1. The 3 main components of an ILS are? A) Localiser, Glidepath, Range information. B) Localiser, Glidepath, Glideslope. C) Azimuth, Elevation, DME/P. D) VOR, Glidepath, Range information.
A) Localiser, Glidepath, Range information.
3. What are the wavebands of the ILS components? A) LOC – VHF, GP – UHF, DME – UHF B) LOC – VHF, GP – UHF, DME – VHF C) LOC – VHF, GP – VHF, DME – VHF D) LOC – UHF, GP – UHF, DME – VHF
A) LOC – VHF, GP – UHF, DME – UHF
2. The frequency range for ILS is? A) 108.00 – 111.975 MHz B) 111.975 – 117.975 MHz C) 118.00 – 111.975 MHz D) 108.00 – 117.975 MHz
A) 108.00 – 111.975 MHz
4. How is lateral position determined on an ILS LOC? A) Difference in depth of modulation, calculated from 2 overlapping left and right lobes of energy, modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz respectively. B) Difference in depth of modulation, calculated from 2 overlapping left and right lobes of energy, modulated at 150 Hz and 90 Hz respectively. C) Phase difference, calculated from 2 overlapping left and right lobes of energy, modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz respectively. D) Phase difference, calculated from 2 overlapping left and right lobes of energy, modulated at 150 Hz and 90 Hz respectively.
A) Difference in depth of modulation, calculated from 2 overlapping left and right lobes of energy, modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz respectively.
5. How is vertical position determined on an ILS GP? A) Difference in depth of modulation, calculated from 2 overlapping upper and lower lobes of energy, modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz respectively. B) Difference in depth of modulation, calculated from 2 overlapping upper and lower lobes of energy, modulated at 150 Hz and 90 Hz respectively. C) Phase difference, calculated from 2 overlapping upper and lower lobes of energy, modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz respectively. D) Phase difference, calculated from 2 overlapping upper and lower lobes of energy, modulated at 150 Hz and 90 Hz respectively.
A) Difference in depth of modulation, calculated from 2 overlapping upper and lower lobes of energy, modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz respectively.
6. What is the recommended nominal GP angle? A) 3° B) 3.2° C) 4° D) 3.5°
A) 3°
7. What is a consequence of LOC and GP lateral (side) lobes? A) False LOC and GP beams, which causes reverse sensing on the cockpit display indications. B) False LOC and GP beams, which causes excessive indications on the cockpit display indications, outside normal indications. C) Interference with the ILS cockpit display equipment, which may cause erratic indications. D) Additional LOC and GP beams, which can be used to provide alternative approaches to landing for suitably equipped aircraft.
A) False LOC and GP beams, which causes reverse sensing on the cockpit display indications.
8. What are the maximum LOC and GP deviations on an ILS cockpit indicator? A) LOC +/- 2.5° and GP +/- 0.7° B) LOC +/- 2.5° and GP +/- 1° C) LOC +/- 5° and GP +/- 2° D) LOC +/- 10° and GP +/- 2.5°
A) LOC +/- 2.5° and GP +/- 0.7°
9. A back beam from the LOC antenna can be used as what type of approach? A) Non-precision back-course approach with no glide path information. B) Precision back-course approach with no glide path information. C) Non-precision back-course approach with glide path information. D) Precision back-course approach with glide path information.
A) Non-precision back-course approach with no glide path information.
10. How could a pilot counter the effects of reverse sensing when flying a LOC BC approach? A) By using a HSI and setting the course selector at the bearing of the ILS front course. B) By using an OBI and setting the course selector at the bearing of the ILS front course . C) By using an OBI and setting the course selector at the bearing of the LOC back-course . D) By using a HSI and setting the course selector at the bearing of the LOC back-course.
A) By using a HSI and setting the course selector at the bearing of the ILS front course.
11. Referring to a 5 dot HSI, in which of the following cases may an aircraft descend on the GP? A) LOC deviation bar 2 dots left of centre and GP deviation 1 dot above centre. B) LOC deviation bar 2 dots right of centre and GP deviation bar 3 dots below centre. C) LOC deviation bar centred and GP deviation bar 3 dots above centre. D) LOC deviation bar 3 dots right of centre and GP deviation bar centred.
A) LOC deviation bar 2 dots left of centre and GP deviation 1 dot above centre.
12. An aircraft is on final approach to land on a CAT II ILS and the HSI indications are:LOC deviation bar 1.5° leftGP deviation bar 0.25° aboveWhat is the appropriate action to be taken by the flight crew? A) Immediately implement the missed approach procedure and fly a go-around. B) Correct the LOC deviation by flying left and the GP deviation by flying down. C) Correct the LOC deviation by flying left and the GP deviation by flying up. D) Correct the LOC deviation by flying right and the GP deviation by flying up.
A) Immediately implement the missed approach procedure and fly a go-around.
13. Which of the following ILS approaches will provide guidance down to and along the surface of the runway? A) CAT III B) CAT II C) CAT I D) LNAV + VNAV
A) CAT III
14. What is defined by “an area around LOC and GP antennas where operations are prohibited during ILS operations”? A) ILS critical area. B) ILS maintenance area. C) ILS prohibited area. D) ILS sensitive area.
A) ILS critical area.
15. What is the coverage of the ILS LOC protected zone, in relation to the runway extended centreline? A) +/- 10° to 25 nm and +/- 35° to 17 nm B) +/- 10° to 20 nm and +/- 35° to 15 nm C) +/- 10° to 15 nm and +/- 35° to 20 nm D) +/- 10° to 17 nm and +/- 35° to 25 nm
A) +/- 10° to 25 nm and +/- 35° to 17 nm
16. What is the plan coverage of the ILS GP protected zone, in relation to the runway extended centreline? A) +/- 8° to 10 nm B) +/- 10° to 8 nm C) +/- 10° to 17 nm D) +/- 8° to 17 nm
A) +/- 8° to 10 nm
17. Marker beacons are identified visually (cockpit lights) and audibly (Morse identification) as follows:Outer marker - __________ coloured - __________ dashes per second at __________frequency. A) Blue; 2; low B) Blue; 4; low C) Amber; continuous; medium D) White; 6; high
A) Blue; 2; low
18. Marker beacons are identified visually (cockpit lights) and audibly (Morse identification) as follows:Middle marker - __________ coloured - __________ alternating dots and dashes at __________ frequency. A) Amber; continuous; medium B) White; 6; high C) Amber; 4; medium D) Blue; 2; low
A) Amber; continuous; medium
19. Marker beacons are identified visually (cockpit lights) and audibly (Morse identification) as follows:Inner marker - __________ coloured - __________ dots per second at __________ frequency. A) White; 6; high B) Amber; continuous; medium C) Blue; 2; low D) White; 2; high
A) White; 6; high
20. What frequency band does MLS operate in? A) SHF B) MHF C) VHF D) UHF
A) SHF
21. How many different MLS frequencies are available?
200
22. What guidance is provided during an MLS approach? A) Horizontal, vertical and distance guidance during the approach and horizontal guidance during a missed approach. B) Horizontal, vertical and distance guidance during all approach and missed approach phases. C) Horizontal and vertical guidance during the approach only. D) Horizontal, vertical and distance guidance during the approach only.
A) Horizontal, vertical and distance guidance during the approach and horizontal guidance during a missed approach.
23. How is distance information obtained for MLS approaches? A) DME/P B) DME/N C) Micro DME D) MLS DME
A) DME/P
24. What equipment is required by an aircraft to fly an MLS approach? A) Multi-mode receiver in MLS mode plus standard display equipment. B) Multi-mode receiver in MLS mode plus specific MLS display equipment. C) Multi-mode receiver in GLS mode. D) VHF NAV receiver, DME interrogator plus OBI.
A) Multi-mode receiver in MLS mode plus standard display equipment.
25. How is the DME frequency selected for a MLS approach? A) It is frequency paired to the MLS SHF frequency and automatically selected by the MMR on entering the MLS frequency and/or channel number. B) Using a separate standard DME interrogator and DME frequency. C) It is frequency paired to the MLS SHF frequency, which is automatically selected by the MMR on entering the DME frequency. D) It is frequency paired to the MLS SHF frequency, which is automatically selected by the MMR on entering the DME channel number.
A) It is frequency paired to the MLS SHF frequency and automatically selected by the MMR on entering the MLS frequency and/or channel number.
26. During preparation for an MLS curved approach the DME/P is found to be inoperative. What type of approach must be flown? A) Standard ILS-type approach with a straight-in final approach segment. B) The curved approach may be flown using DME/N but using higher approach minima. C) The curved approach may be flown using DME/N but using higher approach minima at a greater range. D) There are no restrictions to the curved MLS approach, which is dependent on horizontal and vertical guidance only.
A) Standard ILS-type approach with a straight-in final approach segment.
27. An aircraft is approaching the MLS extended centre-line from the left. How will the cockpit indications present themselves? A) The horizontal guidance deviation bar will move towards the centre from the right side of the EHSI. B) The horizontal guidance deviation bar will move towards the centre from the left side of the EHSI. C) The horizontal guidance deviation bar will be in the centre of the EHSI and the aircraft indicator will move from the left towards the centre. D) The horizontal guidance deviation bar will be in the centre of the EHSI and the aircraft indicator will move from the right towards the centre.
A) The horizontal guidance deviation bar will move towards the centre from the right side of the EHSI.
28. When may an MLS curved approach be flown? A) Published approach procedure, with DME/P functional, with an authorised flight crew using an automatic flight control system. B) Published approach procedure, with DME/P functional, with an authorised flight crew. C) Published approach procedure, with DME/P functional, and using an automatic flight control system. D) Published approach procedure and using an automatic flight control system.
A) Published approach procedure, with DME/P functional, with an authorised flight crew using an automatic flight control system.
29. What is the MLS protected zone coverage, in relation to the runway extended centreline? A) +/- 40° out to 20 nm B) +/- 35° out to 17 nm C) +/- 35° out to 15 nm D) +/- 10° out to 25 nm
A) +/- 40° out to 20 nm
30. What are the main components of SSR? A) Ground-based interrogator and airborne transponder. B) Airborne interrogator and ground-based transponder. C) ATC radar system and squawk box. D) Ground-based transmitter with remote receiving antenna for capturing reply echoes from aircraft.
A) Ground-based interrogator and airborne transponder.
31. What frequencies are used by SSR? A) Different Interrogation (UHF) and Reply (UHF) frequencies. B) Same Interrogation (UHF) and Reply (UHF) frequencies. C) Different Interrogation (UHF) and Reply (VHF) frequencies. D) Same Interrogation (VHF) and Reply (VHF) frequencies.
A) Different Interrogation (UHF) and Reply (UHF) frequencies.
32. What information, additional to primary radar, is obtained by SSR Modes A and C? A) Aircraft ID and pressure altitude. B) Aircraft bearing, range, airframe 24-bit ID and pressure altitude. C) Aircraft airframe 24-bit ID and pressure altitude. D) Aircraft airframe 24-bit ID and pressure altitude.
A) Aircraft ID and pressure altitude.
33. How many Mode A addresses are available to transponders? A) 4096 B) Infinite C) 16.7 million
A) 4096
34. In which increments of altitude is a Mode C pressure altitude transmitted? A) 100 ft B) 1000 ft C) 250 ft D) 500 ft
A) 100 ft
35. A pilot is requested by an ATC controller's to “Squawk Ident”. Which action should be taken by the pilot and what result will be shown to the controller? A) The pilot should press the transponder IDENT button, which will cause the aircraft’s data block on the ATC display to illuminate briefly. B) The pilot should press the transponder IDENT button, which will cause the aircraft’s data block on the ATC display to flash on and off repeatedly for 10 seconds. C) The pilot should turn the transponder off, re-select the previously entered Mode A transponder code and turn the transponder to Standby, which will cause the aircraft’s data block on the ATC display to illuminate briefly. D) The pilot should turn the transponder off, re-select the previously entered Mode A transponder code and turn the transponder to Mode C, which will cause the aircraft’s data block on the ATC display to flash on and off repeatedly for 10 seconds.
A) The pilot should press the transponder IDENT button, which will cause the aircraft’s data block on the ATC display to illuminate briefly.
36. Which transponder mode results in interrogations being received but only aircraft identification being returned? A) Mode A B) Mode B C) Mode D D) Mode C
A) Mode A
37. Which transponder mode results in interrogations being received and aircraft identification plus altitude being returned? A) Mode C B) Mode A C) Mode B D) Mode D
A) Mode C
38. Which transponder mode setting is selected in order to provide aircraft identification and altitude information to an interrogating station? A) ALT B) TEST C) SBY D) ON
A) ALT
39. What is the meaning of the transponder special code 7600? A) Loss of communications. B) Emergency. C) Unlawful interference with the safe conduct of a flight. D) Mode S airspace.
A) Loss of communications.
40. Which of the following are not normally displayed on an ATC controllers SSR display (select all 3 that apply)? A) Estimated time of overflight at SSR station. B) Flight planned route. C) Actual time of arrival at destination. D) Pressure altitude. E) Flight level. F) Groundspeed. G) Aircraft identification.
A) Estimated time of overflight at SSR station. B) Flight planned route. C) Actual time of arrival at destination.
41. How many Mode S aircraft addresses are currently in use? A) 16.7 million B) Infinite
A) 16.7 million
42. Which of the following is not a Mode S interrogation type? A) Responsive selection. B) Aircraft addressing. C) All-call. D) Selective calling.
A) Responsive selection.
43. In what increments does Mode S carry out enhanced vertical tracking? A) 25 ft B) 100 ft C) 50 ft D) 75 ft
A) 25 ft
44. What is being indicated by a flashing reply lamp or illuminated letter “R”? A) The transponder is being interrogated by a ground station and is replying to that interrogation B) The transponder is receiving replies from a ground station it is interrogating. C) The transponder is relaying Mode S / TCAS interrogations from another aircraft to the controlling ATC facility. D) The transponder is in reply mode and can only reply to ground based interrogations and not respond to TCAS interrogations.
A) The transponder is being interrogated by a ground station and is replying to that interrogation
45. The transponder has several selectable modes including: A) TEST B) OFF C) SBY (standby) D) ON (Mode A) E) ALT (Modes A, C and S) F) Responsive
A) TEST B) OFF C) SBY (standby) D) ON (Mode A) E) ALT (Modes A, C and S)
46. The interrogator and transponder use different __________. A) frequencies B) flight levels C) pressure altitudes
A) frequencies
47. The interrogator transmits its interrogation signal as a series of __________ __________. A) pulse pairs B) flight levels C) pressure altitudes D) frequencies
A) pulse pairs
48. SSR modes of operation are determined by the time spacing between pulse pairs, and are:Mode __________ - addressing and flight data. A) S B) C C) A D) O
A) S
49. SSR modes of operation are determined by the time spacing between pulse pairs, and are:Mode __________ - altitude. A) C B) S C) A D) O
A) C
50. SSR modes of operation are determined by the time spacing between pulse pairs, and are:Mode __________ - identification. A) A B) S C) C D) O
A) A
51. Mode __________ interrogation contains either:Specific aircraft address.All- call.Selective surveillance calling (Roll-call). A) S B) C C) A D) O
52. Which of the following is not a GNSS, commercially used for aircraft navigation? A) SKYNET B) NAVSTAR C) GLONASS D) GALILEO
A) SKYNET
53. What are the primary modes of operation used in NAVSTAR/GPS? A) SPS and PPS. B) SPS, PPS and EPS. C) PPS and EPS. D) SPS, PPS, EPS and RPS.
A) SPS and PPS.
54. Which of the following contain the principle elements of a GNSS? A) Space, User and Control segments. B) Satellite, User and Ground segments. C) Space, Receiver, Ground and Control segments. D) Satellite, Receiver and Ground segments.
A) Space, User and Control segments.
55. Which of the following frequencies are used by which modes of operation? A) L1 – SPS and PPS, L2 – PPS B) L1 – PPS, L2 – SPS C) L1 – SPS, L2 – PPS D) L1 and L2 – SPS and PPS
A) L1 – SPS and PPS, L2 – PPS
56. Which of the following operating codes are used by which modes of operation? A) C/A – SPS and PPS, P – PPS only. B) C/A – PPS only, P – SPS only. C) C/A – SPS only, P – PPS only. D) C/A and P – SPS and PPS.
A) C/A – SPS and PPS, P – PPS only.
57. How is a satellite identified to a GNSS receiver? A) The satellite transmits a unique Pseudo-Random Noise (PRN) code to the receiver, containing the satellite ID and time of transmission. B) Each satellite transmits an Almanac which contains all of the approximate positions of each satellite, which is then compared to the on-board Almanac at the receiver, to check the integrity of pseudo-ranges. C) Each satellite transmits a database of all Pseudo-Random Noise (PRN) codes, which are received at the receiver, and compared to the positions of each satellite in its on-board Ephemeris. D) The receiver interrogates the satellite, which responds with its unique ID number in the form of a Pseudo-Random Noise (PRN) code.
A) The satellite transmits a unique Pseudo-Random Noise (PRN) code to the receiver, containing the satellite ID and time of transmission.
58. Which of the following are components of the Navigation Message transmitted by satellites to receivers (select all 4 that apply)? A) UTC parameters. B) Satellite clock correction parameters. C) Satellite health status. D) Ionospheric model. E) Receiver atomic clock firmware updates. F) Pseudo-Random Noise code. G) Timing and ranging signal. H) Position fix calculations.
A) UTC parameters. B) Satellite clock correction parameters. C) Satellite health status. D) Ionospheric model.
59. What is defined by a pseudo-range? A) A sphere with the satellite at the centre and the pseudo-range forming the distance from the satellite to the receiver. B) A circular line of position on the surface of the Earth with the receiver at the centre of the circle and the pseudo-range forming the distance from the satellite to the receiver. C) A sphere with the receiver at the centre and the pseudo-range forming the distance from the satellite to the receiver. D) A sphere with the satellite at the centre and the pseudo-range forming the circumference of the receiver.
A) A sphere with the satellite at the centre and the pseudo-range forming the distance from the satellite to the receiver.
60. How many satellites are required for a 3D position fix?
4
61. What information is provided in a satellite 3D position fix? A) Latitude, longitude, altitude and time. B) Latitude, longitude, altitude and satellite ID. C) Latitude, longitude, altitude and distance. D) Latitude, longitude, distance and time.
A) Latitude, longitude, altitude and time.
62. What can be calculated by the receiver by using Doppler effect or change of calculated position? A) Ground speed. B) Calibrated Airspeed. C) Heading. D) New position information data.
A) Ground speed.
63. What does the acronym RAIM stand for? A) Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring B) Receiver Application Integrity Monitoring C) Receiver Autonomous Identity Monitoring D) Receiver Altitude Information Monitoring
A) Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
64. How many satellites does a RAIM system need for basic RAIM monitoring?
5
65. What are the most significant factors negatively affecting GNSS accuracy (select all 5 that apply)? A) Multipath propagation. B) Dilution of position. C) Satellite clock error. D) Satellite orbital variations. E) Ionospheric propagation delay. F) VHF NAV equipment interference. G) Signal blocking by other aircraft. H) SBAS
A) Multipath propagation. B) Dilution of position. C) Satellite clock error. D) Satellite orbital variations. E) Ionospheric propagation delay.
66. What is the most significant factor when calculating UERE? A) Ionospheric propagation delay. B) Dilution of position. C) Satellite clock error. D) Satellite orbital variations.
A) Ionospheric propagation delay.
67. Which is the most significant difference between GBAS and SBAS? A) SBAS uses an intermediate satellite to relay correction factors to the aircraft, GBAS transmits error data directly to the aircraft. B) SBAS uses an intermediate satellite to relay correction factors to the aircraft, GBAS transmits correction factors information directly to the aircraft. C) GBAS uses an intermediate satellite to relay correction factors to the aircraft, SBAS transmits error data directly to the aircraft. D) SBAS uses an intermediate satellite to relay error data to the aircraft, GBAS transmits correction factors directly to the aircraft.
A) SBAS uses an intermediate satellite to relay correction factors to the aircraft, GBAS transmits error data directly to the aircraft.
68. Which of the following are not SBAS (select all 3 that apply)? A) EGNOG B) LAAS C) MASH D) EGNOS E) WAAS F) MSAS G) GAGAN
A) EGNOG B) LAAS C) MASH
69. Within which time period must SBAS alert users of GNSS malfunctions? A) 6 seconds B) 8 seconds C) 10 seconds D) 2 seconds
A) 6 seconds
70. What, typically, are the additional on-board sensors forming constituent parts of an AAIM system? A) Barometric altimetry and IRS. B) Barometric altimetry and VHF NAV equipment. C) VHF NAV and DME. D) VHF NAV and IRS.
A) Barometric altimetry and IRS.
71. What is the area of coverage of a GBAS protected zone, with reference to the extended centerline of any approach? A) +/- 10° to 20 nm and +/- 35° to 15 nm B) +/- 10° to 25 nm and +/- 35° to 17 nm C) +/- 8° to 20 nm and +/- 35° to 17 nm D) +/- 15° to 20 nm and +/- 40° to 20 nm
A) +/- 10° to 20 nm and +/- 35° to 15 nm
72. Each satellite transmits timing and ranging signals on 2 frequencies, L_________ and L_________. A) 1; 2 B) A; B C) Alpha; Beta
A) 1; 2
73. SPS uses the _________frequency only. A) L1 B) L2
A) L1
74. RAIM is a type of _________ using GNSS information only. A) ABAS B) GBAS C) SBAS
A) ABAS
75. One of the worldwide SBAS in use is:_________ - Western Europe and the Mediterranean. A) EGNOS B) WAAS C) MSAS D) GAGAN
A) EGNOS
76. One of the worldwide SBAS in use is:_________ - USA. A) WAAS B) EGNOS C) MSAS D) GAGAN
A) WAAS
77. One of the worldwide SBAS in use is:_________ - Japan. A) MSAS B) EGNOS C) WAAS D) GAGAN
A) MSAS
78. One of the worldwide SBAS in use is:_________ - India. A) GAGAN B) EGNOS C) WAAS D) MSAS
A) GAGAN
79. In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within how many degrees of the published approach track?
+/-5°
80. MLS installations notified for operation unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of:
±40° about the nominal course line out to a range of 20 NM.
81. An aircraft at FL300 is tracking towards a DME with a 300 kt ground speed. What range and ground speed will be indicated 1 minute before flying overhead?
< 300 kt 7 NM
82. An aircraft is flying a magnetic heading of 055°M and the fixed card RBI indicates a relative bearing of 325° to a local NDB. The QDM to the NDB is:
020°
83. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
064° with the TO flag showing.
84. Which of the following are errors associated with NDB transmitters: 1. Coastal refraction 2. Skywave refraction 3. Surface wave defraction 4. Ground wave diffraction Select the option which gives the correct statement.
1, 2
85. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
10° or more.
86. An aircraft has a Magnetic Heading of 290 and is on VOR radial R-280. Which value has to be selected on the OBS to get a TO indication and the CDI centred?
100
87. The ILS Middle Marker modulation frequency is:
1300 Hz.
88. An RMI compass card has stuck at 090 degrees. The arrow of the needle points to 225 degrees. What is the Relative Bearing of the NDB?
135 degrees
89. An aircraft at FL100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 ft above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
137 NM
90. The maximum range that an aircraft at FL80 could expect to detect a signal from a VOR at an elevation of 313 m above sea level is:
149 NM
91. A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
151 NM
92. An aircraft is flying a heading of 078°M and indicating a relative bearing of 265° to an NDB. Given magnetic variation at the aircraft is 12°W, what is the true bearing from the NDB to the aircraft?
151°
93. Your QUJ is 335° by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is 12° W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable phase signals being received at the aircraft from that VOR?
167°
94. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
190 NM
95. The minimum number of ground stations required to give range and bearing information using Direction Finding alone is:
2
96. How do you tune MLS system in your aircraft, select the following combination: 1. Approach can only be upload from FMS. 2. Select the appropriate channel number. 3. Course obtained from ATC only. 4. Select the appropriate glideslope angle for approach.
2 and 4.
97. 2 DME distances are measured and plotted on a chart. The chart indicates:
2 circles intersecting at 2 points. The distance between the points and the transmitters is the slant range.
98. Locators are: 1. High powered NDBs used for en route and airways navigation. 2. Low powered NDBs used for airfield or runway approach. 3. Beacons with a usual range of 10 to 250 NM. 4. Beacons with a usual range of 10 to 25 NM. The correct statements are:
2, 4
99. An aircraft must follow radial 042 inbound to a VOR station. In order to obtain directional information the course selector on the OBI should be set to:
222° with the TO flag displayed.
100. An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316 ° from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading: 270° At aircraft deviation:2°W At aircraft variation: 30° E At station variation: 28 ° E Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft:
254°
101. An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
287°
102. According to ICAO Annex 10 the nominal glide path is:
3 degrees
103. What would be the approximate range of an NDB transmission over land when the transmitting power is 250 watts?
30 NM
104. The ILS Glide Path transmitter is on the side of the runway:
300 m beyond threshold.
105. According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
35° from the localiser centreline to a range of 17 NM and 10° from the localiser centreline to a range of 25 NM.
106. The UHF band is assigned to the: 1. Locator 2. Localiser 3. Outer Marker 4. Glide path Select the option which gives the correct statement.
107. At what distance from the end of the runway are you likely to find the outer marker?
4 - 7 NM
108. What would be the approximate range over the sea of an NDB transmitting at 250 watts?
50 NM
109. What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
800 m
110. Given: ILS GP angle 3.5 deg GS 150 kt What is the approximate rate of descent?
900 ft/min
111. The magnetic variation to convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings will occur at the:
aircraft position for NDBs and at the beacon position for VORs.
112. ILS localiser and glidepath signals are transmitted on VHF and UHF frequencies with 90 Hz and 150 Hz modulations imposed on different lobes of transmission. The form of modulation used is:
Amplitude Modulation for both localiser and glidepath.
113. The integrity of a VOR system is improved by using:
An automatic ground monitoring system.
114. 108.35 MHz can only be:
An ILS frequency.
115. If during an ILS approach the pilot deviates by more than half scale deflection on the localizer:
An immediate missed approach should be executed because obstacle clearance may no longer be guaranteed.
116. ADF is the abbreviation for:
Automatic Direction Finder.
117. On which bearing do errors caused by the shoreline/coastal effect reach their maximum?
Bearings 000-030 degrees to the coastline.
118. An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the Magnetic Heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
Behind.
119. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
blue - amber – white
120. Which of the following is the correct class and accuracy for a VDF direction finder?
Class A: ±2°
121. Mountain effect, occurring for instance with NDBs, is caused by which physical phenomenon, increasing the propagation of the signal?
Diffraction.
122. An ILS warning flag will appear on either the localiser or the glideslope display when:
Either the 90 Hz or the 150 Hz signal is lost by one of the aircraft receivers.
123. Regarding the monitoring system of the VOR - which statement is correct?
Failure of the VOR station to stay within required limits can cause removal of identification and the navigation components from the carrier wave to cease.
124. What is the minimum level (ISA conditions) that an aircraft at a range of 111 NM must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 ft above MSL?
FL60
125. The shoreline/coastal effect is caused by diffraction of the radio waves. What is one factor influencing the error of the bearing?
flight altitude.
126. Which statement about VHF/UHF propagation in connection with Ground Direction Finders is correct?
For both VHF/UHF propagation, the space wave is the only propagation path of practical use. There is no sky wave under normal conditions.
127. There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland.
128. What is the reason a DME interrogator makes use of an irregular pulse pair transmission sequence?
In this way a DME transponder is able to distinguish its own reply pulse pairs from the reply pulse pairs of other aircraft, which it ignores.
129. In the DME tracking mode:
Interrogator transmits a relatively low number of pulse pairs per second.
130. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
Local thunderstorm activity.
131. Which of the following components of the ILS are protected from interference by the FM-Immunity filters in NAV equipment?
Localiser only.
132. In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver:
Measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the variable phase of the signal.
133. The ILS receiver of an aircraft on approach and flying on the right of the exact runway centreline will receive:
More of the 150 Hz localiser signal than the 90 Hz localiser signal.
134. An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of Magnetic Variation is:
NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position.
135. NDB is the abbreviation for:
Non Directional Beacon.
136. A TACAN has a frequency of 109.0 MHz. Assuming the TACAN is serviceable, the aircraft is within range and the transmission has been correctly timed, identified, and verified, what is the information available by setting 109.0 MHz in the VHF NAV/COM transceiver?
Nothing as TACAN responds to DME interrogations only.
137. Concerning the glidepath principle of operation in an ILS system, the needle of the indicator is centred when the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is:
null.
138. DVOR is less sensitive to site errors than CVOR because?
Of its relatively large antenna.
139. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
phase comparison
140. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
QDR
141. The ADF indication in the cockpit is a
relative bearing on a fixed card indicator
142. You are making an approach to Daytona Beach Runway 25 along the published back-course approach. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to localiser indications on an Omni-Bearing Indicator (OBI) and a Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)?
Reverse sensing will always occur on the OBI regardless of course set; the HSI will indicate correctly with the front course set.
143. By what term is Mode S Selective Surveillance Call more commonly known?
Roll Call.
144. A pilot is tracking inbound to a VOR on a designated radial using the HSI. The VOR groundstation has terrain and man-made obstructions in the vicinity. The pilot notices that the CDI is fluctuating slightly left and right. The pilot is accurately tracking inbound to the station and there is no apparent wind effect. What is the term used to described these fluctuations?
Scalloping.
145. When a DME arc is used to guide an aircraft to join a holding procedure which entries are permitted?
Sector 1 and 3
146. Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility.
147. Which aircraft are primarily answered by the DME ground transponder?
The 100 aircraft with the strongest signals.
148. A VOR and an NDB are located in the same position. Both the VOR and the ADF readings are displayed on the RMI. The aircraft is tracking away from the beacons along the 090 radial. The Magnetic Variation is changing rapidly. Which of the following is correct?
The bearing of the ADF pointer will change, the bearing of the VOR pointer will not change.
149. What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
The difference in depth between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation.
150. Which of the following affects VDF range?
The height of the transmitter and of the receiver.
151. Unless otherwise specified a radial is
the magnetic great circle direction from the beacon.
152. Which statement is correct for homing towards an NDB in an area with constant wind and constant Magnetic Variation?
The Relative Bearing of the NDB should be kept at 000°.
153. With a Doppler VOR system and frequency decreasing:
The transmitter is stationary and the aircraft is moving away from the ground station.
154. Regarding conventional VORs, which statement is correct?
The variable signal antenna rotates at 30 times per second whilst the reference signal is produced from a fixed antenna.
155. What is the largest source of error with NDB/ADF systems?
Thunderstorm activity.
156. An aircraft in the vicinity of a Ground Direction Finding station may expect to receive:
True bearing from the station, magnetic bearing from the station, true heading to the station (not wind corrected) and magnetic bearing to the station (not wind corrected).
157. in which frequency band does an ILS GP transmit?
UHF
158. DME operates in the:
UHF band and is a Secondary Radar system.
159. An aircraft's RMI is indicating a heading of 290°M, and a position on the R-080 radial from VOR 1, and on the R-150 radial from VOR 2. If the aircraft made a turn of 30° to the left, which of the following statements would be true?
VOR 1 would be on a relative bearing of 000° and VOR 2 would be on a relative bearing of 070°
160. Which of the following statements is true?
With an A2A modulated wave you can hear the wave in ADF mode.
161. While flying an ILS approach you notice that the localiser needle is at half scale deflection. Can the approach be continued?
Yes, as long as the glide-slope is within half scale deflection.
162. According to the principle of operation in an ILS, the glide path indicator needle is centred when the Difference in Depth of Modulation (DDM) is:
Zero
163. Which of the items listed below are additional aircraft parameters that are downlinked from Mode S Enhanced Surveillance (EHS) transponders? 1. Groundspeed 2. Magnetic heading 3. Equivalent airspeed 4. True heading 5. Vertical rate.
1, 2, and 5.
164. A Mode C-transponder is able to report the pressure altitude in:
100 ft increments.
165. Which of the items listed below are additional aircraft parameters that are downlinked from Mode S Enhanced Surveillance (EHS) transponders? 1. Pitch angle 2. Vertical rate 3. Track angle rate or true airspeed 4. True track angle
2 and 4 only.
166. Mode S transponders can provide vertical tracking by using a _____ altitude increment.
25 ft
167. What is the accuracy of Mode S altitude reporting?
168. Which of the following special codes indicates a loss of two-way radio communications?
7600
169. What is shown on the ATC RADAR screen when the pilot pushes the Special Position Identification (SPI) button on the transponder?
A flashing indication of the aircraft which is "squawking ident".
170. With thunderstorms reported in the vicinity, when lining up on the runway what would you do with the weather radar?
After scanning upwards to look for weather, set the tilt a few degrees up.
171. Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
172. The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
an emergency
173. In order to provide an Air Traffic Services (ATS) surveillance service, what minimum information must be provided to the controller on the surveillance system display? Indication of position and also:
Any map information needed to provide the surveillance service, and (when available) the aircraft identification and level.
174. When an airborne weather radar system is fitted with an autotilt function the radar antenna tilt is automatically adjusted:
Based on the altitude of the aircraft.
175. Which of the following phenomena is least likely to be detected by radar?
Clear air turbulence.
176. In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually indicated on the screen by:
colour zones of red and magenta
177. Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
Detect the larger water droplets.
178. What does the AIRAC path-terminator DF refer to?
Direct to a Fix.
179. Flying at FL330, ahead of you there is a thunderstorm and you want to climb to FL380 to avoid bad weather. What is correct regarding the tilt of the AWR?
During a climb, the tilt needs to be decreased to scan for hazardous clouds.
180. Multipath interference in ground-based radar systems is the result of:
echoes from targets caused, for example, by ground reflection.
181. Which of the following weather returns displayed on an Airborne Weather Radar should be avoided?
Fingers, Hooks, Scallops.
182. Why should the tilt of an Airborne Weather Radar system (without auto tilt) be changed to a higher setting when descending over terrain?
If the beam’s tilt remains at the setting used during cruise, the scanning range will be reduced and significant ground clutter may be displayed.
183. The quadrantal error of an ADF:
Is compounded by an electro-magnetic force induced in the receiver aerial by the signal re-radiating from the aircrafts metallic surfaces, causing multi-path signals.
184. What is an advantage of an SSR with a selective addressing mode over primary radar?
It allows for unambiguous aircraft identification.
185. As a flight progresses you observe that what you saw as one return on your AWR screen has now turned into two separate echoes.
It is normal since with decreasing range the beam width azimuth will also decrease.
186. FM broadcast stations transmitting just below 108 MHz are:
Likely to cause interference to ILS receiver not equipped with an immunity filter.
187. In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
minimum measurable range
188. Which of the following SSR modes provides altitude information to +/-25 ft of accuracy?
Mode S
189. Airborne weather radar systems should be used with extreme caution when on the ground because:
People could be exposed to super high frequency radiation which if absorbed in large enough amounts, can lead to tissue damage.
190. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
Pressure altitude based on 1013.25 hPa.
191. During ILS Category II and III operations, the pre take-off runway holding point is different to the holding point used in Category I operations in order to:
Prevent unacceptable interference of the ILS signal due to aircraft coming too near to the runway.
192. Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
Primary radar in the SHF band.
193. Which data can be determined and displayed by ATC Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) and Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) systems?
PSR: Target range and bearing. SSR: Target range and bearing, aircraft identification codes, aircraft altitude, selective addressing, and full two-way data link.
194. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
pulse repetition frequency.
195. The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
radio communication failure
196. Which of the following modes, which are selectable on the mode control panel, represent a parameter that is downlinked from a Mode S enhanced surveillance (EHS) transponder?
Selected altitude.
197. How does the Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) detect windshear?
The Doppler shift of detectable precipitation is measured.
198. Airborne Weather Radar has been primarily developed to detect
the kinds of precipitation which are usually accompanied by turbulence.
199. Which of the following statements is correct about SSR?
The selector must be set to “ALT” to transmit Mode A, C and S.
200. To improve the detection of precipitation area(s) in e.g. thunderstorms, in which the top of the cloud lies at or slightly above the level of flight:
The tilt setting should be lower when the aircraft climbs to a higher altitude.
201. Which statement relating to the stabilisation of airborne weather radar antennas is true?
They are stabilised with respect to the pitch and rollaxis but not with respect to the yaw-axis.
202. Regarding Airborne Weather Radar, which of the following statements is correct?
Thunderstorms may not be visible behind other heavy showers.
203. When using the AWR in the climb how should the scanner tilt be set?
Tilt down.
204. On the control panel for an airborne weather radar, there is a setting called "MAP", what is the function of this setting?
To change the shape and orientation of the transmission beam down toward the ground.
205. Ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver that operate in the following frequencies:
transmits on 1030 MHz and receives on 1090 MHz.
206. On a multicolour AWR, what is indicated by areas coloured magenta?
Turbulence intensity.
207. What does the special Mode A code 7500 refer to?
Unlawful conduct with the safe conduct of a flight.
208. The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
209. Which of the following additional aircraft parameters can be downloaded by the Mode S transponder?
Vertical rate, True Track angle and IAS.
210. What is the maximum deviation for the Localiser deviation bar on a standard CDI?
+/-2.5°
211. What is the minimum coverage area of the final approach path (FAP) for a ground-based augmentation system (GBAS) augmented approach?
10° either side of the FAP to a distance between 15 and 20 NM, and 35° either side of the FAP up to a distance of 15 NM.
212. Minimum Ground-Based Augmentation System (GBAS) plan coverage is:
15 NM from the landing threshold out to 35° either side of the final approach path and 10° between 15 and 20 NM.
213. An SBAS (Satellite Based Augmentation System) consists of:
2 elements
214. What clocks are used in a Galileo satellite timing section?
2 types of clocks are use; a Rubidium Frequency Standard clock and a more accurate Passive Hydrogen Maser clock.
215. The typical coverage of a Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) station is approximately:
30 km
216. A RAIM system has excluded a satellite. How many satellites are required to maintain a 3D Position fix with RAIM capability?
217. What is the maximum time to alert (TTA) if the signal is lost when using SBAS augmentation during RNP APCH procedures?
6 seconds
218. In order to maintain integrity and safety standards, within how long of a GPS malfunction occurring must an alert be sent to GPS users?
6 seconds.
219. In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ' All in View' is a term used when a receiver:
A receiver is tracking all currently visible satellites above the receiver's mask angle and uses those with the best geometric coverage to compute its position.
220. Frequency band of the SBAS data link is:
A signal with the same frequency as GPS.
221. The term AAIM (Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) refers to:
A system using information from additional on-board sensors to monitor the integrity of a GPS derived position.
222. The term ABAS signifies:
Airborne Based Augmentation Systems
223. Which statement is correct about GLONASS/NAVSTAR GPS/GALILEO?
All 3 systems use time measurement to determine position.
224. What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
Atomic
225. The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
Control, Space and User segments.
226. SBAS systems improve the navigational accuracy of GPS by:
Correcting ranging errors.
227. GBAS ground subsystems provide two services, the precision approach service and the GBAS positioning service. The precision approach service provides:
Deviation guidance for Final Approach Segments.
228. Which statement about EGNOS is correct?
EGNOS comprises an additional 3 geostationary satellites which broadcast GPS look- alike signals in order to improve accuracy.
229. Select the correct grouping that reflects the Satellite Based Augmentation Systems (SBAS) currently in use.
EGNOS, WAAS, GAGAN, MSAS.
230. The VDB (VHF data broadcast) broadcasts the GBAS signal within its coverage area to avionics in GBAS-equipped aircraft. The VDB signal provided are:
Error correction data, integrity data and approach data for more than one runway.
231. When considering a GPS navigation system, which of the following is true?
For precise position fixing, information about the satellite clock error is very important.
232. What is the time transmitted by the NAVSTAR GPS?
GPS
233. The term GBAS signifies:
Ground Based Augmentation Systems.
234. How is error information transmitted to an aircraft on a GBAS precision approach?
Ground to aircraft.
235. Which statement is correct about the SBAS (Satellite-Based Augmentation Systems)?
In an SBAS the pseudo range corrections are sent to the users by geostationary satellites.
236. Which of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver, receiving L1 & L2 transmissions?
Ionospheric
237. Assume that one of the GPS/NAVSTAR satellites used by the receiver is faulty and that the PDOP has relatively low value when receiving signals from GPS satellites (including faulty). When signals from 6 satellites are received, the RAIM software in the receiver:
Is able to detect the 1 satellite that is faulty and identify which one.
238. The GPS database:
Is sent to satellites from the control segment.
239. For a satellite to be visible to a GPS receiver:
It needs a higher elevation than 5° above the horizon.
240. What is the acronym given to an Aircraft Based Augmentation System (ABAS) whereby a receiver processor determines the integrity of the navigation signals?
RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring).
241. Which of the following correctly describe the principle of receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM)?
RAIM requires at least 5 satellites, identifies inconsistent pseudo-ranges and alerts the crew.
242. Which of the following are used in the oceanic/remote phase of flight?
RNAV 10 and RNP 4
243. EGNOS (European Geostationary Navigation Overlay Service) is a:
Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS).
244. The term SBAS signifies:
Satellite Based Augmentation Systems.
245. Corrections in the Navigation message are used to correct:
Satellite time to UTC
246. Which statement is true regarding GLONASS?
Satellites orbit at a lower height than NAVSTAR/GPS satellites.
247. The system capable of measuring on the ground, the signal errors transmitted by GNSS satellites and transmitting differential corrections and integrity messages via geostationary Communications satellite is:
SBAS
248. What are the advantages of SBAS over GBAS?
SBAS covers a wider area.
249. Range is calculated by a GPS receiver as a:
Sphere with the satellite at its centre.
250. A GPS satellite is marked unhealthy by:
The GPS control segment.
251. When a GPS receiver is using altitude as an augmentation to RAIM:
The number of satellites to perform RAIM function can be reduced by 1.
252. Errors in GPS satellite orbits are due to:
The solar wind and gravitation of sun, moon and planets.
253. For what reason is a mask angle set-up in a GPS-receiver?
To deny the receiver the use of GPS-satellites with an elevation less than the mask angle.
254. The frequency band used by SBAS satellites for the transmission of correction factors to receivers is:
255. GPS time can be converted to UTC by application of the:
UTC parameters sent in the navigation message.
256. The Frequency band of the GBAS data link is:
VHF band of ILS and VOR systems.
257. What geodetic reference system is used for navigation in NAVSTAR/GPS?
WGS-84
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