OPS 02

1. 'Items capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and listed in the TIs or classified according to the TIs'. This is a description of: A) Dangerous goods. B) Dangerous goods in excepted quantities. C) Dangerous goods which can only be carried by an Operator with a permanent approval to carry DGs. D) Dangerous goods which must never be carried on aircraft.

2. "A DG-related occurrence resulting in fatal or serious injury or major damage". This is a description of: A) A dangerous goods accident. B) A dangerous goods situation. C) A dangerous goods incident. D) A dangerous goods violation.

3. "A DG-related occurrence resulting in injury, damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or where the integrity of the packaging has failed, or seriously jeopardises the aircraft or its occupants".This is a description of: A) A dangerous goods incident. B) A dangerous goods accident. C) A dangerous goods leak. D) A dangerous goods non-containment event.

4. When transporting DGs requiring a permanent approval, which of the following processes, information and documentation is required: A) The commander must be given written information about the DGs to be carried. B) The Operator must produce a DG acceptance checklist. C) Copies of consignment documents and the NOTOC must be retained on the ground. D) All documents must be kept for a minimum of 3 months. E) All records of DG training must be kept for a minimum of 3 years. F) All records of DG training must be kept for a minimum of 2 years. G) All documents must be kept for a minimum of 12 months.

5. For each dangerous good listed in the TIs, the following information is given:Mark all correct answers. A) Proper shipping name. B) UN number. C) Class of division of DG. D) Class or division of any subsidiary risk. E) Labelling instructions. F) State variations from the TIs. G) Packaging/transport provisions. H) Excepted quantities. I) FN number. J) Chemical formula of the DG.

6. Which of the following must not to be carried in any aircraft:Mark all correct answers. A) Unstable explosives. B) Substances liable to produce dangerous quantities of heat or gas under normal air transport operating conditions. C) Dangerously toxic or corrosive substances. D) Quantities of lithium batteries.

7. Which of the following items of DG are exempted items: Mark all correct answers. A) Items required for airworthiness e.g. life rafts, fire extinguishers, oxygen and fuel. B) Items required for passenger service e.g. dry ice, aerosols, alcohol, and aeromedical items. C) Moderately radioactive materials. D) Any passenger's personal medical oxygen supply.

8. Which of the following are valid special rules applicable to the carriage of radioactive materials:Mark all correct answers. A) The materials must be kept at a safe distance from passengers and crew. B) A transport index is required for each package. C) The total of all transport indices determines the minimum safe distance between the surface of packages, overpacks or containers and the nearest surface of the cabin or cockpit floors. D) There may be an additional maximum transport index on any aircraft, regardless of distance. E) Materials must be kept well away from radio compasses. F) The transport of radioactive materials always requires special approval from the Authority.

9. Which of the following packaging requirements are necessary to ensure acceptance of the DG by the operator? The packaging must:Mark all correct answers. A) Be compatible with contents. B) Be able to withstand the conditions expected in flight. C) Be tested and must meet prescribed specifications. D) Be labelled in English. E) Be marked with approved specification markings. F) Be accompanied by 2 copies of the DG transport document, unless this is provided electronically. G) Show no signs of damage, leaks or signs of contamination. H) Be labelled in the language of originator.

10. Which of the following requirements are necessary before loading DGs onto an aircraft? The operator checks that:Mark all correct answers. A) The goods acceptable for carriage - e.g. cargo flight only goods are not loaded into a passenger aircraft. B) The packaging is adequate. C) The labelling of packages, overpacks and/or freight containers is correct. D) The accompanying documents are in order. E) A checklist is produced for all DGs in excepted quantities.

11. Packaging of DGs must:Mark all correct answers. A) Prevent spillage or leakage. B) Allow for pressure and temperature changes in flight. C) Be free from contamination. D) Always be at least 25% larger than the volume of DGs.

12. The NOTOC includes:Mark all correct answers. A) Shipping name, UN number or ID number. B) Hazard class or division. C) Number and location of packages. D) Radioactive material - radiation category and transport index. E) Shipping name, FN number. F) Volume and weight of the packages.

13. Which of the following are valid examples of DG incidents:Mark all correct answers. A) Discovering undeclared DG in cargo or mail. B) Discovering DGs carried by passengers or crew members, or in their baggage. C) Discovering declared DG in cargo or mail. D) Discovering a passenger carrying 5 spare lithium camera batteries.

14. When making a report of undeclared or improperly declared DGs:Mark all correct answers. A) The first report must be submitted within 72 hours by any means. B) Further details should be reported when available. C) All reports should be as accurate as possible. D) The first report must be submitted within 48 hours by any means.

15. Which of the following statements about Dangerous Goods is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Permanent approval to transport DGs is given by the appropriate Authority. B) The Operator must establish and maintain a training programme and demonstrate that adequate training has been given to all its personnel. C) If an in-flight emergency occurs, the commander must inform ATS as soon as the situation permits, giving the nature of any DG on board. D) The Operator must establish and maintain a training programme and demonstrate that adequate training has been given to all personnel, including personnel of 3rd parties preparing DGs for transport on the Operator's aircraft.

16. What class of dangerous goods is represented by the label shown here? A) Explosives B) Flammable Liquid C) Corrosive D) Gases

17. What class of dangerous goods is represented by the label shown here? A) Flammable Liquid B) Gases C) Flammable Solid D) Miscellaneous

18. What class of dangerous goods is represented by the label shown here? A) Flammable Solid B) Flammable Liquid C) Gasses D) Miscellaneous

19. What class of dangerous goods is represented by the label shown here? A) Oxides and Peroxides B) Radioactive C) Toxic or Infectious D) Poison

20. What class of dangerous goods is represented by the label shown here? A) Toxic or Infectious B) Poison C) Oxides and Peroxides D) Corrosive

21. What class of dangerous goods is represented by the label shown here? A) Corrosive B) Poison C) Oxides and Peroxides D) Radioactive

22. What class of dangerous goods is represented by the label shown here? A) Miscellaneous B) Flammable Solid C) Radioactive D) Explosives

23. Which of these documents must be completed before flight:Mark all correct answers. A) The ATS flight plan. B) Elements of the operational flight plan. C) The aircraft's technical log maintenance release. D) The load sheet. E) The NOTOC. F) The journey log.

24. Which of these check items constitute the commander’s responsibilities during the pre-flight preparation phase?Mark all correct answers. A) Compliant airworthiness and registration documents. B) Mass and CG are within limits. C) Regulatory requirements met regarding the aircraft's operating limitations. D) The aircraft's equipment satisfies the CDL and MEL. E) The maps, charts, etc cover the intended operation and any reasonably expected diversion. F) The maps, charts, etc cover the intended operation and any reasonably expected diversion. G) The rules relating to fuel, oil, oxygen, MSA, aerodrome operating minima and availability of alternate aerodromes are all met. H) The navigation database is suitable and current. I) Compliant levels of instrumentation and equipment available. J) Parts of the OM required to conduct the flight are available (in paper format) for each flight crew member.

25. The operational flight plan supplied to the crew before flight must contain which of the following details?Mark all correct answers. A) The aircraft registration, type and variant. B) The date of the flight. C) The planned flight levels. D) The assignments of the flight crew members. E) The place of departure and planned arrival. F) The route and segments with waypoints, tracks and distances. G) The MSA and minimum permitted flight levels. H) The alternate aerodromes - destination and if applicable take-off and en-route. I) The ATS clearance. J) The names of the flight crew members, cabin crew and passengers.

26. During flight which of the following entries must be made in the journey log? A) The initial ATS clearance. B) The fuel on board at engine start. C) The actual departure times - off-block and take-off. D) The ETAs and ATAs over waypoints. E) Details of routine fuel checks carried out. F) Details of any re-planning calculations. G) The place of actual arrival. H) The actual arrival times - landing and on-block. I) An abbreviated log of radio or CPDLC messages sent and received.

27. 2 destination alternates are needed when: A) At the ETA +/- 1 hr the weather is such that saefety margins cannot be met, or no meteorological information available. B) At the ETA +/- 2 hr the weather is such that saefety margins cannot be met,, or no meteorological information available. C) At the ETA +/- 2 hr the weather is such that, for a circling operation, ceiling ≥DH. D) At the ETA +/- 2 hr the weather is such that, for a circling operation, ceiling ≥DA.

28. Planning minima for all IFR flights should comply with which of the following criteria? A) Plan for at least 1 aerodrome so that 2 safe-landing options are available during normal operations when reaching the destination aerodrome. B) Plan for at least 2 aerodromes so that 2 safe-landing options are available during normal operations when reaching the destination aerodrome. C) Plan for at least 1 aerodromes so that no fewer than 1 safe-landing option is available during normal operations when reaching the destination aerodrome. D) Plan for at least 1 destination aerodrome + 1 destination alternate aerodrome so that no fewer than 2 safe-landing options are available during normal operations when reaching the destination aerodrome.

29. When using the Basic Fuel/Energy Scheme, which of the following should be considered by the commander as part of the usable fuel on board for departure?(Mark all correct answers) A) Taxi fuel. B) Trip fuel. C) Contingency fuel. D) Alternate fuel. E) Final reserve fuel F) Additional fuel. G) Extra fuel. H) Discretionary fuel. I) APU fuel. J) Emergency fuel.

30. Under the Basic Fuel/Energy Scheme In-Flight Fuel/Energy Management Policy, which of the following which of the following are constituents of an operator's management procedures? (Select 4) A) Continual validation of all fuel assumptions. B) In-flight analysis and adjustment of fuel calculations. C) Usable fuel remaining on board is protected and sufficient to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made. D) Recording of all data. E) Ensuring that in-flight data is within 5% of pre-flight calculations. F) Ensuring that in-flight data is within 10% of pre-flight calculations. G) Usable fuel remaining on board is protected and sufficient to proceed to and land at an aerodrome with no less than taxi fuel remaining on board, in the event of an in-flight emergency.

31. The factors to be considered when establishing minimum flight altitudes are:Mark all correct answers. A) The accuracy with which the aircraft's position can be determined. B) Probable inaccuracies in indicated altitude. C) Terrain characteristics. D) The probability of encountering unfavourable meteorological conditions. E) Possible inaccuracies in aeronautical charts. F) Temperature and pressure variations from ISA. G) ATS requirements. H) Foreseeable contingencies en-route.

32. A take-off alternate is required: A) If, for performance or weather issues, it may not be possible to return to the departure aerodrome. B) When carrying DGs on a cargo aircraft. C) If the RVR is less than 1500 m D) If the crosswind is out of limits for take-off

33. What is meant by "reaching the destination aerodrome"? A) Reaching DA/H or MDA/H at the destination aerodrome. B) Landing at the destination aerodrome. C) Arriving at the final approach fix at the destination aerodrome. D) Reaching the missed approach point at the destination aerodrome.

34. For 2-engined aeroplanes, at an OEI cruising speed according to the FCOM, in ISA, still-air conditions and based on actual take-off mass, the maximum distance for a take-off alternate aerodrome should not be farther from the departure aerodrome than: A) 1 hour flight time B) 1.5 hours flight time C) 2 hours flight time D) 30 minutes flight time

35. For 3- or 4-engined aeroplanes, at an AEO cruising speed, according to the FCOM, in ISA, still-air conditions and based on actual take-off mass, the maximum distance for a take-off alternate aerodrome should not be farther from the departure aerodrome than: A) 2 hours flight time B) 1.5 hours flight time C) 1 hour flight time D) 30 minutes flight time

36. For single-engined turbine aeroplane operations at night or in IMC, at normal cruising speed in still-air conditions, based on actual take-off mass, the maximum distance for a take-off alternate aerodrome should not be farther from the departure aerodrome than: A) 30 minutes flight time B) 1.5 hours flight time C) 1 hour flight time D) 45 minutes flight time

37. No destination alternate is needed if the destination is an isolated aerodrome or:: (Select 4) A) 2 separate runways are usable. B) the forecast at ETA +/- 1 hr is the greater of a cloud base of 2000 ft or a circling height of 500 ft. C) the forecast at ETA +/- 1 hr provides a ground visibility is ≥5 km. D) the planned flight is ≤6 hours or in-flight re-planning is ≤4 hours; E) 3 separate runways are usable. F) the forecast at ETA +/- 1 hr is the greater of a cloud base of 1000 ft or a circling height of 500 ft. G) the forecast at ETA +/- 1 hr is the greater of a cloud base of 2000 ft or a circling height of 1000 ft. H) the planned flight is ≤4 hours or in-flight re-planning is ≤2 hours;

38. The (ETA +/-1 hr) planning minima for an isolated destination, a destination alternate, or en-route alternate aerodromes, for Type B approach operations, are: A) DA/H +200 ft and RVR/VIS +800 m B) DA/H +400 ft and RVR/VIS +1000 m C) DA/H +200 ft and RVR/VIS +1500 m D) DA/H +200 ft and RVR/VIS +400 m

39. Using the Basic Fuel/Energy Scheme, contingency fuel is the greater of either the fuel required for: A) 5% of planned trip fuel or 5% of trip fuel for remainder of flight; or 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above destination in standard conditions. B) 5% of planned trip fuel or 10% of trip fuel for remainder of flight; or 10 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above destination in standard conditions. C) 5% of planned trip fuel or 5% of trip fuel for remainder of flight; or 5 minutes at cruising speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above destination in standard conditions. D) 5% of planned trip fuel or 5% of trip fuel for remainder of flight; or 5 minutes at OEI speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above destination in standard conditions, with the remaining engine set at maximum continuous power.

40. Using the Basic Fuel/Energy Procedure with Variations, what is the minimum reduced contingency fuel that should be uplifted using the RCF 2 procedure?Cruise fuel consumption = 2400 kg/hrHold fuel consumption = 1800 kg/hrFlight time = 4 hours A) 800 kg B) 288 kg C) 150 kg D) 1088 kg

41. Which of the following criteria are applicable to the departure aerodrome planning minima? A) The commander should not commence take-off unless weather conditions at the departure aerodrome are no less than the applicable landing minima at that aerodrome, unless a weather-permissible take-off alternate aerodrome is available. B) The commander may commence take-off provided weather conditions at the departure aerodrome are forecast to be no less than the applicable landing minima at that aerodrome within 2 hours of take-off. C) The commander may commence take-off provided weather conditions at a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome are forecast to be no less than the applicable landing minima at that aerodrome within 1.5 hours of take-off. D) The commander should not commence take-off unless the RVR and DH for a non- precision approach at the departure aerodrome are no less than the applicable landing minima at that aerodrome.

42. Before take-off the passenger briefing must include information about:Mark all correct answers. A) Emergency exit locations. B) Floor proximity escape path markings, location and use. C) Safety briefing card location and contents. D) Demonstrations of safety belt or restraint systems, including fastening and unfastening. E) Demonstrations of oxygen system location and use. F) Demonstrations of life-jackets locations and use. G) No-smoking areas. H) The flight number and destination.

43. Who is responsible for developing procedures to ensure escape paths are unobstructed before taxi, take-off and landing? A) The Operator. B) The Authority. C) The Commander. D) The State of Registry. E) The State of Manufacture.

44. Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that all equipment and baggage is properly secured: A) The Commander. B) The SCCM. C) The Operator. D) The dispatcher.

45. Refuelling or de-fuelling with Avgas or wide-cut fuel _________ permitted while passengers are embarking, on board, or disembarking. A) is not B) is C) may be

46. Which of the following are valid requirements when refuelling is carried out with passengers on board?(Select 6) A) 1 qualified person remains at a specified location on board. They must be capable of handling emergency procedures, communications, and initiating and directing an evacuation. B) 2-way communications should be established between the qualified person on board and the ground crew supervising the refuelling. C) Crew, staff and passengers should be informed refuelling is taking place. D) The fasten seat belt signs should be OFF. E) No smoking signs should be ON, together with interior lighting identifying emergency exits. F) Areas beneath emergency exits should be kept clear to allow slide deployment at doors where stairs/airbridges are not in position. G) Provision should be made for safe and rapid evacuation. H) If fuel vapour is detected inside the aircraft, or any other hazard arises, the aircraft must be evacuated immediately. I) Passengers must be instructed to fasten seat belts and not to smoke. J) 1 member only of cabin crew should be on board and prepared for an immediate evacuation.

47. With which of the following shall a commander be satisfied before commencing take-off? (Select 3) A) Meteorological conditions at the departure aerodrome and the condition of the runway to be used will not prevent a safe take-off and departure. B) Selected aerodrome operating minima are consistent with operative ground equipment and aircraft systems. C) Selected aerodrome operating minima are consistent with aircraft performance and flight crew qualifications. D) Meteorological conditions only at the departure aerodrome will not prevent a safe take- off and departure. E) The condition of the runway to be used only will not prevent a safe take-off and departure. F) Take-off minima should consider all relevant factors for all available runways.

48. Thrust is reduced to climb thrust above 800 ft, the airspeed is kept constant at not less than V2 + 10 kt. Then, at not more than 3000 ft, accelerate with positive rate of climb for flap/slat retraction'.This is a description of: A) NADP 1: close-in noise abatement. B) NADP 2: distant noise abatement. C) NADP 1: distant noise abatement. D) The increased V2 procedure.

49. Reduced power should not be used for noise abatement purposes when:Mark all correct answers. A) The runway surface conditions dictate. B) The visibility is less than 1 nm. C) The crosswind component including gusts is greater than 15 kt. D) The tailwind component including gusts is greater than 5 kt. E) The crosswind component including gusts > 10 kt. F) The tailwind component including gusts > 3 kt. G) The visibility is greater than 1 nm.

50. Noise abatement procedures should not determine the choice of landing runway when:Mark all correct answers. A) Runway surface conditions are adversely affected. B) The cloud ceiling is less than 500 ft agl. C) The visibility is less than 1 nm. D) Crosswind including gusts is greater than 15 kt. E) Tailwind including gusts is greater than 5 kt. F) Wind shear is reported or forecast, or other adverse weather conditions are expected to affect the approach. G) Crosswind including gusts is greater than 5 kt. H) Tailwind including gusts is greater than 2 kt.

51. Noise abatement procedures must not prohibit the use of _____ _____ during landing. A) reverse thrust B) fuel dumping C) reduced thrust

52. To be considered adequate, an ETOPS alternate must have, at the ETA:Mark all correct answers. A) ATS. B) Sufficient lighting. C) Weather reporting. D) Navigation aids. E) Emergency services. F) At least 1 instrument approach procedure. G) At least 1 precision approach procedure.

53. ETOPS approval is part of: A) An Operator's AOC. B) The Authority's EDTP approval. C) The MEL. D) Long-haul operations.

54. Without ETOPS approval, twin-engined aeroplanes may not fly over a route which contains any point further from an adequate aerodrome than can be flown in the threshold time, OEI, in __________. A) still air. B) forecast wind conditions.

55. Whose responsibility is it to ensure that a suitable ETOPS en-route alternate is available within the approved, diversion time, at all points of any ETOPS segment(s)? A) The Operator. B) The Authority. C) ATS. D) ATC.

56. Operators must ensure that, following an engine failure or pressurisation failure (whichever requires most fuel) at the most critical point en-route, sufficient fuel is on board for:Mark all correct answers. A) Descent as necessitated by the failure. B) Diversion to the ETOPS ERA aerodrome. C) Holding 15 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions. D) Approach and landing. E) Holding 30 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions. F) Holding 15 minutes at 2500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions.

57. Operators produce an ETOPS en-route chart for every ETOPS flight, confirming compliance with the applicable diversion time, using only those aerodromes which:Mark all correct answers. A) Meet ETOPS requirements for weather, ATS and approach aids. B) Can be safely reached following a depressurisation or failure of the critical engine at the most limiting point. C) Do not have crosswind and/or operational restrictions prevent a safe landing OEI. D) Can be safely reached within 60 minutes flying time OEI.

58. An aerodrome may be nominated as an ETOPS ERA aerodrome for flight planning and dispatch purposes, if available forecast weather conditions for a period lasting from the earliest potential landing time until 1 hour after the latest nominated time of use, equals or exceeds: A) For a precision approach, a ceiling of DA/H +200 ft and visibility of VIS +800 m. B) For a non-precision approach, a ceiling of MDA/H +200 ft and visibility of VIS +800 m. C) For a circling approach, a ceiling of MDA/H +200 ft and visibility of VIS +800 m. D) For a precision approach, a ceiling of DA/H +400 ft and visibility of VIS +1500 m.

59. An aerodrome may be nominated as an ETOPS ERA aerodrome for flight planning and dispatch purposes, if available forecast weather conditions for a period lasting from the earliest potential landing time until 1 hour after the latest nominated time of use, equals or exceeds: A) For a non-precision approach, a ceiling of MDA/H +400 ft and visibility of VIS +1500 m. B) For a non-precision approach, a ceiling of MDA/H +400 ft and visibility of VIS +800 m. C) For a circling approach, a ceiling of MDA/H +200 ft and visibility of VIS +800 m. D) For a precision approach, a ceiling of DA/H +200 ft and visibility of VIS +1500 m.

60. Safety in NAT HLA relies to a great extent on procedural accuracy and conformance with procedures. For this reason:Mark all correct answers. A) Aircraft fly a cleared Mach number to preserve time-based separation. B) The HLA airspace extends from FL 285 to FL 420. C) Crew must be specifically trained in NAT HLA operations. D) The HLA airspace extends from FL 350 to FL 390. E) All aircraft fly at different levels along the same track.

61. NAT HLA is very busy and has very limited primary radar coverage. To maintain safe separation:Mark all correct answers. A) Lateral, longitudinal and vertical performance is closely monitored using ADS-B. B) CPDLC and ADS-C allow intervention if an aircraft deviate from its clearance. C) Lateral and longitudinal separation is monitored using SSR multilateration throughout the NAT HLA. D) Lateral and longitudinal separation is monitored using ACARS throughout the NAT HLA.

62. Which of the following are accurate statements about the NAT OTS?Mark all correct answers. A) A westbound flow leaves Europe in the morning. B) An eastbound flow leaves North America in the evening. C) The OTS accommodates as many flights as possible on, or close to, minimum time routes, after considering operators’ PRMs and after consultation on-line. D) Crossing the Atlantic on an OTS track is not mandatory. E) The westbound OTS is published at 2200 UTC (valid 1130-1900 UTC at 30ºW). F) The eastbound OTS is published at 1400 UTC (valid 0100-0800 UTC at 30ºW). G) Crossing the Atlantic on an OTS track, or other designated route (e.g. Blue Spruce), is mandatory. H) OTS tracks are great circle tracks.

63. The OTS changeover periods (and restrictions) are:Mark all correct answers. A) 0801-1129 UTC and 1901-0059 UTC. B) During changeover, there are some restrictions on flight plan routes and levels to facilitate the change of flow. C) 0701-1129 UTC and 1901-0059 UTC. D) No transatlantic traffic is permitted during the changeover period.

64. The NAT track message includes: A) The coordinates of the day's or night's organised tracks. B) The flight levels expected to be used on each track. C) The entry/exit routings. D) Track identifiers, westbound tracks are labelled (from north to south) Alpha, then Track Bravo etc. E) Track identifiers, eastbound tracks are labelled (from south to north) Track Zulu, then Track Yankee etc. F) A unique TMI number, starting from '001' on 1st January. G) The Mach numbers to be flown on each track. H) The radio frequency of the OACC controlling each track.

65. The NAT track message is typically published at: A) Day-time 2200 UTC - Night-time 1400 UTC. B) Day-time 1400 UTC - Night-time 2200 UTC. C) Day-time 0800 UTC - Night-time 2000 UTC. D) Day-time 1200 UTC - Night-time 0000 UTC.

66. Which of the following is/are single-LRNS routes: A) Most Blue Spruce routes and at least 1 Tango route. B) PBCS routes. C) Certain designated OTS routes. D) All the Blue Spruce and Tango routes.

67. Which of the following statements about Blue Spruce routes is/are accurate? A) Blue Spruce routes are fixed routes across the northern part of the NAT HLA. B) Blue Spruce routes are often used by aircraft with only 1 LRNS. C) The Blue Spruce routes are published twice daily. D) Blue Spruce routes are special routes exempt from NAT HLA requirements.

68. Tango Routes allow for: A) North-South routes between Northern Europe and Spain/Canarias/Lisboa FIR along T9, T13, T16, T213 and T290 B) North-south routes between southern boundary of SOTA and T9, T16 and T213 only C) North-south routes between southern boundary of SOTA and T13, T290 and T213 only. D) East-west tracks between Lisbon FIR and Azores (T25). E) Flight in the NAT HLA without any mandatory equipment requirements. F) Flight in the NAT HLA with only short-range navigation equipment (VOR, DME etc).

69. The pre-flight check before a NAT HLA flight must include a check of the aircraft's __________ because waypoint ETAs are based on its information. A) clock B) FMC C) FMS

70. You must advise ATC immediately if:Mark all correct answers. A) If, at dispatch, you are unable to meet the requirements from RVSM or NAT HLA approval. B) If an in-flight failure results in you being unable to meet the requirements for RVSM for NAT HLA operations. C) If you experience an in-flight failure of 1 of your 3 LRNS. D) If, at any time, your DME or VOR units fail.

71. If your ETA for an oceanic entry point changes (and the aircraft is not under ADS-C surveillance), you must pass a revised ETA to ATS if the change is greater than: A) 3 minutes. B) 5 minutes. C) 2 minutes. D) 10 minutes.

72. The 3 elements to an oceanic clearance, which provide the 3 elements of separation are:Mark all correct answers. A) Route - gives the lateral element of separation. B) Mach number and entry time - gives the longitudinal element. C) Flight level - gives the vertical element. D) ACAS squawk - gives the lateral element of separation.

73. The best method for preventing gross navigation errors is to: A) Plot your position accurately on a chart B) Maintain an accurate list of waypoints C) Re-read your clearance before oceanic entry D) Maintain Mach number +/- 0.2 or TAS +/- 20 kt

74. According to SLOP, it is recommended that flight crews of aircraft capable of programming automatic offsets: A) Should randomly select flying centreline or an offset to the right of track up to 2 nm in 0.1 nm increments. B) Should select flying an offsetor to the left of track up to 2 nm n 0.1 nm increments. C) Should randomly select flying centreline or an offset to the left or to the right of track up to 2 nm in 0.1 nm increments. D) Should select flying an offset to the left (ODD flight levels)or to the right (EVEN flight levels) of track up to 2 nm in 0.1 nm increments.

75. Altimeter cross-checks should be repeated:Mark all correct answers. A) On passing waypoints. B) When reaching a new cleared flight level. C) At intervals of not more than 60 minutes. D) At intervals of not more than 90 minutes.

76. Communication using HF radio is still common in the NAT HLA. Which of the following statements about HF radio communication is correct? A) At night, or when the sun is low, lower frequencies are used. B) HF radio reception is usually clearer and more reliable than VHF. C) Even when VHF radio reception isn't available, HF reception always will be. D) Unlike VHF, HF radio reception is not significantly affected by the state of the ionosphere.

77. The global air-to-air frequency, for use when out of range of VHF ground stations, for exchange of operationally significant information is: A) 123.45 MHz. B) 23.45 MHz. C) 2.8 GHz D) 123.45 GHz.

78. Following HF communications failure in the NAT HLA: A) Squawk Mode A code 7600, and Mode C. B) If SATCOM equipped, contact the aeradio station via the number/short codes published in the AIP. C) If not SATCOM equipped, try to contact ATC or another aircraft. Request relay of messages to the aeradio station. D) Broadcast regular position reports on 123.45 MHz until communications are re- established. E) Broadcast regular position reports on 123.45 GHz until communications are re- established.

79. Which of the following are valid actions in the event of a serious emergency when on an OTS track:Mark all correct answers. A) Before deviating from track, try to obtain a new clearance from ATC. B) If you can't obtain a new clearance from ATC before deviating from track, turn at least 30 degrees to the right. C) When deviating from track, try to maintain altitude, turn on all lights, monitor ACAS and broadcast your intentions. D) Parallel your original track with 5 nm separation to the right. E) If you can't obtain a new clearance, either descend below FL 290 or apply a 500 ft vertical offset (below FL 410). F) If you can't obtain a new clearance or descend below FL 290, apply a 1000 ft vertical offset above FL 410. G) If you can't obtain a new clearance from ATC before deviating from track, turn at least 45 degrees to the right.

80. Which of the following are valid actions in the event of a need to deviate for weather when on an OTS track?Mark all correct answers. A) Try to obtain an ATS clearance via CPDLC before deviating for weather. B) If no ATC clearance and deviating laterally by less than 5 nm, stay at your assigned level. C) If no ATC clearance and deviating laterally by more than 5 nm, apply a 300 ft vertical separation. D) If no ATC clearance and deviating south of track: climb. If deviating north of track: descend. E) If no ATC clearance and deviating south of track: descend. If deviating north of track: climb.

81. Which of the following best describes Mach Number Technique? A) An in-flight technique whereby successive aircraft operating along suitable routes are cleared by ATC to maintain a Mach number for a portion of the en-route phase of flight. B) An in-flight technique whereby all participating aircraft operating along certain routes should maintain an assigned Mach number for the entire flight. C) An in-flight technique whereby successive aircraft operating along all NAT HLA routes are assigned a Mach number by ATC for all flight above FL300. D) An in-flight technique for accuratlely converting Mach number to TAS and thereafter to an accurate and reliable GS, to permit monitoring and accurate reporting of flight progress, thereby ensuring aircraft separation.

82. Flights planning to operate outside VHF range may request HF exemption under certain circumstances. What condition is applied to any approval being issued? A) 2 alternative (non-HF) LRCS are carried B) 2 alternative VHF LRCS are carried C) 3 alternative LRCS are carried D) At least 1 alternative non-HF LRCS is carried

83. Complete this sentence regarding NAT HLA ATS Communications: "NAT operations outside VHF range require 2 ____, one of which should be ____." A) LRCS - HF B) LRNS - HF C) LRCS - VHF D) SATVOICE - CPDLC compliant

84. An aircraft is flying from Athens to Milan. The weather at the destination is below the applicable minima. The pilot may not take off unless the weather at the expected time of (1) _____ at (2) _____ is above the applicable minima.

85. An aircraft has departed from Dublin on a transoceanic flight to Montreal. Prior to entering NAT HLA (High Level Airspace) at level flight, the flight crew performs a final confirmation of the aircraft systems serviceability and checks the two primary altimeter readings. Unless otherwise specified, within how many feet of each other must the altimeter readings be?

86. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

87. The term decision height (DH) is used for:

88. According to the European Regulation on Air Operations, operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes NOT navigated by reference to visual landmarks:

89. Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 91 kt to 120 kt, the aeroplane is in:

90. During a flight in NAT MNPS airspace at FL 390, if all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable and if no instructions are received from the ATC within a reasonable delay, the pilot in command should consider, broadcasting on 121.5 MHz:

91. Which stations below can be used for voice communication when flying along route T9, T13 or T16?

92. In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:

93. MNPS is the abbreviation for:

94. The European Regulation on Air Operations states that for operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes NOT navigated by reference to visual landmarks, additional VOR or ADF systems are required on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based on these respective signals. If neither of these are available, can the route still be flown?

95. During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to wind shear with an increasing headwind. ln the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane: 1. flies above the intended approach path 2. flies below the intended approach path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:

96. Noise abatement should not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances: 1. when crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 15 kt. 2. when the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 kt. 3. when the runway surface conditions are adversely affected. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

97. According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:

98. Regarding Noise Abatement Procedures, the first procedure (NADP 1) is used for noise reduction:

99. In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise- sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:

100. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168?

101. According to ICAO, noise abatement procedures during landing:

102. ICAO Annex 18 is a document dealing with:

103. A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in: