1. Which of the following is a self-contained navigation system? A) IRS/INS B) VOR C) GNSS D) DME
A) IRS/INS
2. What is the validity of the Navigation Database, under the normal AIRAC cycle? A) 28 Days B) 56 days C) 30 days D) 1 calendar month
A) 28 Days
3. What is the usual order of priority for navigation equipment in the RNAV hierarchy? A) GNSS, IRS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, VOR/VOR B) GNSS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, VOR/VOR, IRS C) IRS, GNSS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, VOR/VOR D) DME/DME, VOR/DME, VOR/VOR, IRS, GNSS
A) GNSS, IRS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, VOR/VOR
4. Which of the following best describes Area Navigation? A) Area Navigation is defined as a means of navigation along any path, using station referenced navigation signals or a self-contained navigation system. B) Area Navigation is defined as a means of navigation along any path, using station referenced navigation signals. C) Area Navigation is defined as a means of navigation by the most direct route, using station referenced navigation signals or a self-contained navigation system. D) Area Navigation is defined as a means of navigation along any chosen path, using GNSS wherever possible.
A) Area Navigation is defined as a means of navigation along any path, using station referenced navigation signals or a self-contained navigation system.
5. Which of the following is not one of the principal benefits of Area Navigation? A) Allows direct straight-line paths between departure and destination airports in all cases. B) Instrument approaches at airports, which have no landing aids. C) Pre-programmed arrival and departure paths to expedite traffic flow. D) Shorter routes.
A) Allows direct straight-line paths between departure and destination airports in all cases.
6. In terms of ‘X’, what is meant by RNAV ‘X’ and RNP ‘X’? A) The lateral system accuracy requirement where ‘X’ indicates required LNAV accuracy in nautical miles, for 95% of the flight time, with an added requirement for RNP to have an alerting and monitoring function. B) The lateral system accuracy requirement where ‘X’ indicates required VNAV accuracy in nautical miles, for 95% of the flight time, with an added requirement for RNP to have an alerting and monitoring function. C) The lateral system accuracy requirement where ‘X’ indicates required LNAV accuracy in nautical miles, for 95% of the flight time, with an added requirement for RNAV to have an alerting and monitoring function. D) The lateral system accuracy requirement where ‘X’ indicates required LNAV accuracy in nautical miles, for 90% of the flight time, with an added requirement for RNP to have an alerting and monitoring function.
A) The lateral system accuracy requirement where ‘X’ indicates required LNAV accuracy in nautical miles, for 95% of the flight time, with an added requirement for RNP to have an alerting and monitoring function.
7. What is meant by RNAV 5? A) The defined required accuracy of the navigation system, whereby the aircraft’s actual position must be within 5 nm laterally and horizontally of its stated position, for 95% of the total flight time within RNAV 5 airspace. B) The preferred accuracy of the navigation system, whereby the aircraft’s actual position must be within 5 nm laterally and horizontally of its stated position, for 90% of the total flight time within RNAV 5 airspace. C) The defined required accuracy of the navigation system, whereby the aircraft’s actual position must be within 5 nm laterally and horizontally of its stated position, for 100% of the total flight time within RNAV 5 airspace. D) The containment limit of the aircraft is no more than 5 nm and the aircraft must be within 5 nm of its stated position throughout its flight time.
A) The defined required accuracy of the navigation system, whereby the aircraft’s actual position must be within 5 nm laterally and horizontally of its stated position, for 95% of the total flight time within RNAV 5 airspace.
8. RNAV/RNP system performance requirements are defined in terms of which of the following? A) Accuracy, Integrity and Continuity. B) Precision, Accuracy and Reliability. C) Integrity, Consistency and Reliability. D) Accuracy, Cooperation and Reliability.
A) Accuracy, Integrity and Continuity.
9. Which of the following best defines accuracy? A) The conformance of the true position and the required position. B) The accuracy of the aircraft in relation to its time and position at any given waypoint. C) The capability of the system to perform accurately without interruption. D) A measure of the accuracy of the system.
A) The conformance of the true position and the required position.
10. Which of the following best defines integrity? A) The measure of the trust that can be placed in the system. B) The capability of the system to provide accurate information continuously. C) The belief in the aircraft navigation system, in relation to its time and position at all given waypoints. D) The functional ability of the system to perform its function without interruption.
A) The measure of the trust that can be placed in the system.
11. Which of the following best defines continuity? A) The capability of the system to perform its function without interruption. B) The capability of the aircraft to always arrive at the correct time and position at any given waypoint. C) The permanent conformance of the true position and the required position. D) A measure of the permanent accuracy of the system.
A) The capability of the system to perform its function without interruption.
12. Which of the following groups the components of PBN? A) Navaid infrastructure, navigation specification, navigation application. B) Navaid specification, navigation application, navigation equipment. C) Navigation specification, navigation application, navigation equipment. D) Navaid infrastructure, navigation technical information, navigation application.
A) Navaid infrastructure, navigation specification, navigation application.
13. PBN guidance may be either: A) Linear or angular. B) Angular or Lateral. C) Linear or lateral. D) Horizontal or lateral.
A) Linear or angular.
14. Which statement is correct, regarding PBN? A) PBN is not sensor specific, unlike conventional navigation. B) PBN is not sensor specific, like conventional navigation. C) PBN is navaid specific, like conventional navigation. D) PBN is sensor specific, unlike conventional navigation.
A) PBN is not sensor specific, unlike conventional navigation.
15. Which of the following navigation specification is used in all phases of flight, except oceanic / remote regions and final approach? A) RNP 0.3 B) RNAV 0.5 C) RNAV 1 D) RNP 1
A) RNP 0.3
16. Which of the following is not a navigation specification? A) RNP 1.3 B) RNP 1 C) RNAV 10 D) RNP 0.3
A) RNP 1.3
17. How can the RNAV 10 time limit be updated? A) By updating the position on the LRNS in use. B) By resetting the aircraft clocks to the correct UTC parameters. C) By cross-checking and updating the position in the FMC using DME/DME. D) By aligning the aircraft clocks to GNSS time.
A) By updating the position on the LRNS in use.
18. In which of the following navigation specifications may manual data entry be permitted in certain circumstances? A) RNAV 5 B) RNP 1 C) PRNAV D) RNAV 1
A) RNAV 5
19. What sets standards for the coding of flight procedures? A) ARINC 424 B) The PBN Manual C) ICAO Doc 8168 D) ICAO Annex 10
A) ARINC 424
20. What is the definition of a Radius to Fix flight path? A) Path defined by radius and arc length, centred on a fix. B) Path to a position fix, based on a fixed radius from a point. C) Path along an arc at a fixed radius, commencing at a position fix. D) Path between 2 VOR radials, along an arc, at a fixed radius from one of the VORs.
A) Path defined by radius and arc length, centred on a fix.
21. What determines the arc radius of the Fixed Radius Transition? A) Altitude. B) Speed. C) Performance capability. D) Navaid.
A) Altitude.
22. What are the arc radii of the Fixed Radius Transition? A) 15 nm and 22.5 nm B) 15.5 nm and 22 nm C) 15 nm and 22 nm D) 15.5 nm and 22.5 nm
A) 15 nm and 22.5 nm
23. What are the components of Total System Error? A) PDE, NSE, FTE B) PDA, NSE, FET C) PEM, ETE, FTA D) MPE, NSE, FET
A) PDE, NSE, FTE
24. Which of the components of Total System Error is considered negligible and not factored into the mathematical solution for TSE? A) Path Definition Error. B) Navigation Systems Error. C) Flight Technical Error. D) Minimal Position Error.
A) Path Definition Error.
25. How is Estimated Position Error (EPE) defined? A) Comparison by system of probable amount of current error against margin of error allowable; variable by sensor used. B) Comparison by system of probable amount of current error against margin of error allowable; variable by statistical analysis of all available sensors. C) Comparison by system of actual amount of current error against margin of potential error allowable; variable by statistical analysis of all available sensors. D) Comparison by flight crew of probable amount of current error against margin of error allowable; variable by sensor used.
A) Comparison by system of probable amount of current error against margin of error allowable; variable by sensor used.
26. Fly-By Turn - __________ the waypoint to intercept new track without delay. A) turn before B) overfly C) turn after
A) turn before
27. Fly Over - __________ the waypoint before turning onto the new course. A) overfly B) turn before C) turn after
A) overfly
28. "Managed by gross reasonableness checks of navigation data during procedure design, and usually negligible" is a description of what navigation accuracy? A) Path Definition Error B) Flight Technical Error C) Navigation Systems Error
A) Path Definition Error
29. "Error following prescribed path, by pilot or autopilot" is a description of what navigation accuracy? A) Flight Technical Error B) Path Definition Error C) Navigation Systems Error
A) Flight Technical Error
30. "Accuracy of navigation system" is a description of what navigation accuracy?. A) Navigation Systems Error B) Path Definition Error C) Flight Technical Error
A) Navigation Systems Error
31. What are permitted by the use of offset flight paths? A) They allow the crew to fly a parallel route, entered into the RNAV computer, at a fixed distance from defined route. B) They allow the crew to fly any route, entered into the RNAV computer off the defined route, at a fixed distance from a navaid. C) They allow the RNAV computer to automatically select any route, off the defined route, at a fixed distance from a navaid. D) They allow the crew to fly a route, offset from a defined airway between two VORs, at a fixed distance from airway.
A) They allow the crew to fly a parallel route, entered into the RNAV computer, at a fixed distance from defined route.
32. What is the correct acronym for an approach procedure based on area navigation? A) RNP APCH B) RNAV APP C) ANAV APCH D) RNAV APPCH
A) RNP APCH
33. Which of the following statements is correct? A) RNP APCH procedures must be retrievable by name from the navigation database and conform to the published chart. B) RNP APCH procedures must be retrievable by name from the navigation database and conform to the published chart, which does not have to be carried if a moving map display is available in the pilot’s primary field of view. C) RNP APCH procedures can only be flown by commercial pilots holding a current, valid instrument rating for a multi-pilot aircraft. D) RNP APCH procedures must be stored in the current navigation database and index by airport name, runway and approach type.
A) RNP APCH procedures must be retrievable by name from the navigation database and conform to the published chart.
34. Which of the following is not an RNAV approach? A) L/VNAV B) LNAV C) LPV D) LNAV/VNAV
A) L/VNAV
35. Which of the following is a 2D RNAV non-precision approach? A) RNP APCH - LNAV B) RNP APCH - LNAV/VNAV C) RNP APCH - LPV D) RNP AR APCH – LNAV/VNAV
A) RNP APCH - LNAV
36. Which of the following is a 3D RNAV precision approach? A) RNP APCH - LPV B) RNP APCH – LNAV C) RNP APCH - VNAV D) RNP APCH – LNAV/VNAV
A) RNP APCH - LPV
37. What forms of vertical guidance are permissible for a RNP APCH LPV? A) SBAS B) Geometrically adjusted barometric C) Barometric D) Barometric or SBAS
A) SBAS
38. What form of lateral guidance is permissible for a 3D LNAV/VNAV non-precision approach? A) GNSS B) ILS C) DME/DME D) VOR/DME
A) GNSS
39. What components are required for a 3D LPV precision approach? A) FAS data block and SBAS. B) FAS data block and RAIM. C) FAS data chip and GBAS augmented vertical guidance. D) FAS data block and geostationary GNSS (overhead airport).
A) FAS data block and SBAS.
40. What does the AR acronym of RNP AR APCH denote? A) Special Authorisation Required. B) Approach Restricted (to certain licence holders). C) Authorisation Restricted. D) Approach Regulated.
A) Special Authorisation Required.
41. Which navigation specifications are included in Advanced RNP (A-RNP)? A) RNAV 5, RNAV/RNP 2, RNAV/RNP 1 and RNP APCH B) RNAV 2, RNAV/RNP 1 and RNP 0.3 C) RNAV 2, RNAV/RNP 1 and RNP 0.3 D) RNAV 10, RNAV/RNP 4, RNAV/RNP 1 and RNP APCH
A) RNAV 5, RNAV/RNP 2, RNAV/RNP 1 and RNP APCH
42. RNP __________ requires special authorisation. A) AR APCH B) RNAV 5 C) RNAV 2 D) RNAV/RNP 1
A) AR APCH
43. Advanced RNP incorporates RNAV __________ , RNAV/RNP 2, RNAV/RNP 1 and RNP APCH.
5
44. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
+/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time.
45. What is the required tracking accuracy for en-route NDB tracking?
+/-5°
46. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
± 1.0 NM for 95% of the flight time.
47. Which of the following are significant factors affecting the accuracy of a GNSS position fix? 1. ionospheric propagation delay 2. dilution of precision 3. satellite clock error 4. lunar orbital variations 5. UTC to standard time variations 6. atomic time fluctuations
1, 2 and 3
48. What is the maximum permissible mean course line shift for a CAT III ILS localiser?
10 ft.
49. The minimum equipment requirement for RNP 4 operation is:
2 LRNS, both of which must be GNSS
50. What approximate range is shown on a DME instrument when flying at FL135 in ISA conditions, overhead a ground station 1500 ft amsl.
2 nm
51. The navigation database in a PBN approved receiver is usually valid for?
28 days.
52. When preparing your aircraft to commence a descent the ATS unit requests you to arrive at a level overhead the waypoint at a specified time. Which RNAV system would be required for this?
4D RNAV
53. What is correct about fly-by and fly-over waypoints and turns?
A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint that requires turn anticipation to allow tangential interception of the next segment of a route or procedure.
54. RNAV or RNP system performance requirements are defined in terms of:
Accuracy, integrity, continuity.
55. Which of the following is true with regard to RNP/RNAV navigation specifications?
Aircraft approved to more stringent accuracy requirements may not necessarily meet some of the functional requirements of a navigation specification with a less stringent accuracy requirement.
56. On modern passenger aircraft, the navigation data base usually contains:
Airport reference data.
57. Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when it is possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
At any time before take-off and throughout the flight.
58. Concerning an RNP AR APCH, what does AR stand for?
Authorisation Required
59. In the approach phases of flight PBN accommodates:
Both linear and angular laterally guided operations.
60. PBN Path terminator CA means:
Course to Altitude
61. PBN path terminator DF means:
Direct to a Fix
62. Which of the following data sets provides precise positioning information of an individual satellite within the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation?
Ephemeris.
63. Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
ETO.
64. PBN path terminator FA means:
Fix to Altitude
65. An error in PBN operations relating to the execution of a flight along a defined path is a:
Flight Technical Error (FTE)
66. Which of the following terms refers to a fixed radius path for en-route sections using Performance Based Navigation (PBN)?
FRT leg type
67. 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
Horizontal and vertical profile guidance.
68. RNP AR APCH is used:
In the approach phase of flight.
69. RNAV 10 and RNP 4 are used:
In the oceanic and remote phase of flight.
70. Which statement is true regarding an offset flight path?
It allows the crew to specify a lateral offset from a defined route.
71. What is true about Performance Based Navigation (PBN)?
It is not sensor specific.
72. Which statement with respect to the transponder interrogation modes A, C and S is correct?
Mode S All-Call wlll transmit lnformallon to all mode S transponders.
73. An error during PBN operations in determining actual aircraft coordinates is a:
Navigation System Error (NSE)
74. An error during PBN operations arising from the RNAV system and its inability to accurately specify the desired path is a:
Path Definition Error (PDE)
75. The Total System Error assumed in PBN operations encompasses:
Path Definition Error (PDE), Flight Technical Error (FTE), Navigation System Error (NSE)
76. With reference to Performance Based Navigation (PBN) what is the name of a curved terminal or approach section defined by radius, arc length and fix?
Radius to fix.
77. Which RNP can be used in all phases of flight except for en-route oceanic/remote and final approach phases and is intended primarily for helicopters?
RNP 0.3
78. Which of the following navigation specifications requires 2 x Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS), one of which may be IRS?
RNP 10
79. Concerning FMC databases:
the navigation database may be customised for the specific airline operations.
80. PBN path terminator 'TF' means:
Track to Fix
81. Which of the following navigation aids will provide an RNAV system with position?
VOR/DME
82. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
Within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained navigation system, or a combination of these.
83. Can operators with aircraft equipped with a single IRS or INS extend their RNAV 10 capability time?
Yes, they can extend their time by updating
Zuletzt geändertvor 7 Tagen