POF 05

1. The aerodynamic force produced by a propeller blade element (its total reaction) is resolved into _________ __________ . A) thrust and torque drag. B) thrust and lift. C) thrust and torque. D) lift, weight, thrust and drag.

2. For a given blade pitch angle, thrust __________ as air speed increases. A) reduces B) increases C) remains constant

3. The distance a propeller would travel forward in one revolution if it was moving through the air at the blade angle is known as its __________. A) geometric pitch B) effective pitch

4. The distance a propeller actually moves forwards in 1 revolution is known as the __________. A) effective pitch B) geometric pitch

5. The difference between the geometric and effective pitch is called __________. A) slip B) pitch angle C) helix angle

6. Study the diagram then identify which 3 of the following statements are correct. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 2. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) Label 2 shows a low RPM situation. B) Label B shows rotational velocity. C) Label C shows the RAF. D) Label A shows IAS. E) Label 1 shows a high air speed situation.

7. Study the diagram, then identify which of the following statements are correct.Mark all correct answers. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 2. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) Aircraft 1 has a lower air speed than Aircraft 2. B) The images show the operation of a variable pitch propeller. C) Propeller 2 has a relatively coarse pitch compared with Propeller 1. D) Propeller 2 is creating more torque drag than Propeller 1. E) The rotational velocity of Propeller 2 has been increased to preserve optimum alpha.

8. Blade twist __________ the blade angle from hub to tip to keep the __________ constant across the length of the blade. A) reduces; angle of attack. B) increases; angle of attack. C) reduces; rotational velocity. D) reduces; helix angle.

9. Which 3 of the following statements is/are correct: A) The adjustable pitch propeller allows the blade pitch angle to be manually adjusted by the pilot using a pitch control lever. B) The blade pitch angle of a constant speed propeller is mechanically controlled by a governor to keep the propeller blades at their optimum angle of attack over a wide airspeed range. C) On a fixed pitch propeller, there is only one TAS at which the blade angle of attack is optimum. D) A fixed pitch propeller preserves propeller efficiency over a wide range of airspeeds. E) On a constant speed propeller, the blade angle of attack is preserved at its optimum (across a wide range of TAS) by altering the blade twist.

10. The __________ propeller is most efficient at low speeds and less efficient at higher speed. It is often used on low-powered training aircraft. A) climb B) cruise

11. Excessively __________ pitch results in high torque drag and reduction in thrust. It is very inefficient and risks overboosting the engine. A) coarse B) fine

12. Excessively __________ pitch results in low torque drag which increases the risk of overspeeding the engine. A) fine B) coarse

13. Comparing the power output from the propeller with the power input by the engine gives a measure of propeller __________. A) efficiency. B) blade angle. C) pitch. D) helix angle.

14. Which of the following statements are correct? A) A variable pitch propeller maintains optimum efficiency over a wide range of combinations of propeller RPM and TAS. B) Blade icing reduces propeller efficiency because it destroys laminar flow and may also cause early boundary layer separation. C) If the total reaction is inclined very far forwards, then the proportion of the total reaction divided into the drag vector reduces. D) A variable pitch propeller operates at maximum efficiency at only one combination of propeller RPM and TAS.

15. Which of the following are valid design techniques for increasing the maximum power absorption capacity of a propeller system?Mark all correct answers. A) Increasing the length of the propeller blades. B) Increasing the number of propeller blades. C) Adding additional propellers to the hub. D) Increasing the blade chord of each blade. E) Increasing the blade twist.

16. The term '__________' describes the ratio of propeller blade frontal area to the propeller disc area. A) solidity B) thickness C) effectiveness

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) The propeller diameter must be restricted to ensure that tip velocity doesn’t become transonic or supersonic. B) The propeller diameter must be restricted to ensure adequate ground clearance. C) Increasing the number of blades increases solidity but the maximum number of blades is limited by the need to preserve the aerodynamic performance of individual blades. D) The principal cause of high propeller noise is high propeller tip speeds. E) Compressibility effects at high tip speeds reduce the efficiency of the propeller.

18. The phenomenon whereby the aircraft tries to rotate in the opposite direction from the propeller is called '__________ '. This can produce a __________ when on the ground during the take-off run. On light twin aircraft this effect can be reduced by using counter-rotating propellers. A) torque effect; yaw B) torque effect; roll C) p factor; yaw D) p factor; roll

19. An aircraft has a right-hand propeller. The pilot pitches nose-down. Gyroscopic effects will cause the aircraft to: A) Yaw left. B) Yaw right. C) Pitch up. D) Pitch up.

20. Asymmetric blade effect occurs at __________ angles of attack. A) high B) low

21. On a right-hand propeller, P-factor will cause the aircraft to: A) Yaw left. B) Yaw right. C) Roll left. D) Roll right.

22. Which of the following are valid countermeasures for dealing with P-factor effects?Mark all correct answers. A) On take-off counteract yaw effects with nose-wheel steering, rather than rudder. B) Rotate gently on take-off. C) Pitch gently and apply power gently when going around. D) Maximise power in the climb to use the propeller slipstream to improve rudder effectiveness.

23. Study this diagram then identify which of the following statements are correct.Mark all correct answers. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 5. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) Aircraft B has a greater yawing moment than Aircraft A because its live engine is developing more power. B) Aircraft C has less yawing moment than Aircraft A and B. C) Failure of Engine Number 1 on the A380 produces more yawing moment than failure of Engine Number 2. D) At D both aircraft are drawn to scale. No engine failure on the RJ100 produces as much yawing moment as failure of Engine Number 2 on the A380.

24. __________ power setting at __________ air density produces the greatest yawing moment. A) High; high. B) High; low. C) Low; high. D) Low; low.

25. Which of the following statements about the 'banking method' is are/accurate? A) The technique requires you to apply up to 5° of bank towards the live engine. B) The technique uses a sideways component of the drag vector to counterbalance the yawing moment. C) A 5° limit on bank angle is imposed because of the risk of stalling the aircraft. D) Unlike the wings-level method, the banking method doesn't required the fin to generate a side force.

26. Study the diagram. Identify the correct statement below. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 6. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) The correcting fin side force is shown at B and requires right rudder pedal to achieve it. B) The correcting fin side force is shown at A and requires right rudder pedal to achieve it. C) The correcting fin side force is shown at A and requires left rudder pedal to achieve it. D) The correcting fin side force is shown at B and requires left rudder pedal to achieve it.

27. Study the diagrams. The critical engines are: [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 7. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) A, D, E, H. B) A, D, F, H. C) B, C, F, H. D) B, C, E, H.

28. A VMCA is needed because: A) There is a minimum speed below which the rudder and fin can’t provide enough restoring moment. B) There is a minimum speed below which the rudder stalls. C) There is a minimum speed below which the moment produced by asymmetric thrust becomes very large. D) There is a maximum speed above which the rudder and fin can’t provide enough restoring moment.

29. VMCA (minimum control speed in the air) is the minimum __________ at which you can control the aircraft, flying straight with <5° bank after failure of the critical engine. A) CAS or IAS B) TAS

30. Which of the following are valid conditions used when determining an aircraft's VMCA? Mark all correct answers. A) Max thrust on the live engine. B) Trimmed for take-off. C) Max sea level AUM. D) Gear up and most critical configuration. E) (Propeller a/c) feathered only if there is auto-feather, otherwise windmilling. F) More forward CG position. G) In ground effect.

31. These parameters are used for calculating __________:Go-around power or thrust on the operating engine(s).The most unfavourable CG position (aft CG - shortest arm).The aircraft trimmed for the approach.The most unfavourable weight.In the most critical configuration for the approach and landing. A) VMCL B) VMCA

32. VMCG (minimum control speed on the ground) is the minimum CAS during the take-off run at which you can maintain control using the __________ without deviating more than __________ ft laterally from the centre line after failure of the critical engine. A) rudder; 30. B) nose wheel steering; 30. C) nose wheel steering; 50. D) rudder; 50.

33. Minimum control speeds are __________ in cold, low altitude conditions. A) faster. B) slower. C) unchanged.

34. Which of the following are valid concerns about controllability when carrying out a single-engine go-around in a CAT jet aircraft? A) Full flap means high drag and slow acceleration. B) The crew is preoccupied so an engine failure at point of go-around is very critical. C) The pitch-up can generate an adverse P-factor. D) Crosswind can make it difficult to determine the critical engine.

35. Which 2 of these statements about the speed of sound is/are correct? A) The temperature of the air affects the speed of sound. B) The speed of sound is higher at sea level than at high altitude. C) The speed of sound is constant in any given medium. D) The speed of sound is slower at high altitude because of the decreased air density.

36. Mach number is a measure of the __________ of the air. A) compressibility. B) velocity. C) shockability.

37. An Airbus A320 is flying at 430 kt TAS at an altitude where the LSS is 550 kt. The aircraft's Mach number is: A) M 0.87 B) M 0.78 C) M 1.78 D) M 1.23

38. Mach number is significant because:Mark all correct answers. A) Compressibility increases the adverse pressure gradient and reduces CL. B) Compressibility increases the stalling speed and decreases the critical angle. C) Compressibility increases the stalling speed and critical angle. D) Compressibility can cause a stall at angles below the critical angle.

39. In a shock wave:Mark all correct answers. A) Temperature rises. B) Density rises. C) Density falls. D) Speed increases.

40. Which of the following statements are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) In subsonic flow all local Mach numbers are less than 1.0. B) In supersonic flow all ML numbers are greater than 1.0. C) In supersonic flow the MFS is greater than 1.0. D) In transonic flow some LSS numbers are greater than M 1.0 and some are less.

41. The point at which the first flow reaches M 1.0 is called the __________ __________ . A) critical Mach number B) drag divergence Mach number

42. Which of the following is/are factors which affect MCRIT?Mark all correct answers. A) The thickness of the aerofoil section. B) The aircraft’s mass. C) The aircraft's CG Position. D) The wing's load factor.

43. As MFS increases, a normal shockwave:Mark all correct answers. A) Becomes more intense. B) Becomes longer. C) May develop on the lower surface. D) Moves forward on the upper surface. E) Attaches to the leading edge.

44. The total pressure behind a normal shock wave is __________ than the total pressure ahead of the shock wave. A) less B) greater C) always greater

45. When a normal shock wave forms, the additional transfer of energy from the aircraft to the atmosphere is known as __________ . A) wave drag B) shock drag

46. Study this diagram, then identify which 5 of the following statements are correct. [Abbildung erforderlich: siehe Original-PDF, Seite 10. Grafik nicht in dieser CSV enthalten.] A) The MFS reaches Mach 1.0 at E. B) A typical cruise speed for CAT jet aircraft is at B. C) D indicates M DRAG DIVERGENCE. D) A indicates MCRIT. E) F indicates the energy lost to wave drag. F) D indicates the onset of the shock stall. G) A indicates M DRAG DIVERGENCE.

47. The hazards of exceeding MDRAG-DIVERGENCE are:Mark all correct answers. A) Drag rise. B) Instability. C) Mach tuck. D) Uncommanded roll.

48. The component of the RAF perpendicular to the leading edge becomes less than the free stream flow speed and the effective chord lengthens, reducing the T/C ratio (effectively a thinner wing).These are 2 advantages of __________. A) sweep back. B) winglets. C) slats. D) camber change.

49. Sweepback:Mark all correct answers. A) Causes an undesirable pitch-up at the stall. B) Increases the stall speed. C) Reduces drag. D) Increases CLMAX.

50. The purpose of the __________ wing is to retain a high MCRIT despite having a thicker section, which increases the margin between MCRIT and MDRAG DIVERGENCE. A) supercritical B) critical C) symmetrical

51. __________ wings:Significantly increase the margin between MCRIT and MDRAG DIVERGENCE.Can be made much stronger than any other type of wing.Have good lift characteristics right up to the critical angle because of their round leading edges. A) Supercritical B) Thin C) Swept

52. The advantage of cruising above __________ is that the aircraft can:Achieve a faster cruise speed for not much increase in drag.Attain better specific range. Achieve the optimum cruise altitude. A) MCRIT B) MDRAG DIVERGENCE C) MFS

53. Which of the following statements about the pure supercritical wing shape are correct? Mark all correct answers. A) It can produce rapid and unpredictable movement of the separation point. B) It can have poor low-speed handling characteristics. C) It isn't a practical shape for the wing root or trailing edge. D) It produces a large nose-up pitching moment because the majority of lift occurs in the first 30% of the wing chord.

54. The purpose of vortex generators is to. A) Re-energise the boundary layer, which has lost energy to the normal shock wave. B) Prevent the normal shock wave from spreading span wise. C) Prevent normal shock waves from forming. D) Delay the onset of MCRIT.

55. Higher Mach numbers at altitude result in a higher slow-speed stall speed and a reduction in α CRIT: A) Because compressibility causes steeper upwash at the leading edge. B) Because compressibility causes a shallower upwash at the leading edge. C) Only after MCRIT has been exceeded. D) Because of the onset of shock stall at MCRIT.

56. In the cruise, an aircraft's Mach number: A) Stays the same when flying into colder or warmer air because the aircraft's TAS also changes proportionately. B) Changes when the aircraft flies from cold to warm air because the LSS varies with temperature. C) Reduces when flying into colder air because of the reduction in the LSS. D) Reduces when flying into colder air because of the increase in the LSS.

57. The overall change in pitching moment from MCRIT to MDRAG DIVERGENCE is __________. A) nose-down. B) nose-up

58. __________ __________ is a phenomenon in which a nose-down pitching moment occurs, caused by the sudden decrease in the angle of attack of the horizontal stabiliser resulting from shock-induced separation occurring near the wing roots, which reduces downwash. A) Mach tuck B) Shock stall

59. A Mach trimmer automatically adjusts the incidence of the __________ to counter the pitch changes. It is a mandatory item for any aircraft designed to fly in, or close to, the transonic range. If it is unserviceable, or fails in flight, the Mach number must be restricted to well below MCRIT. A) horizontal stabiliser. B) elevator. C) fin.

60. Aeroplanes designed for transonic or supersonic flight should have a trimmable horizontal stabiliser because: A) The elevator may become ineffective if a shock wave forms ahead of the hinge, causing the airflow to separate. B) The ailerons may need to be locked-out if shock waves form ahead of their hinges. C) Shock waves on a control surface may cause high frequency oscillation known as ‘control buzz’. D) Only a THS allows the crew to detect the onset of Mach buffet.

61. The narrow range of available operating speeds, bounded by the onset of low speed buffet at one side and the onset of high speed buffet at the other is known as the buffet margin. It __________ with altitude. A) decreases B) increases C) remains constant

62. The altitude where the aeroplane is experiencing both low speed and high speed buffet determines its __________ __________. A) aerodynamic ceiling B) MCRIT

63. The buffet margin reduces if:Mark all correct answers. A) Alpha increases. B) Pressure altitude increases. C) Load factor increases. D) Angle of bank increases. E) CG moves aft. F) Mass reduces.

64. Because the load factor increases when manoeuvring and in turbulence, a load factor of __________ g is normally used to determine the buffet onset Mach numbers when using a BOB chart.

65. The __________ is the maximum load expected in service. Exceedance may cause permanent structural distortion. A) limit load B) ultimate load

66. The __________ is the failing load of the structure. Exceedance may cause structural failure. A) ultimate load B) limit load

67. For a CS 25 aircraft the positive limit load is __________ g and the negative limit load is minus __________ g. A) 2.5; 1 B) 1; 2.5 C) 3.75; 1.5 D) 2.5; 1.5

68. For a CS 25 aircraft the ultimate load factors are __________ g and minus __________ g. A) 3.75; 1.5 B) 2.5; 1 C) 2.5; 1.5 D) 3.75; 1

69. __________ is the highest speed at which sudden, full-up elevator deflection can be made without exceeding the limit load factor. A) VA B) VC C) VD D) VB

70. __________ is the maximum permissible cruise EAS. A) VC B) VA C) VD D) VB

71. __________ is the absolute maximum EAS that the airframe can withstand without damage or structural failure. A) VD B) VA C) VC D) VB

72. Given a basic stall speed of 84 kt, and a current load factor of 2.5 g, what is the highest speed at which sudden, full-up elevator deflection can be made without exceeding the limit load factor? A) 132 kt B) 210 kt C) 23 kt D) 140 kt

73. Which of the following statements about VA are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) VA marks the speed below which there is some natural protection against overstressing the aeroplane. B) Below VA the aeroplane may stall before the structure is overstressed. C) VA considers only one control surface deflection at a time. D) Simultaneously deflecting 2 or more control surfaces at VA may cause structural damage. E) If a single value for VA is given, it will be at the aeroplane’s maximum landing mass.

74. An aeroplane has a current mass of 52 metric tonnes. Its VA is 160 kt. What is its VA after burning 3000 kg of fuel? A) 155 kt B) 164 kt C) 151 kt D) 136 kt

75. Which of the following statements are correct?Mark all correct answers. A) VC is always greater than VMO. B) MC is always greater than MMO. C) MD can only be achieved in a descent. D) VC /MC must never be greater than 0.8 VD/MD.

76. __________ is the maximum speed at which the aeroplane can be flown with the landing gear down and locked. A) VLE B) VLO C) VFE

77. VLO is often __________ than VLE. A) lower B) higher C) greater

78. VNE (Never Exceed Speed) is set at __________% of VD.

79. VRA is turbulence penetration speed. It must be less than VMO - __________ kt.

80. VNO is the normal operating cruise speed and must not be greater than the lesser of VC and __________ of the value of VNE.

81. Flaps may be protected by overload protection devices which prevent flap extension, above __________. A) VFE B) VLE C) VNO D) VD

82. You should not intentionally fly close to VNE/VMO: A) Because this increases the risk of inadvertently exceeding the limit in a slight descent or turbulence. B) Because VNE/VMO changes with decreasing aircraft mass. C) Because of the risk of a high speed stall. D) Because this speed is very close to coffin corner.

83. __________ are the sudden extra loads felt when an aeroplane flies through vertically moving turbulence. The loads are caused by vertical accelerations of the airframe resulting from rapid changes in CL. A) Gust loads B) Limit loads

84. Which of the following is/are valid factors affecting the gust load?Mark all correct answers. A) Aspect ratio. B) Wing sweep. C) Altitude. D) Wing loading. E) EAS. F) Horizontal speed of the gust.

85. The gust load factor graph plots gust load factor against EAS. VB ensures the aircraft can withstand a __________ ft/sec gust. VC ensures the aircraft can withstand a __________ ft/sec gust. A) 66; 50. B) 76; 60. C) 45; 30. D) 90; 60.

86. Which of the following statements about turbulence penetration are accurate? A) The gust loads caused by severe turbulence can cause injury and catastrophic structural failure. EAS is the key variable the crew can change when turbulence is encountered or anticipated. B) VRA is selected as the best speed to optimise controllability while providing sufficient protection from the stall and from airframe overstress. C) VRA may or may not coincide with VB, the speed at which the aeroplane has been constructed to withstand the greatest vertical gusts. D) VRA is usually the same as VA because, at this relatively slow speed, turbulence won't produce a structural overload.

87. High speed aileron reversal: A) Is caused by wing twist. B) May be overcome by locking the inboard ailerons. C) Is the result of one wing stalling before the other. D) Is less likely on CAT jet aircraft when compared with less strongly built light aircraft.

88. At high speeds, __________ may be used for lateral control rather than the inboard ailerons. Without such systems, VNE or VMO/MMO must always be set lower than the aileron reversal speed. A) spoilers B) differential speed-brake

89. Which of the following are valid techniques and methods for reducing the risk of flutter?Mark 3 correct answers. A) Increasing the stiffness of the wing. B) Moving the wing's centre of mass forward. C) Using underslung engines mounted well forward. D) Increasing the stiffness of the fuselage. E) Ensuring that the aircraft never exceeds VFl/MFl.

90. Flutter of the ailerons, elevator and rudder can be prevented by mass balancing, which moves the control surface’s CG onto or forward of the __________. A) hinge line B) CG

91. At high altitude VA may not be reached before __________ becomes limiting. A) mach number B) IAS C) VMO

92. On a wing flying in supersonic flow, the normal shock wave forms at an angle of:

93. The critical Mach number of an aeroplane is the Mach number:

94. The local speed of sound in air is proportional to the:

95. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the:

96. Regarding a normal shock wave on the upper surface of a wing, as Mach number increases towards Mach drag divergence:

97. You are the pilot flying a light aeroplane with a clockwise turning propeller. While you are distracted by having to deal with a minor equipment failure, the stall warning horn activates. Which of the following would indicate that the aircraft had entered a full stall, if you do NOT respond to the warning and try to maintain level flight using the elevator?

98. Located on the underside of a wing's leading edge, vortilons produce a vortex on the wing's :

99. If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient stick force per g, this problem can be resolved by installing:

100. Given an aeroplane in steady, straight and level flight at low speed and considering the effects of CG location and thrust, the highest value of wing lift occurs at:

101. Which is the correct statement with regards to Dutch roll?

102. Which of the following statements about tailplanes is correct? A T-tail is:

103. During a short period oscillation, the altitude:

104. If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator shows:

105. In the fly-by-wire flight envelope protection system, the protections which can be overridden are:

106. To pitch a conventional aeroplane nose up, the pilot applies back pressure on the control column. This moves the elevator relatively:

107. The aircraft yaws to the left. This might occur because:

108. You are flying a crop duster in the utility category with a VSO of 45 kts and a VS1 of 58 kts. What is the VA speed?

109. An aircraft is taking off, its VA is 260 kt. If weight decreases by 20%, the new VA will be:

110. Consider a fixed-pitch propeller aeroplane at take-off. When the aeroplane accelerates during the take-off run phase, the blade angle of attack will (1) _____ and the thrust produced by the propeller will (2) _____ .

111. An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a feathered (2) propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct?

112. Which statement about propeller icing is correct? I. Propeller icing increases blade element drag and reduces blade element lift. II. Propeller icing reduces propeller efficiency.

113. What are the propeller effects which may be experienced on take-off?

114. Determine the approximate value of lift for an aircraft climbing at an angle of 9° with a weight of 1 250 000 N, drag of 300 000 N and a thrust of 600 000 N:

115. A twin-engine propeller aircraft suffers an engine failure. Under which of the following circumstances is retention of control likely to be most difficult?

116. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect? I. VMCG may be determined using both lateral and directional control. II. During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be not more than 30 ft.