 hours.

81. The MMEL:Mark all correct answers. A) Is established by the manufacturer. B) Is approved by the Authority in the State of design. C) Specifies which items may be unserviceable at the start of flight. D) Is the basis for the MEL. E) Is established by the operator. F) Is approved by the State of the Operator.

82. The MEL:Mark all correct answers. A) Is established by the Operator. B) Is no less restrictive than MMEL. C) Is approved by the Operator's Authority. D) Permits operation with listed items unserviceable at commencement of flight. E) Established by the manufacturer. F) Approved by the State of Design.

83. 'The point when the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of preparing for take-off'. This is a definition of: A) Commencement of flight. B) Start of a flight duty period. C) Start of a duty period. D) Push back. E) Taxiing.

84. An item which does not consistently accomplish its intended purpose, or function within its design limits or tolerances is most properly classed as __________. A) inoperative B) dysfunctional C) an acceptable deferred defect

85. With respect to unserviceability or defects, flight crew must:Mark all correct answers. A) Ensure any listed conditions are met. B) Check all defects against MEL before despatch. C) Refer to the MEL to inform decision if the defect occurs after despatch. D) Check all defects against MMEL before despatch.

86. Sole authority as to whether an 'acceptable deferred defect' is acceptable for the flight rests with: A) The commander. B) The Authority. C) The Operator. D) The dispatcher.

87. For daylight operations, all aircraft must have:Mark all correct answers. A) Anti-collision lights. B) Instrument illumination. C) Passenger compartment illumination. D) A torch (flashlight) for each crew member. E) Navigation lights. F) 2 landing lights (or 1 with 2 filaments). G) A single landing light.

88. For night operations, aircraft must have:Mark all correct answers. A) Navigation lights B) 2 landing lights (or 1 with 2 filaments). C) For seaplanes, lights meeting the maritime collision prevention regulations. D) Anti-collision lights. E) Instrument illumination. F) Passenger compartment illumination. G) A torch (flashlight) for each crew member. H) Tail fin illumination lights. I) Rear-facing white strobe lights on the wing tips.

89. Which of the following correctly states the requirement for spare fuses? A) 10% (min 3) of each rating in use. B) 10% (min 2) of each rating in use. C) 25% (min 3) of each rating in use. D) 25% (min 2) of each rating in use.

90. Apart from the basic 6, which other flight instruments are mandatory for day VFR flight?Mark 4 correct answers. A) Time hrs min sec. B) OAT. C) Mach number (if relevant). D) Indication of power supply failure to any of the instruments required. E) Angle of attack indicator. F) HSI

91. For day VFR flight in a multi-pilot aircraft the second pilot must have his/her own indication of:Mark all correct answers. A) Pressure altitude. B) Air speed. C) Vertical speed. D) Turn and slip. E) Attitude. F) Heading. G) OAT. H) Mach number (if relevant). I) Indication of power supply failure to any required instrument. J) Horizontal situation.

92. In relation to aircraft with a MCTOM greater than 5700 kg, which of the following additional instruments are required for night or IFR operations?Mark all correct answers. A) A 2nd pressure altitude indicator. B) Stabilised heading. C) For propeller-driven aircraft, an alternate static pressure source. For all other aircraft, a 2nd static pressure system. D) Pitot/static ice protection failure annunciation if Individual C of A issued after 1 Apr 1998 and the aircraft has a MOPSC >9. E) Standby attitude if aircraft has a MOPSC >9. F) Illuminated chart holders in easily readable positions. G) For single or multi-pilot operations, an autopilot with altitude and heading modes.

93. An altitude alerting system is required for:Mark all correct answers. A) Turboprops with a MCTOM > 5700 kg or a MOPSC >9. B) All turbojets. C) Turboprops with MCTOM > 5700 kg or a MOPSC >19. D) Turbojets with MCTOM > 5700 kg or a MOPSC >19.

94. The altitude alerting system must:Mark all correct answers. A) Alert crew when approaching pre-selected altitude. B) Have an aural alert of deviation from the pre-selected altitude. C) Display the vertical deviation from the cleared altitude. D) Have a colour-coded height display to indicate deviation from the cleared altitude.

95. If required, a standby attitude indicator must:Mark all correct answers. A) Be powered continuously in normal operation. B) Following total electrical failure, automatically operate for at least 30 mins using an emergency power supply. C) Operate independently of other attitude indicators. D) Be illuminated. E) Indicate when it's powered by the emergency power supply. F) Following total electrical failure, automatically operate for at least 20 mins using an emergency power supply. G) Be located in the centre of the main instrument panel.

96. TAWS is required: A) For all aircraft with a MCTOM > 5700 kg or a MOPSC > 9 B) For all turbine-powered aircraft, but not piston-engined aircraft. C) For all aircraft with a MCTOM > 5700 kg or MOPSC > 19. D) Only for aircraft certified to operate under IFR.

97. ACAS II is required if the aircraft:Mark all correct answers. A) Is turbine-powered. B) Has a MCTOM > 5700 kg. C) Has a MOPSC > 19. D) Has a MOPSC > 9. E) Has a MCTOM >15 000 kg.

98. Weather radar is required:Mark all correct answers. A) For pressurised aircraft or aircraft with a MCTOM > 5700 kg. B) Non-pressurised aircraft with a MOPSC > 9. C) Non-pressurised aircraft with a MCTOM > 5700 kg,. D) Any pressurised aircraft. E) For any aircraft operating at night or in IMC and where hazardous, radar-identifiable weather may exist.

99. A crew member interphone is required for aircraft:Mark all correct answers. A) With a MCTOM >15 000 kg. B) With a MOPSC > 19. C) With a MCTOM > 5700 kg. D) With a MOPSC > 9.

100. The crew-member interphone system must:Mark all correct answers. A) Be independent of the passenger address system, except for handsets and switches etc. B) Distinguish between normal and emergency calls. C) Be readily usable at each flight crew station. D) Be easily heard throughout all passenger cabins.

101. Crew member interphones must be located:Mark all correct answers. A) In each passenger compartment where crew are required. B) At each galley not on a passenger deck. C) At each crew compartment remote from the passenger deck. D) At a position externally accessible to ground personnel. E) In every galley.

102. VFR flights navigating by visual landmarks must have radio allowing:Mark all correct answers. A) Communication with ground stations. B) Communication with ATS units in controlled airspace. C) Reception of weather information. D) Reception of navigation signals.

103. IFR flights and VFR flights not navigating visually must have:Mark all correct answers. A) 2 radios capable of communicating with ground stations. B) 1 altitude-reporting SSR transponder. C) Navigation equipment capable of navigating safely after failure of 1 item. D) Navigation equipment meeting the RNP of the airspace. E) If landing in IMC, equipment capable of guiding the aircraft to a point where a visual landing may be conducted. F) GNSS (satnav) equipment. G) An electronic navigation display (ND).

104. Operation in RVSM airspace requires:Mark all correct answers. A) 2 independent altimeters. B) An altitude alerting system. C) An automatic altitude control system. D) A SSR transponder with altitude reporting connected to the altimeter in use. E) 3 independent altimeters. F) SSR transponder. G) GNSS-derived altitude.

105. For flights in RVSM airspace, the Operator must report which of the following altitude-keeping errors?Mark all correct answers. A) > +/- 300 ft total vertical error. B) > +/- 245 ft altimetry system error. C) > +/- 300 ft assigned altitude deviation. D) > +/- 245 ft total vertical error. E) > +/- 245 ft assigned altitude deviation. F) > +/- 300 ft altimetry system error.

106. Navigation databases and their associated supplier systems:Mark all correct answers. A) Must support navigation applications with the integrity required for the intended use of the data. B) Must provide methods of processing and delivery with an adequate standard of integrity. C) Must allow the operator to continuously monitor the integrity of processes and products. D) Must permit the Operator to ensure timely distribution and insertion of current, unaltered data to all aeroplanes that require it. E) Must permit the operator to download historic data on the integrity of processes and products.

107. CVR is compulsory on:Mark all correct answers. A) Multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane MOPSC > 9. B) All aeroplanes MCTOM > 5700 kg. C) Multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane MOPSC > 5. D) All aeroplanes MCTOM > 3900 kg.

108. The minimum transmit time for the CVR underwater locating device is __________ days.

109. The minimum CVR loop recording time is: A) 25 hrs if the aircraft's MCTOM > 27 000 kg and its C of A was issued after 1 Jan 2021 and 2 hrs for all other aeroplanes. B) 25 hrs if the aircraft's MCTOM > 5700 kg and its C of A was issued after 1 Jan 2021 and 2 hrs for all other aeroplanes. C) 10 hrs if the aircraft's MCTOM > 27 000 kg and individual C of A after 1 Jan 2021 and 2 hrs for all other aeroplanes. D) 25 hrs if the aircraft's MCTOM > 5700 kg and its C of A was issued after 1 Jan 2021 and 1 hr for all other aeroplanes.

110. An FDR is compulsory for:Mark 2 correct answers. A) All aircraft with a MCTOM >5700 kg. B) Any multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft with MOPSC >9. C) All aircraft with MCTOM >3500 kg. D) Any multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft with a MOPSC >6.

111. An emergency medical kit required for any aircraft with a: A) MOPSC > 30 and which intends to fly > 60 minutes from an aerodrome with medical assistance available. B) MOPSC > 20 and which intends to fly > 60 minutes from an aerodrome with medical assistance available. C) MOPSC > 20 and which intends to fly > 45 minutes from an aerodrome with medical assistance available. D) MOPSC > 30 and which intends to fly > 30 minutes from an aerodrome with medical assistance available.

112. First-aid oxygen is required for any aeroplane which: A) Requires cabin crew and is pressurised and which operates at a pressure altitude > 25 000 ft. B) Requires cabin crew or is pressurised or which operates at a pressure altitude > 25 000 ft. C) Requires cabin crew and is pressurised and which operates at a pressure altitude > 10 000 ft. D) Requires cabin crew and is pressurised and which operates at a pressure altitude > 19 000 ft.

113. Crew PBE, capable of operating for 15 minutes, is required in all aircraft with a:Mark 2 correct answers. A) MOPSC > 19. B) MCTOM > 5700 kg. C) MCTOM > 3700 kg. D) MOPSC > 9.

114. An aircraft with 29 passengers requires how many fire extinguishers?

115. An aircraft with 42 passengers requires how many fire extinguishers?

116. An aircraft with 242 passengers requires how many fire extinguishers?

117. How many battery-powered accessible megaphones are required on an aircraft with a MOPSC of 61-99? A) 1 B) NONE

118. ELTs must transmit on: A) 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz simultaneously. B) Either 121.5 MHz or 406 MHz. C) 121.5 GHz and 406 GHz simultaneously. D) Either 121.5 GHz or 406 GHz.

119. Life rafts are required for flight over water at ‘long distances’ from land. For an aeroplane capable of continuing OEI to an aerodrome this means the lesser of: A) 120 min at cruising speed and 400 nm. B) 90 min at cruising speed and 400 nm. C) 120 min at cruising speed and 300 nm. D) 180 min at cruising speed and 200 nm.

120. Secure flight deck doors:Mark all correct answers. A) Are required for aircraft with a MOPSC >19. B) Must have a placard stating ‘Crew Only.’ C) Must be lockable. D) Must have a placard stating ‘No Entry.’

121. Additional survival equipment is not required if an aircraft remains close to areas where rescue is not especially difficult. This means:Mark 3 correct answers. A) 120 min at OEI cruise speed for aeroplanes capable of continuing OEI. B) 30 min at cruising speed for other aeroplanes. C) CS 25: 90 min cruise speed from area suitable for emergency landing. D) 60 min at OEI cruise speed for aeroplanes capable of continuing OEI. E) 20 min at cruising speed for other aeroplanes.

122. The average flow rate of first aid oxygen must be __________ litres per minute per person at standard temperature and pressure, dry (STPD).

123. The first aid oxygen equipment must be capable of a mass flow of at least __________ litres STPD per minute.

124. For passenger oxygen systems, the required minimum supply is the amount of oxygen needed for a constant rate descent from the aeroplane’s maximum certificated operating altitude to 15 000 ft in __________ minutes.

125. Which of the following are the valid ELT requirements for an aircraft issued with a C of A before 1 Jul 08?Mark 2 correct answers. A) If the MOPSC is < 19, 1 ELT. B) If the MOPSC > 19, 1 automatic or 2 manual ELTs. C) If the MOPSC > 19, 2 automatic ELTs. D) If the MOPSC > 9, 1 automatic or 2 manual ELTs.

126. For aircraft issued with a C of A after 1 Jul 08, which of the following are valid ELT requirements?Mark 2 correct answers. A) MOPSC < 19, 1 automatic ELT. B) MOPSC > 19, 2 ELTs of which at least 1 is automatic. C) MOPSC < 9, 1 automatic ELT. D) MOPSC > 9, 2 ELTs of which at least 1 is automatic.

127. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage angle of:

128. In accordance with OPS regulations, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:

129. An aircraft is due to be operated with 160 passengers. The aircraft has not yet been assigned a required minimum number of cabin crew by the competent authority. For this trip, ___ cabin crews are required.

130. To act as commander in commercial air transport on a single-pilot aeroplane, how many hours must the holder of a CPL(A) fly on a multi-engine type under IFR?

131. According to Annex 6, what is the definition of an Air Operator Certificate?

132. According to ICAO Annex 6, what shall the Operator establish for the use and guidance of operational personnel, as part of its safety management system?

133. Which statement is true about required equipment?

134. As a flight crew member, you are to report for a period of airport standby. When does the airport standby period commence?

135. You have recently passed your initial training and line check for an operator and it is only your 6th flight as an inexperienced pilot. During the briefing, you realise that the captain you're scheduled to fly with has also recently passed his/her command upgrade and it is only his/her 3rd flight. Can you fly together?

136. A pilot working for a CAT operator has performed 105 duty hours in the last 13 consecutive days. On the 14th day, the operator's crewing department calls, asking the pilot to operate a flight with a total duty of 8 hours later that same day. According to the EU-OPS regulations, what is the correct decision?

137. During a turnaround, the pilots get a visit from a competent authority who requests to see the aircraft's documents. What should the commander do in this situation?

138. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

139. A pilot is performing the pre-flight preparations on an aircraft whose first Certificate of Airworthiness was issued in 2010. This is the first time the pilot is operating an aircraft where a Flight Data Recorder (FDR) is required. The following is a requirement about the operation of the FDR:

140. According to OPS regulations, for a pressurised aeroplane, following an emergency descent, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are not required to be supplied with supplemental oxygen, without flight time limitation is:

141. The correct statement concerning extinguishing agents onboard aircraft is:

142. The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

143. The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) shall be established by:

144. Consider the applicable operational requirements on task specialists' responsibilities. Task specialists' duties shall be specified:

145. You are the pilot of a calibration flight requiring a task specialist to be on board. The task specialist is aware of an incident that could endanger the safety of the operation. Who must he/she report this to?

146. Consider the applicable operational requirements on task specialist's responsibilities. The task specialist shall report any fault, failure, malfunction or defect, which is believed to affect the safe operation of the aircraft, to: