PERF 01

1. In Europe, turbine-powered large aeroplanes (Performance Class A aeroplanes) are certified under: A) CS-25 B) EU OPS 1 C) CS-23 D) FAR-25

2. In Europe CS-23 covers: A) The operation of aeroplanes in the Normal category, with a passenger seating configuration up to 19 or less and a MCTOM of 8618 kg (or less). B) Covers large aeroplanes with a MCTOM greater than 5700 kg. C) Piston propeller aeroplanes only. D) The operation of aeroplanes in the Normal category, with a passenger seating configuration up to 19 or less and a Mass of 8618 kg (or less).

3. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Aeroplanes that have the most demanding airworthiness requirements have the least stringent operating regulations. B) Aeroplanes that have the least stringent airworthiness requirements have the most stringent operating requirements. C) To achieve a sufficient level of safety, the aeroplane performance required of commercial air transport aircraft may limit the weight of a dispatched aeroplane. D) Single-engine Class B aeroplanes have the least stringent airworthiness requirements. E) Performance Class A covers multi-engined aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with an MOPSC of more than 9 or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg, and all multi-engined turbo-jet powered aeroplanes. F) The minimum level of safety required for commercial air transport is ensured through the combination of airworthiness requirements and operational limitations.

4. The average for the aeroplane achieved by experienced and highly skilled test pilots' is a description of: A) Measured performance. B) Gross performance. C) Net performance. D) Ideal performance.

5. The average performance that a fleet of aircraft can be expected to achieve, when satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the flight manual' is a description of: A) Gross performance. B) Net performance. C) Measured performance. D) Operational performance.

6. Gross Performance diminished by a safety factor (margin), laid down by the appropriate authority is known as: A) Net performance. B) Measured performance. C) Operational performance. D) Safety performance.

7. Aeroplanes powered by propeller engines with an MOPSC of 9 or less and a maximum take-off mass of 5700 kg or less are in Performance Class: A) B B) C C) A D) D

8. Multi-engined aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with an MOPSC of more than 9 or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg, and all multi-engined turbo-jet powered aeroplanes are in Performance Class: A) A B) B C) C D) D

9. Aeroplanes powered by reciprocating engines with an MOPSC of more than 9 or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg are in Performance Class: A) C B) A C) B D) D

10. Which of these statements about safety factors is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The size of a safety factor depends on the likelihood of the event. B) The size of the actual safety factor is affected by the range of the performance data. C) The greater the probability of an event (greater than 1 in 1 million), the larger the safety factor required. D) The safety factor for landing (67% for a jet) is much larger than for the all-engine take-off safety factor because of the much wider range of take-off performance.

11. An obstacle-free rectangular area on the ground at the end of the runway, at least the same width as the associated runway and centred along the runway’s centreline' is a description of: A) Stopway. B) Clearway. C) ASDA D) TORA

12. The landing distance available is best described as: A) The length of the runway from threshold to threshold. B) The runway plus the clearway. C) The distance between the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which an aeroplane can begin its take-off run to the nearest point, in the direction of take-off, at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane. D) The distance between the point of touch down on the runway and the point on the runway where the aeroplane has come to a complete stop.

13. The take-off distance available (TODA) is normally: A) The runway plus the clearway. The TODA is the lesser of: TORA plus clearway, or 1.5 times TORA. B) The runway plus stopway. The TODA is the lesser of: TORA plus stopway, or 1.5 times TORA. C) The runway plus stopway and clearway. D) The runway plus the clearway. The TODA is the lesser of: TORA plus clearway, or 0.5 times TORA.

14. The distance between the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which an aeroplane can begin its take-off run to the nearest point, in the direction of take-off, at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal operating conditions' is a description of: A) TORA B) TODA C) ASDA D) LDA

15. The distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which an aeroplane begins its take-off roll to the nearest point in the direction of take-off at which it can’t roll over the surface of the aerodrome and be brought to rest in an emergency without risk of accident' is a description of: A) ASDA B) TODA C) TORA D) TODR

16. Which of these statements about aerodrome distances is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The TORA often (but not always) corresponds to the physical length of the prepared and maintained runway pavement. B) ASDA equals TORA plus stopway. C) The TODA is the lesser of: TORA plus clearway, or 1.5 times TORA. D) If there are no obstacles, the clearway’s length is restricted to a maximum of 50% of the TORA. E) ASDA, TODA, and LDA are normally shown on Jeppesen aerodrome charts. F) The TORA always corresponds to the physical length of the prepared and maintained runway pavement.

17. Which of these statements about energy transfer is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) Between the start of the take-off to the end of the landing, all the potential energy and kinetic energy acquired by an aeroplane is ultimately derived from the chemical energy stored in the fuel. B) By the end of the landing roll, all the potential energy acquired by an aircraft in flight has been lost to drag, heat and friction. C) All the potential energy and kinetic energy acquired by an aeroplane is ultimately derived from the heat energy of the jet engine(s). D) To minimise fuel consumption, a continuous descent is usually flown with the engines at flight idle, and speed brakes deployed to control the aeroplane's speed.

18. The most likely causes of arriving high and fast at the bottom of descent are:Mark all correct answers. A) Failing to enter into the FMC accurate winds for the descent. B) Failing to monitor closely the predicted bottom of descent position (the green banana). C) Failing to calculate your height versus track miles to go. D) Failing to plan the correct distance from the aerodrome for your top of descent. E) Excessive use of speed brake.

19. Which of these statements about energy management is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) If you are hot and high on the descent you may be able to add drag using spoiler and early stages of flap to correct the problem. B) If you are hot and high on the descent, but you spot the problem very late in the descent, one option would be to ask ATC to increase the track miles to your descent point. C) On a jet CAT aircraft, arriving hot and high at the start of the approach is potentially very dangerous. D) On a jet CAT aircraft, arriving hot and high at the start of the approach can usually be corrected with speed brake, idle thrust and more flap.

20. The primary purpose of a continuous descent to final approach is to: A) Maximise fuel savings. B) Minimise noise disturbance to people under the flight path. C) Reduce crew workload. D) Increase safety.

21. Which of these statements about load-bearing surfaces is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) The ACN gives a relative load rating of the aircraft on pavements for certain specified sub-grade strength. B) The PCN for a pavement is the highest acceptable ACN for aeroplanes operating on the surface. C) The ACN for a pavement is the highest acceptable PCN for aeroplanes operating on the surface. D) The PCN gives a relative load rating of the aircraft on pavements for certain specified sub-grade strength.

22. Which of the following statements about drag is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Parasite drag is the drag caused solely by the relative motion of the aircraft to the air. B) Parasite drag increases with TAS. C) Parasite drag increases with TAS for a given density. D) Induced drag decreases with an increase in TAS for a given density E) The engine and warning display (EWD) is usually the upper central display. F) The 2 main types of drag are parasite drag and form drag.

23. In steady, unaccelerated, straight-and-level flight: A) L = W and T = D. B) L = W and T = L. C) W cosθ is parallel to the flight path. D) T must be greater than D.

24. In a steady, unaccelerated climb:Mark all correct answers. A) Thrust is greater than drag. B) The component of weight, Wcosθ, is perpendicular to the flight path. C) The component of weight, Wsinθ, is parallel to the flight path. D) Lift is greater than weight.

25. Climbing at constant CAS:Mark all correct answers. A) The angle of attack and coefficient of lift remain constant. B) The pitch and flight path angles decrease. C) The rate of climb decreases. D) The angle of attack and coefficient of lift decrease.

26. When climbing at a constant Mach number:Mark all correct answers. A) The climb gradient and rate of climb reduce. B) The TAS reduces. C) The TAS remains constant when climbing above the tropopause. D) The TAS increases less rapidly when climbing above the tropopause.

27. In the descent at constant Mach number:Mark 4 correct answers. A) CAS increases. B) AoA and CL decrease. C) Angle of descent increases. D) Pitch angle decreases. E) CAS reduces. F) AoA and CL increase.

28. In the descent at constant CAS:Mark 2 correct answers. A) CAS, AoA and CL remain constant. B) Pitch and descent angles remain constant. C) AoA decreases because the CL remains constant. D) CAS, AoA and CL all decrease.

29. An aircraft is accelerating in level flight: A) Thrust must be greater than drag. B) At speeds above VMD the induced drag steadily reduces, causing even greater acceleration C) The induced drag steadily reduces, causing even greater acceleration. D) Lift must be less than weight.

30. In a steady unaccelerated descent: A) Thrust and a component of weight are balanced by the drag. B) The lift must be less than the combined components of weight. C) The lift steadily reduces with altitude. D) The thrust steadily reduces with altitude.

31. Study this diagram, then select the correct description(s):Mark 2 correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 7. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A is a typical curve showing the variation of jet thrust with speed. B) B is a typical curve showing the variation of propeller thrust with speed. C) B is a typical curve showing the variation of propeller power with speed. D) A is a typical curve showing the variation of jet power with speed.

32. Which of the following are associated with a decrease in propeller thrust?Mark all correct answers. A) A high density altitude. B) A high pressure altitude. C) High ambient temperature. D) High forward airspeed. E) High ambient pressure. F) Stationary, or almost stationary, on the runway with the engine at take-off RPM.

33. Which (valid) type of propeller maintains constant thrust over the speed range encountered during take-off? A) A constant speed propeller. B) A climb propeller. C) A cruise propeller. D) A fixed pitch propeller. E) A constant thrust propeller.

34. When not flat-rated, thrust reduces with altitude because: A) The air density reduces, thus reducing the mass flow through both turbojet engines and propellers. B) The temperature reduces, thus reducing the mass flow through both turbojet engines and propellers. C) The temperature reduces, thus reducing the thermal efficiency of engines. D) Altitude reduces the velocity of flow through the propeller or turbojet engine.

35. The power created by a propeller:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Generally increases with forward speed. B) Drops at both ends of the speed spectrum because of reduced propeller efficiency. C) Decreases steadily with forward speed.

36. Which of the following statements is true of turbojet engines?Mark all correct answers. A) Power available (PA) increases as TAS increases. B) Thrust remains broadly constant across a wide speed range. C) Ram effect offsets the rise in intake momentum drag. D) Thrust remains broadly constant across a wide altitude range.

37. Study the diagram then identify the correct answer: [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 8. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A is VMP B) B is VMP C) A is VMD D) B is 0.76 VMD

38. Study the diagram then identify which of the following statements is/are correct:Mark 2 correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 8. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) C is the approximate position of VMD. B) When compared with A, B is representative of the effect of a decrease on an aeroplane's mass (for example due to fuel burn). C) C is the approximate position of VMP. D) A is the parasite drag curve, B is the induced drag curve.

39. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) The power required for any given speed is found by multiplying the drag at that speed by the TAS. B) Adding mass to an aircraft moves the power required curve up and right. C) The power required for any given speed coincides with VIMD. D) The power required for any given speed is found by multiplying the drag at that speed by the IAS.

40. Which of the following statements about specific fuel consumption is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) SFC is a measure of engine efficiency only. B) SFC is the fuel flow per unit of thrust. C) SFC is proportional to temperature. D) The engine’s SFC is lowest, and the engine most efficient, at low ambient temperatures. E) For propeller engines, the SFC is related to the fuel flow per unit of power, not thrust. F) SFC Jet = Fuel flow per unit of power.

41. Study this simplified diagram of a turbojet thrust curve and then identify which of the following statements is/are correct.Mark all correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 9. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) The constant thrust in the part of the curve labelled A is the result of a system which electronically limits the engine's maximum thrust. B) B indicates the flat-rating cut-off point. C) This is a curve for a flat-rated engine. D) At any ambient temperature less than that occurring at point B, the engine will produce constant thrust during the take-off. E) This curve indicates that thrust reduces with increasing engine temperature. F) The decreasing thrust in the part of the curve shown at B is the result of electronically reducing maximum thrust as ambient temperature increases.

42. The take-off screen height:Mark all correct answers. A) Is 35 ft for Performance Class A aeroplanes. B) Is 50 ft for Performance Class B aeroplanes. C) Marks the end of the take-off distance D) Is the height at which the screen is cleared by the landing gear.

43. Which of the following statements about the take-off is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) A heavier aircraft needs to achieve a faster take-off speed because of its higher stalling speed. B) A tail wind means that VR occurs at a higher ground speed. C) An up-sloping runway results in slower acceleration and a longer take-off distance. D) The take-off distance required decreases as flap angle increases - up to a certain optimum value. E) The ground roll (take-off run) is the distance from brake release to the screen height. F) A runway with down-slope increases the take-off distance but not the take-off roll.

44. The __________ is the maximum permissible mass at the start of the take-off run. A) MTOM B) MSLM C) MLM

45. Wet and contaminated runways increase the take-off distance because of the twin influences of displacement drag and __________ drag. A) impingement B) induced C) stiction

46. The __________ an aerodrome’s pressure altitude, the longer the TOD. A) higher B) lower

47. A crosswind determined by the manufacturer when it first tests its new type. The limit depends on a number of factors, such as the amount of rudder authority, the yaw induced by engine failure, the state of the runway surface and the level of pilot skill required to maintain control'. This is a description of: A) The demonstrated crosswind. B) The gross crosswind. C) The net crosswind. D) VMCG

48. Take-off with the air conditioning packs ON __________ the thrust to weight ratio and __________ the take-off run. A) reduces; increases. B) increases; increases. C) reduces; reduces. D) increases; reduces

49. Which of the following are possible consequences of exceeding the brake energy limit in the event of a rejected take-off?Mark all correct answers. A) Brake fade. B) Runway overrun. C) Brake fire. D) Tyre deflation.

50. In CAT Ops, the safety factors applied to the headwind and tailwind components are:Mark 2 correct answers. A) 50% of the headwind. B) 150% of the tailwind. C) 50% of the tailwind. D) 150% of the headwind.

51. If the demonstrated crosswind is considered to be limiting, then it’s entered as an operating limitation in: A) The aircraft flight manual (AFM). B) CS-25 C) EU OPS 1 D) The Abnormal Procedures section of the training manual.

52. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Any increase in aircraft mass (a reduction in the thrust to weight ratio) reduces the acceleration and increases the take-off speed, resulting in a longer take-off distance. B) The additional drag caused by take-off flap has a very minor effect on drag and an unnoticeable effect on acceleration during the take-off roll. C) The beneficial effect of reaching take-off speed quicker outweighs the adverse effects of trying to stop the aircraft. A downslope reduces the ASD. D) The forces affecting the aeroplane during the take-off run are: lift, weight, thrust and drag.

53. For an aeroplane taking off on Runway 23 with a reported wind of 270°/20 kt:Mark 2 correct answers. A) The headwind component = 20 kt x cos 40° B) The crosswind component = 20 kt x sin 40° C) The headwind component = 20 kt x sin 40° D) The crosswind component = 20 kt x cos 40°

54. For an aeroplane taking off on Runway 05. The reported wind is 140/20 kt.Mark all correct answers. A) The headwind component is 0 kt, the crosswind component is 20 kt. B) The headwind component is 20 kt, the crosswind component is 0 kt. C) The headwind component is 10 kt, the crosswind component is 10 kt.

55. An aeroplane is taking off on Runway 18. The reported wind is 210/40 kt. The headwind component is __________ kt. The crosswind component is __________ kt. (Rounded up to a whole number). A) 35; 20 B) 20; 35 C) 40; 20 D) 35; 10

56. Study this diagram. The crosswind component is approximately: [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 12. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) 20 kt. B) 9 kt. C) 25 kt. D) 13 kt.

57. The __________ is the angle of the aircraft’s flight path (in degrees) measured with respect to the Earth’s horizontal. A) Flight path angle B) climb gradient C) ascent angle D) flight path vector

58. Climb gradient is the __________ divided by the __________ times 100. A) vertical height gained; horizontal distance flown B) vertical height gained; vertical height gained C) horizontal distance flown; horizontal distance flown D) horizontal distance flown; vertical height gained

59. For a turbojet aircraft, VX occurs at __________. A) VMD B) VMP

60. VX for a fixed-pitch propeller-driven aeroplane:Mark all correct answers. A) Is much slower than VMD. B) Is close to VMP. C) Varies with engine, propeller type and altitude. D) Occurs at VMD.

61. The available thrust minus the drag is known as excess__________. A) thrust B) power

62. A marked speed acceleration along the flight path results in __________ climb performance during the acceleration event. A) reduced B) increased C) has no effect

63. Turns __________ climb performance. A) reduce B) increase C) has no effect

64. Study this diagram then select the correct statements from the choices below:Mark 2 correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 14. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) This diagram relates to turbojet aeroplanes. B) In this diagram VX occurs at Point B. C) In this diagram VX occurs at Point A. D) For this propeller-driven aeroplane, Point B is VX. E) It's not possible to tell whether this diagram is for turbojet or propeller-driven aeroplanes without more information. F) The diagram relates to propeller-driven aeroplanes.

65. A decrease in the turbojet aeroplane's mass __________ Vx and __________ the excess thrust. A) reduces; increases. B) reduces; reduces. C) increases; increases. D) reduces; reduces.

66. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark 3 correct answers. A) For a turbojet aircraft, a high ambient temperature, at the same pressure altitude, reduces thrust, reduces the excess thrust and reduces the angle of climb. B) When there is a marked atmospheric inversion, the angle of climb may reduce more rapidly with height than might otherwise be expected. C) For a propeller driven aeroplane, an increase in ambient temperature reduces the angle of climb and slightly increases VX. D) For a propeller driven aeroplane an increase in ambient temperature reduces the angle of climb and also slightly decreases VX. E) The effect of temperature is much less marked for a propeller driven aeroplane compared with a turbojet.

67. Extending flap __________ excess thrust. A) reduces B) increases C) has no effect

68. In a propeller-driven, twin-engined aircraft, VXSE is __________ than VX. A) faster B) slower

69. Following an engine failure in a jet aircraft:Mark all correct answers. A) The angle of climb greatly reduces. B) VX (one engine out) slightly reduces. C) The range of speeds at which it is possible to climb is much narrower. D) The angle of climb increases.

70. For a jet aircraft, as altitude increases:Mark all correct answers. A) The angle of climb reduces. B) VX (IAS) remains constant. C) VX (TAS) reduces.

71. Which of the following statements about the factors affecting climb performance is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) A heavier aircraft has less climb performance. B) In the initial take-off climb, extended flaps and lowered landing gear both reduce climb performance. C) Manoeuvres increase the thrust required and thus reduce climb performance. D) A hot ambient temperature reduces engine thrust and thus climb performance. E) A tailwind reduces the climb gradient. F) Flight path gradient is not affected by wind - climb gradient is. G) High, less dense air improves climb performance.

72. The speed at which an aircraft achieves its maximum rate of climb is known as __________. A) VY B) VX

73. VY is the speed at which the difference between __________ available and __________ required is greatest. A) power; power. B) power; thrust. C) thrust; power. D) thrust; thrust.

74. Study this diagram and then identify the correct statements.Mark 2 correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 16. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) This diagram shows power required and power available for a turbojet-driven aeroplane. B) A is VX B is VY. C) A is VY B is VX. D) This diagram shows power required and power available for a propeller-driven aeroplane.

75. Study the diagram and then identify the correct statements.Mark 2 correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 17. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) This diagram shows the power available and power required for a propeller-driven aeroplane. B) A is VX B is VMD C is VY. C) A is VX B is VY C is VMD. D) A is VY B is VMD C is VX. E) This diagram shows the power available and power required for a turbojet-driven aeroplane.

76. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) As mass increases, the excess power reduces and the rate of climb reduces. B) VY is greater for a heavier aircraft. C) As altitude increases excess power and rate of climb reduce. D) The rate of climb decreases and VY increases with an increase in ambient temperature. E) VY is unaffected by altitude.

77. Lowering flaps __________ the rate of climb and __________ VY. A) reduces; reduces. B) reduces; increases. C) increases; reduces. D) increases; increases.

78. Which of the following statements about the effect of engine failure is/are correct?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Engine failure always results in the rate of climb and VY reducing. B) An engine failure in a twin engine aircraft halves the available thrust. C) On a Dash-8 aeroplane, parasite drag increases as a result of engine failure. D) On any aeroplane, engine failure causes an increase in induced drag. E) For a propeller driven aircraft, engine failure doesn't affect the drag curve, but it does affect the power curve.

79. The theoretical altitude at which the rate of climb is zero is called the__________ ceiling. A) absolute B) operational C) service

80. When the aircraft climbs at a constant CAS, the TAS and Mach number __________. When a climb is flown at a constant Mach number, the CAS (and TAS)__________. A) increase; reduce. B) decrease; reduce. C) decrease; increase. D) increase; increase.

81. The maximum operating Mach number is known as __________. A) MMO B) VMO

82. When a turbojet aeroplane climbs using a climb schedule, the initial part of the climb is flown at constant __________ and subsequently at constant __________. A) CAS; Mach. B) CAS; CAS. C) Mach; Mach. D) Mach; CAS.

83. The point during the climb at which the designated climb CAS and designated climb Mach number coincide is known as the __________altitude. A) crossover B) optimum C) constraint

84. Which of these statements about the effect of the Cost Index on the climb is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) The higher the cost index, the faster the TAS. B) At a cost index of 0 the aircraft flies at VMR, which is about 1.32 VMD. C) At a cost index of 100 the aircraft flies at 1.32 VMD. D) A high cost index results in lower climb, cruise and descent speeds.

85. A 4-engined aeroplane with a mass of 358 000 kg suffers an engine failure in the climb. Assuming acceleration of gravity 10 m/s². Its drag is 455 000 N. Each engine produces a thrust of 245 000 N. What is the aeroplane’s climb gradient following the engine failure?

86. During the early part of the climb to cruise altitude, an a twin engine aircraft has a mass of 72 700 kg. Each engine is producing 90 000 N of thrust. The drag is estimated to be 45 400 N. What is the aircraft’s percentage climb gradient? (Assume acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2)”

87. The formula for calculating the percentage gradient is: A) (T-D) x 100/W B) T-W/W C) (T-D)/W D) T x D/W

88. A forward CG position __________ trim drag. A) increases B) reduces C) has no effect

89. In the cruise, optimum range and endurance is most likely to be achieved when the CG position is slightly __________. A) aft B) forward

90. Which of these statements about straight and level flight is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Excess thrust enables the aircraft to accelerate to a higher speed. B) If the drag exceeds the thrust available, the aircraft will decelerate. C) An increase in altitude and/or temperature reduces the maximum straight and level CAS. D) A decrease in altitude reduces the maximum straight and level CAS.

91. Study this diagram and then indicate which of the statements is/are correct.Mark 3 correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 19. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) Diagram B shows why the maximum S&L speed for a propeller aircraft is much lower than that for a turbojet. B) Diagram B shows that the maximum speed for S&L for a propeller aircraft is limited by the rapidly reducing thrust available as CAS increases. C) Diagram A shows the effect of a change in altitude on turbojet maximum S&L speed. D) Diagram A shows the effect of a change in altitude on turboprop maximum S&L speed. E) Diagram B shows that the maximum speed for S&L for a turbojet aircraft is limited by the rapidly reducing thrust available as CAS increases.

92. Which of these statements about specific range is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) Specific air range is the range through the air. B) Specific (air) range = TAS/fuel flow. C) Specific ground range is the range over the ground. D) Specific ground range = GS/fuel flow.

93. Turbojet range is greatest at __________ altitude because this is where SFC is __________. A) high; lowest. B) high; highest. C) low; lowest. D) low; highest.

94. Which of the following statements about range for a propeller driven aircraft is/are accurate?Mark 2 correct answers. A) Maximum range is achieved at the speed where the ratio of TAS to power required is maximum. B) The optimum altitude for a propeller aircraft occurs at the point where the engine is at its full throttle height and producing just enough power available to balance power required at VMD. C) Maximum range is achieved at the speed where the ratio of TAS to thrust required is maximum. D) Altitude has a much larger effect than it does for the turbojet aircraft.

95. For a turbojet-powered aeroplane, the lowest SFC occurs: A) At the altitude where the thrust required requires the engine core to run at its optimum design RPM. B) Whenever the engine is running at its optimum design RPM (90-95% of maximum). C) Whenever the engine is running at the lowest RPM needed to sustain straight and level flight. D) At the altitude where the engine is running at full throttle (full throttle height).

96. Range is greatest at high altitude, both for engine and aerodynamic reasons. There is less drag for the same TAS at altitude. Most importantly, SFC is best at altitude. The optimum altitude is a balance between the savings achieved by cruising at high level and the time and fuel cost of climbing to altitude'This is a description of the considerations for: A) turbojet-driven aeroplanes. B) propeller-driven aeroplanes.

97. Study this diagram, then identify the correct statement. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 21. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) Best range for a propeller-driven aeroplane occurs at Point A. B) Best range for a propeller-driven aeroplane occurs at Point B. C) Best range for a turbojet aeroplane occurs at Point A. D) Best range for a turbojet aeroplane occurs at Point B.

98. __________ CG position increases range because it produces less trim drag. A) Aft B) Forward

99. For a turbojet engine, SFC is lowest (best) when: A) The engine is running at its design RPM (approximately 90 to 95% maximum). B) The aircraft is flying at VMD. C) The air temperature is high. D) The engine is running at VMP.

100. As a flight progresses and aircraft mass reduces: A) The specific range increases. B) The optimum speed for range reduces. C) The optimum altitude steadily decreases.

101. The optimum altitude for range is __________ for a propeller-driven aeroplane compared with a turbojet-driven aeroplane. A) lower B) higher C) same

102. The specific air range (SAR) __________ affected by wind, because it depends on NAM/kg of fuel or TAS/fuel flow. A) is not B) is

103. The specific ground range (SGR) depends on NGM/kg fuel or groundspeed/fuel flow. A headwind __________ range (SGR). A) reduces B) has no effect C) increases

104. A tailwind __________ the range (SGR). A) increases B) reduces C) has no effect

105. Which of the following are valid possible scenarios involving the operational management of the Cost Index:Mark all correct answers. A) A high cost index would be used on an early morning sector when further high revenue flights can be scheduled or when an aircraft is behind schedule. B) The crew may adjust the cost index en-route to slightly delay their arrival time. For example, in the event of declared or expected delays at destination. C) The crew might adjust the cost index to cope with an unanticipated headwind on a long sector. D) The crew might adjust the cost index before take-off to increase the maximum flex temperature.

106. The speed above maximum range cruise speed that results in a 1% decrease in nm/kg is known as the __________ speed. A) long range cruise B) maximum cruise C) cost index 100

107. The standard long range cruise Mach number (MMLC ) used by both Boeing and Airbus is about __________ faster than maximum range speed. This reduces the range by 1%, which means that at MMLC the aircraft achieves 99% of the SAR achieved at MMR.

108. The primary purpose of the step climb is to __________ by staying as close as operationally possible to the optimum __________ as the flight progresses. A) increase range; altitude B) increase range; speed C) reduce flight time; speed D) reduce flight time; altitude

109. Identify the scenarios in which a step climb may not be appropriate:Mark 3 correct answers. A) On a flight with one very short sector. B) On a flight within an area of very busy airspace with many ATC restrictions. C) When the scheduled next step climb would enter a flight level known to have strong headwinds or turbulence. D) In the first hour of a long-haul flight when the aircraft is very heavy. E) When the cost index is very low (e.g. 0 to 10).

110. The cost index is the cost of time/the cost of fuel. A lower cost index (e.g. 0) weights the conduct of the flight towards __________ savings. A higher cost index (e.g. 100) weights the conduct of the flight towards __________ savings. A) fuel; time B) fuel; fuel C) time; time D) time; fuel

111. MECON __________ as the cost index increases. A) increases B) decreases C) has no effect

112. Which of the following statements about endurance is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) Endurance is the maximum time an aeroplane can remain airborne with the available fuel, irrespective of distance covered. B) Maximum endurance is used whenever it’s necessary to prolong a flight or spend a long time on task. C) As with range, wind can affect endurance. D) Endurance is the maximum distance an aeroplane can achieve while remaining airborne for the longest possible time.

113. For a turbojet engine fuel flow = SFC x __________. A) thrust B) power

114. For a propeller engine fuel flow = SFC x __________. A) power required B) thrust

115. Endurance is maximised when the fuel flow is __________. A) minimised B) maximised

116. For a turbojet aeroplane, maximum endurance is achieved at __________ at __________ altitude. A) VMD; high B) VMD; low C) VMP; high D) VMP; low

117. For a propeller aeroplane, maximum endurance is achieved at __________ at __________ altitude. A) VMP; low B) VMD; high C) VMD; low D) VMP; high

118. For a turbo-propeller aeroplane, endurance __________ with altitude. A) does not vary significantly B) varies significantly

119. Endurance is greatest when the __________ is lowest. A) SFC B) power available C) SR

120. The minimum power required speed VMP is __________ VMD. A) less than B) equal to C) greater than

121. The descent __________ is the angle of the aircraft’s descent (in degrees) measured with respect to the Earth’s horizontal. A) angle B) gradient

122. The decrease of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage is one way of describing the __________. A) descent gradient B) descent angle

123. The ratio of the vertical height lost divided by the horizontal distance flown over the ground is known as the _________ gradient. A) ground B) air

124. The ground gradient __________ affected by wind. A) is B) is not

125. For a given air gradient, a headwind __________ the ground gradient; a tailwind __________ it. A) increases; reduces B) increases; increases C) reduces; reduces D) reduces; increases

126. Study this diagram then identify which of the statements is/are correct.Mark all correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 25. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) The descent gradient varies with Sin y. B) In a steady descent, the drag is greater than the thrust. C) If the speed in the descent is unchanging, then the thrust must equal the drag. D) The descent angle varies with Cos y.

127. Study the diagram then identify which of the statements is/are correct.Mark all correct answers. [Abbildung/Tabelle erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 26. Grafiken sind nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A is the speed for minimum rate of descent. B) B is the speed for maximum rate of descent. C) Maximum excess power required occurs at B. D) The units of C are knots TAS. E) The units at C are knots CAS. F) A is the speed for maximum rate of descent.

128. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) In still air, a heavier aircraft has the same glide range as a lighter aircraft. B) Heavier aircraft must glide at a faster speed to be at VMD. C) A headwind decreases the ground range and increases the glide angle. D) Adding a small amount of power has no effect of the glide angle.

129. Flap and landing gear:Mark all correct answers. A) Increase the excess drag at all speeds. B) Increase the glide angle of descent. C) Decrease the glide range. D) Increase the speed for the minimum glide angle.

130. The initial part of the descent is flown at a constant __________. A) Mach B) CAS C) IAS

131. At the changeover altitude the remainder of the descent is flown at constant __________. A) CAS B) Mach

132. The maximum operating CAS is __________ A) VMO B) MMO C) CMO D) VMM

133. If you don’t let the automatics manage the descent: A) Select a target CAS to avoid the risk of a VMO exceedance. B) Select a target CAS to avoid the risk of a MMO exceedance. C) Set a target CAS or Mach number to avoid the risk of any speed exceedance. D) The aeroplane will descend at the minimum rate of descent.

134. The L/D ratio of a Cirrus SR22 is approximately 10:1. When gliding at the angle of attack corresponding to this ratio:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Its glide air gradient is 1:10. B) Its glide angle is 5.5 degrees in still air conditions. C) Its percentage glide air gradient is 10. D) Its percentage glide air gradient is 0.1. E) Its glide air gradient is 10:1. F) Its glide angle is 5.5 degrees.

135. An aeroplane with an L/D ratio of 1:12 is gliding at a TAS of 90 kt into a 30 kt headwind. What is its gross ground gradient of descent? A) 12.5% B) 5.2° C) 9.1°

136. In the image provided, which of the following situations shows the landing distance? A) A B) B C) C D) A,B, and C

137. The speed of the aeroplane, in a specified landing configuration, at the point where it descends through the landing screen height, used in the determination of the landing distance for manual landings' is the definition of: A) VREF B) VFA C) VMD D) VAP

138. Extending flap for the approach and landing: Mark 4 correct answers. A) Reduces VREF. B) Reduces the speed at which you touch down. C) Significantly reduces the LDR. D) Significantly reduces the ground roll. E) Enables a firmer, more positive, touch down. F) Provides a significant retarding force (drag) throughout the landing roll.

139. __________ is the minimum speed that ensures you can retain sufficient control of the aircraft when in the approach and landing configuration. A) VMCL B) VREF C) VMCA

140. Which of the following statements about the effect of wind is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) A tailwind increases the landing distance. B) A headwind reduces the landing distance. C) A headwind has no effect on the landing distance. D) A tailwind reduces the landing distance.

141. A 10% increase in the speed at the screen height, results in a __________% increase in the landing distance. Answer as a number.

142. Which of the following factors increase the landing distance:Mark all correct answers. A) A heavier aeroplane mass. B) Low air density. C) A wet or contaminated runway. D) A high ambient temperature. E) A high altitude airport. F) A headwind. G) Using flap.

143. Which of the following factors affect the aeroplane's climb performance during either the approach or landing climb:Mark all correct answers. A) The aeroplane's mass. B) Configuration (drag) especially with the gear down and flaps fully extended. C) Altitude. D) Temperature. E) Engine failure. F) Accelerating, or turning, in the climb. G) A relatively high VREF. H) A late decision to go-around. I) Head or tailwind.

144. A tailwind increases the landing distance because: A) It increases the aeroplane's ground speed. B) It increases the aeroplane's CAS. C) A tailwind requires a higher VREF. D) A tailwind increases VMCL.

145. With regard to turbo jet aeroplanes, wind (1) ____ endurance and (2) ____ the maximum endurance speed. Which option is the correct one?

146. Complete the following sentence: A take-off performance is calculated with the use of given conditions. If subsequently, the OAT drops, the aircraft's climb performance will (1) ___ because the excess thrust will be (2) ___ .

147. A multi-engined piston aeroplane is in straight and level flight. As fuel is burnt, the mass of the aeroplane reduces. Consequently, the Specific Range (SR) will (1) __ , and the optimum speed for maximum SR will (2) ___ .

148. Your route of the day is London-Paris-London in a performance class 8 aeroplane. During your approach into London, the QNH has reduced considerably since your earlier departure, with a small increase in temperature. Vou expect your aircrafts performance to (1) _____ as the landing distance required will (2) _____ and the missed approach climb gradient will (3) _____ .

149. From 500 ft above the destination aerodrome to FL50, a multi-engined piston (MEP) aeroplane performs a steady climb, maintaining a constant speed of 120 kt IAS. During this climb, the "Power Required vs. TAS" curve will move (1) ....... and the "Power Available vs. TAS" curve will move (2) .........

150. The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:

151. Choose the combination of correct statements regarding the Accelerate-Stopping Distance Available (ASDA): 1. The ASDA includes the TORA. 2. The ASDA includes the starter extension (if available). 3. The ASDA includes the stopway in the direction of take-off (if available). 4. The ASDA includes the stopways in both directions (if available).

152. ln the take-off climb segment, a MEP aircraft has a gross gradient of 13% with all engines operating and a gross gradient of 5.2% with one engine inoperative. Which net gradients must be used for the calculation of obstacle clearance if the cloud base is at 600 ft?

153. What is the maximum semi-width of the obstacle domain for an aircraft of wingspan 52 m that can maintain navigational accuracy and is not required to turn more than 15° after take-off. The obstacle is 2200 m from the end of TODA.

154. A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kts TAS (no wind), this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb (ROC) of approximately:

155. An aircraft is descending at 193 kt TAS in still air with a vertical speed of 1000 ft/min. The descent gradient is:

156. What is the minimum width of a clearway?

157. Considering a climb gradient of 5.1% to 2000 ft, with a TAS of 100 kt and a tailwind component of 12 kt. Find the rate of climb in feet per minute.

158. What is the rate of climb required for an aircraft to climb at 1800 ft with a TAS of 125 kt, a headwind component of 25 kt and a climb gradient of 4.6%?

159. Calculate the one-engine-failed climb gradient of a four-engine-aeroplane, given the following information: Aeroplane mass: 358 000 kg Thrust per engine: 245 000 N Drag: 455 000 N (Assume the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s²)

160. If you want to follow a 3.25° glideslope (ILS), when TAS is 130 kt and wind component is 15 kt tailwind, your rate of descend must be:

161. Given the following conditions: Still air climb gradient 7.5% TAS 140 kt Wind component 25 kt head What is the effective wind climb gradient?

162. How does a change in Pressure Altitude affect the climb performance with regard to the Rate Of Climb and the Climb Angle? lncreasing Pressure Altitude results in:

163. Which of the following statements concerning the range influenced by the CG is correct?

164. With regard to the CG and its effect on performance select the correct statement.

165. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:

166. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:

167. Along with aeroplane mass, which other factors have an influence on the service ceiling?

168. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

169. Having all other conditions the same, taking off from an upward-sloping runway compared to a zero slope runway will result in:

170. The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:

171. Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at zero wind and zero thrust. At a given angle of attack, which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?

172. Other factors remaining constant, the effect an increase of altitude, in a standard atmosphere, has on the value of Vx and Vv in terms of TAS is:

173. If the air temperature decreases, the take-off distance/ground-roll distance will:

174. For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient:

175. A jet aeroplane is flying at the speed for maximum range, below the optimum altitude. How does the specific range change when altitude increases? The specific range :

176. Comparing 2 aircraft of the same type with equal masses at different altitudes, the maximum endurance speed is higher:

177. Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?

178. To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be:

179. An aircraft manufacturer constructs two aircraft. Aircraft 1 is a SEP with a 160 hp engine and a MTOM of 1300 kg. Aircraft 2 is a twin-engine piston aircraft with two of the same 160 hp engines, and a MTOM of 2000 kg. In the event of an engine failure on aircraft 2, which of the following statements is correct?

180. The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane:

181. How does an increase in mass affect VY and VX?

182. With regard to the effect of altitude on the speed for maximum endurance for a propeller-driven aeroplane, as altitude increases, the speed for maximum endurance will:

183. An aircraft is climbing at a maximum climb angle with constant speed and thrust. Consider for theoretical purposes that the weight of the aircraft suddenly decreases but the flight otherwise continues as normal. For the pilot to maintain the same speed, all factors remaining the same, the angle of climb must be:

184. During a climb at a constant Indicated Air Speed (IAS), what happens to the True Air Speed (TAS)?

185. What is the effect of an upslope on the ASDR, it:

186. Regarding a jet transport aeroplane, specific fuel consumption (SFC):

187. The Density Altitude:

188. What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?

189. The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:

190. When descending after an engine failure in the cruise, the correct speed is?

191. The flight path angle is the angle between the:

192. As speed is reduced from VMD to VMP:

193. How will the power required vary with IAS for increasing density altitude for a propeller aeroplane in the climb?

194. What happens to the minimum rate of descent and gradient of descent when the aircraft mass is decreased, all other factors being constant?

195. During descent with idle power and assuming all other parameters remaining the same, how will an increased mass change the Minimum Angle of Descent and the corresponding speed? The Minimum Angle of Descent:

196. During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:

197. The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is:

198. A pilot performing a CAT flight suspects a fuel leak coming from a fuel tank and decides to divert to an alternate aerodrome. What is the flown speed that should be selected from the point of diversion to the alternate aerodrome?

199. The speed VS is defined as:

200. A jet aeroplane has three configurations available for take-off. T /01: 1 stage of slats and flaps. T /02: 2 stages of slats and flaps. T /03: 3 stages of slats and 3 stages of flaps. The runway is NOT limiting but the given departure requires a climb gradient of 6.8% to 2000 ft. Which T/0 configuration will be most appropriate to achieve the best climb gradient?

201. A lower density of air will result in an increased:

202. What is the specific range (SAR)?

203. What factors affect the level-off altitude?

204. Which statement about the clearway is correct?

205. The "Density altitude" is:

206. Compared with still-air, the effect a headwind has on the values of the maximum range speed and the maximum gradient climb speed respectively is that:

207. Which of the following statements about performance definitions and safety factors is correct?

208. An obstacle is 5000 m from the end of the TODR and is 160 m high. The screen height is 50 ft and the ground climb gradient is 5%. Which of the following statements is correct?

209. What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?

210. What happens when flying at the "backside of the power curve"?

211. Ali other criteria being equal, what factor can reduce the landing distance?

212. What is the difference between climb angle and climb gradient?

213. The runway limited take-off mass on a dry runway is the maximum take-off mass for the given airport/runway conditions, considering:

214. Which speed represents the maximum endurance speed for a propeller driven aeroplane?