The patient can’t move his right eye down and out. What is the neurological deficit?
a) Paresis of nervus opticus dex.
b) Paresis of n. trigeminus dex.
c) Paresis of nervus oculomotorius sin
d) Paresis of nervus trochlearis sin
e) None of the above
The patient has double vision when he look out and right. What is the neurological deficit?
a) Paresis of n. abducens sin
b) Paresis of nervus facialis dex
c) Paresis of nervus glossopharyngeus dex
d) Paresis of nervus opticus sin
During examination, we determine that the patient has ptosis and larger pupil on the left eye and also can’t move the eye medially. What is the neurological deficit?
b) Paresis of n. vagus sin
c) Paresis of n. lacrimalis dex
d) Paresis of n. oculomotorius sin
e) None
The corneal reflex is missing when there is:
a) paresis of n. trigeminus
b) paresis of n. facialis
c) paresis of n. trigeminus and nervus facialis
d) Paresis of n. mandibularis
e) none
Left- sided homonymous hemianopsia is determined when there is
a) paresis of n. opticus dex
b) paresis of nervus opticus sin
c) Lesion of chiasma opticum
d) Lesion of radiation optica dex
When we determine bitemporal hemianopsia, where is the place of the lesion ?
a) paresis of n. opticus sin
b) paresis of n. opticus dex
c) lesion of the optic cortex
d) lesion of chiasma opticum
e) none of the above
When we determine upper homonymous quadrantanopsia, where is the place of the lesion ?
a) lesion of both optic nerves
b) lesion of chaisma opticum
c) lesion of the lower part of tractus geniculatocalcarinus
d) lesion of the upper part of of tractus geniculatocalcarinus
Bell’s paralysis is expressed when there is:
a) central paresis of n. facialis
b) paresis of n. trigeminus
c) Paresis of n. oculomotorius
d) peripheral paresis of n. facialis
Which cranial nerves receive only contralateral impulses from the brain hemisphere?
a) n. vagus
b) n. glossopharyngeus
c) n. facialis
d) n. glossopharyngeus
Weber test when there is damage to the n. statoacusticus dex. means:
a) The patient does not hear with both ears
b) The patient hears better with the left ear
c) hears better with the right ear
d) hears better with both ears
Which of the following symptoms are not typical for the frontal lobe syndrome?
a) apathy
b) ataxia
c) headache
d) homonymous hemianopsia
e) All are typical
Gerstaman syndrome is:
a) The patient is unable to tell left from right, can’t calculate (acalculia), can’t name their fingers (finger agnosis)
b) headache, vomiting, changes in behaviour
c) atrophy of the papilla
d) ptosis, myosis, enophtalm
Which of the symptoms are typical for a lesion of the conus medullaris?
a) missing abdominal reflexes
b) retention
c) incontinention
d) sensation loss for the damaged segments
Which symptoms are typical for cerebellar hemisphere syndrome?
a) homolateral nystagmus
b) dysartria
c) homolateral discoordination syndrome
d) homolateral hypotonia, hyporeflexia, intention tremor
Spasmus mobilis is typical for:
a) atetosis
b) chorea
c) hemibalism
d) Parkinson syndrome
Which of the following cells are not glial?
a) Ependymal cells
b) Epiphyseal cell
c) Schwann cell
d) Astrocytes
e) Oligodendrocytes
What types are the tumors of the hypophyseal gland?
a) Secreting
b) Non- secreting
c) Intrasellar
d) Suprasellar
e) All are correct
Which tumor is not intraparenchymal?
a) Glioblastoma
b) Astrocytoma
c) Schwannoma
d) Hypophyseal adenoma
e) Oligodendroglioma
Which of the following tumors does not originate from embryonal cells?
a) Pinealocytoma
b) Germinoma
c) Teratoma
d) Craniopharyngioma
Which brain structures are situated supretentorially?
a) Brain hemispheres
b) Lateral ventricles
c) Falx cerebri
d) Thalamus
Which brain structures are situated infratentorially ?
a) Diencephalon
b) Cerebellum
c) Vermis cerebelli
d) IVth ventricle
What determines the focal neurological syndrome?
a) The tumor localization
b) The tumor volume
c) The relationship between the tumor and the major vessels
d) Extra/intraparenchymal localization
e) Histology of the tummor
What determines the common brain symtomatics?
a) Tumor localization
b) Tumor volume
c) Tumor histology
d) The relationship between the tumor and CSF spaces
Which of the following symotoms are not typical for the common brain symptomatics?
a) Headache
b) Vomiting
c) Behaviour changes
d) Papilloedema
Which are the most frequent tumors in adults?
a) Glial
b) Supratentotial
c) Intraparenchymal
d) Embryonal
e) Intraventricular
How many types of spinal tumors are there ?
a) Intramedullar
b) Extramedullar subdural
c) Extramedullar epidural
d) Primary
e) Secondary
Which are the most frequent intramedullar tumors?
a) Neurinomas
b) Ependymomas
c) Meningeomas
d) Astrocytomas
Which are the most frequent extramedullar tumors?
a) Metastases
b) Meningeomas
c) Neurinomas
d) Ganglioneuromas
The clinical presentation of the spinal tumors depends on?
a) The volume of the tumor
b) Intra/extraparenchymal localization
c) The relationship between the spinal cord and the tumor
d) Tumor histology
Brown- Sequard syndrome consists of:
a) Ptosis, myosis, enophtalm
b) Spastic quadriparesis
c) Peripheral paresis for the hand and central paresis for the leg
d) Inferior rigid paraparesis and loss of sensation distally
e) Spastic paralysis for one leg, loss of deep sensation ipsilaterally, loss of pain and temperature sensation contralaterally, distal from the level of alteration
Which of the symptoms are not typical for conductive alteration of the spinal cord?
a) Rigid muscle tone
b) Vivid tendon reflexes
c) Vivid abdominal reflexes
d) Pathological reflexes
What is the Lermith symptom?
a) Pain when knocking on the spinal process
b) Intercostal neuralgia
c) Phantom pain
d) Causalgia
e) Diffuse pain along the spine
When a spine fracture is unstable ?
a) When the cause is a malign tumor
b) When the anterior longitudinal ligament is ruptured
c) When the posterior longitudinal ligament is ruptured
d) When 2 out of the 3 columns are altered
Which of the symptoms are typical for dorsal compression of the spinal cord?
a) Loss of deep sensation
b) Loss of control over the bladder
c) Loss of superficial sensation
d) Loss of motor function
Radicular pain is typical symptoms for which of the tumors?
a) Meningeomas
b) Intramedullar astrocytomas
c) Metastases
d) Neurinomas
Which of the following tumors originates from the peripheral nerves
a) Schwannoma
b) Neurofibroma
c) Melanoma
d) Sarcoma
Which of the following tumors are not from the group of the neurofibromas?
a) Generalized neurofibromatosis
b) Plexiform neurofibromatosis
c) Neurofobromatic elephantiasis
d) Ganglioneuroma
Which disease leads to tumors all over the body?
b) Recklinghausen disease
c) Sarcoidosis
d) Neurofibromatic elephantiasis
Which symptom is typical for the tumors of the peripheral nerves?
a) Motor deficit
b) Sensation deficit
c) Both motor and sensation deficit
d) Pain and paraesthesia
Which illness is hereditary?
a) Neurinoma
b) Ganglioneuroma
c) Generalized neurofibromatosis
d) Recklinghausen disease
From which nerves do tumors most frequently originate from?
a) N. ischiadicus
b) Plexus brachialis
c) N. medianus
d) N. ulnaris
When is it necessary (when there is a tumor of the peripheral nerve) to perform plastic of the nerve
a) Schwanoma
c) Malign tumor
d) Malign tumor that invaded along the nerve
e) Always
From which structures it is impossible for a neurinoma to develop?
a) peripheral nerves
b) cranial nerve
c) nerve root
d) spinal cord
e) brain
Which cranial nerve is the most common source of a neurinoma?
a) Trigeminal
b) Facial
c) Olfactory
d) Glossopharyngeal
e) Vestibulocochlear
Which parts of the peripheral nerves are the nods of plexiform elephantiasis developing from?
a) Sensation roots
b) Motor roots
c) The stem of the peripheral nerves
d) Cranial nerves
e) The thin branches of the skin nerves
Open TBI is:
a) Gunshot wound.
b) TBI with skull fracture.
c) TBI, in which there is a violation of the skin integrity.
d) TBI, in which there is a violation of the dura mater integrity.
e) None of the answers.
A penetrating TBI is:
b) TBI, in which there is a violation of the skin integrity.
c) TBI, in which there is a violation of the dura mater integrity.
d) TBI with skull fracture.
e) All the answers are correct
Which of the following is not characteristic of concussion?
a) There is violation of the skin integrity.
b) Short-term loss of consciousness.
c) Retrograde amnesia.
d) Anterograde amnesia.
e) Central paresis of n. facialis.
Diffuse axonal lesions are due to:
a) Impression fracture of the skull.
b) Gunshot wound.
c) Epidural hematoma.
d) Penetrating TBI
What is the contre-coups phenomenon?
a) Axonal rupture.
b) Rupture of small vessels.
c) Rupture of the meninges.
d) Focal lesions on the side opposite to the impact.
What is cytotoxic brain edema?
a) Entry of fluids into the cerebral vessels.
b) Entry of liquids into the interstitial space.
c) Entry of fluids into the ventricles.
d) Entry of fluids into glial cells.
What is the normal value of intracranial pressure?
a) 20 mm Hg
b) 8 mm Hg
c) 15 mm Hg
d) 30 mm Hg
e) 10 mm Hg
What are the components of intracranial pressure?
a) Brain parenchyma.
b) The cerebral ventricles.
c) The amount of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain.
d) The amount of blood in the brain.
e) All answers are correct
How many types of brain herniation are there?
a) Subfalx herniation.
b) Transcranial herniation.
c) Trans-tentorial herniation.
d) Herniation in the foramen occipitale magnum.
e) All answers are correct.
What behavioral responses does the Glasgow Scale assess?
a) Motor response.
b) Opening the eyes.
c) Oculocephalic reflexes
d) Tendon-periosteal reflexes.
e) Verbal response.
What are the most important criteria according to which spinal cord injury classifications are built?
a) All answers are true.
b) The mechanism of trauma.
c) The stability of the affected segment.
d) Morphological injury of the spinal cord.
e) The severity of the neurological deficit.
Which spinal cord injuries are penetrating?
a) In which there is violation of the skin integrity.
b) In which there is a fracture of the vertebral body.
c) In which there is a rupture of the ligaments.
d) In which there is a rupture of dura mater and violation of the spinal canal.
What is the pathogenesis of spinal luxations?
a) Rupture of the intervertebral discs.
b) Rupture of the anterior longitudinal ligament.
c) Rupture of the posterior longitudinal ligament.
d) Damage to the ligament apparatus and displacement of intervertebral joints.
What are the mechanisms of spinal cord injuries?
a) Hyperflexion mechanism.
b) Hyperextension mechanism.
c) Rotary mechanism.
d) Compression mechanism.
What is hematomyelia?
a) Hemorrhage in a nerve root.
b) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage of the spinal cord in one or more segments.
c) Hemorrhage in the spinal epidural space.
d) Hemorrhage in the spinal subdural space.
Which of the following symptoms is not characteristic of spinal shock?
a) Flaccid paralysis.
b) Areflexia.
c) Hypotonia.
d) Retention of pelvic reservoirs.
What is a Jefferson fracture?
a) Fracture of the atlas.
b) Dens axis fracture.
c) Fracture of the occipital bone.
d) Fracture of C1 and C2 vertebrae.
What is a Hangman's fracture?
a) Fracture of the body of C2 vertebra.
b) Fracture of C1 vertebra.
c) Luxation of C2 – C3 vertebrae.
d) Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 vertebra.
What is the so-called "burst fracture"?
a) Compression fracture of the vertebral body.
b) "Teardrop" fracture of the vertebral body.
c) Polyfragment fracture with dislocation of the fragments.
d) Fracture of pedicles, arches and processes.
What will be the difference in the clinical picture between an anatomical lesion and a complete axonal interruption?
a) In the type of motor damage.
b) In the form of sensory impairment.
c) In the form of pelvic reservoirs change.
d) In the form of change of reflexes.
e) There will be no difference.
What is neurapraxia?
a) The nerve is not macroscopically damaged, but its function is partial broken.
b) The myelin sheath of the nerve is damaged.
c) The connective tissue stroma is broken.
d) The perineurium and epineurium are broken.
What is axonotmesis?
a) There is loss of all functions of the nerve distal to the injury.
b) Anatomical interruption of the myelin sheath and axons of the nerve.
c) The connective tissue stroma is preserved.
d) The perineurium and epineurium of the nerve are preserved.
What is neurotmesis?
a) There is an incomplete anatomical lesion of the nerve.
b) The myelin sheath and the connective tissue stroma of the nerve are disrupted.
c) There is loss of all functions of the nerve distal to the injury.
d) There is a complete anatomical lesion of the nerve.
When the IV degree of nerve damage is present according to the classification of Sunderland?
a) There is a loss of axonal integrity.
b) There is a loss of axonal conduction.
c) There is a disruption of nerve fibers, but with a preserved perineurium.
d) The perineurium and fascicular structure is disturbed. The integrity of the nerve is carried out solely by the preserved epineural connective tissue.
e) There is a complete anatomical lesion
Which nerve roots are affected by damage to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (Duchenne-Erb type paresis)?
a) The upper branches of C4 and C5 roots.
b) upper branches of C5 and C6 roots.
c) C5, C6 and C7 roots.
d) The upper branches of C7 and Th1 roots.
Which nerve roots are affected when the middle trunk is damaged (truncus medius) of the plexus brachialis?
a) The anterior branch of C7.
b) The anterior branches of C6 and C7.
c) The rear branch of C7.
d) The front branch of C6.
e) None of the answers are correct.
Which nerve roots are affected by distal damage to the lower trunk (truncus inferior) of the plexus brachialis(Dejerine-Klumpke type paresis)?
a) The anterior branches of C8 and Th1.
b) The anterior branch of C7.
c) The anterior branch of Th1.
d) The anterior branches of C7 and C8.
What are the indications for surgical treatment in case of nerve interruption due to a cut injury?
a) No operative treatment is required.
b) The operative intervention should be carried out after 21 days.
c) The operative revision and a primary suture is performed within the first 2-3 days, until there is no retraction of the nerve.
d) Only fixation of the nerve is carried out so that there is no retraction.
What is internal neurolysis?
a) Release of the nerve trunk from adhesions with the surrounding tissues.
b) The fascicles are released from the scar tissue.
c) The fascicles are released from the intrafascial epineurium and present scar tissue.
d) The nerve trunk is freed from the surrounding adhesions and the fascicles are freed from the intrafascial epineurium and the available scar tissue.
What is nerve transplantation?
a) The nerve ends are refreshed or sutured to each other.
b) The individual fascicles ends are sutured.
c) Groups of fascicles are sutured by applying sutures to the interfascicular epineurium.
d) An interfascicular anastomosis is performed, in which parts of thin skin nerves are sutured to individual fascicles or fascicular groups.
What is spontaneous intracerebral hematoma?
a) Bleeding from aneurysms.
b) Bleeding from arteriovenous malformation.
c) Bleeding in the bed of an intracranial tumor.
d) Bleeding, which is most often due to hypertension.
What is important for intracerebral hematoma prognosis?
a) The somatic status of the patient.
b) The localization of the hematoma.
c) Hematoma volume.
d) The extent of brain edema.
What is the pathogenesis of spontaneous intracerebral hematoma?
a) The hematoma will increase its volume.
b) The tolerance of the brain parenchyma is important for clinical outcome.
c) The degree of development of cerebral edema is important for clinical outcome.
d) The presence of acute hydrocephalus is as a result of blockage of the cerebrospinal fluid circulation due to compression or due to intraventricular hemorrhage
Which of the signs is not common to spontaneous intracerebral hematomas?
a) The disease debuts in full health.
b) The loss of consciousness occurs quickly.
c) A hypertensive syndrome develops relatively quickly.
d) Transient neurological disorders are present.
Which of the symptoms are common to frontal spontaneous intracerebral hematomas?
a) Changes in behavior.
b) Contralateral hemiparesis.
c) Motor aphasia with a lesion of the dominant hemisphere.
d) Frontal ataxia.
What are the most common symptoms in pontine spontaneous intracerebral hematomas?
a) Headache and vomiting.
b) Relatively severe disturbance of consciousness.
c) Hemi- or quadri-type motor deficit.
d) Visiomotor disorders (one- or two-sided dilated pupils, lack of reaction to light, coupled deviation of the eyeballs, etc.).
e) Violations of heart and respiratory rhythm.
f) All answers are correct
What are the most common clinical symptoms in subtentorial spontaneous intracerebral hematomas?
a) Pronounced nausea, vomiting and headache.
b) Vertigo and truncus ataxia.
c) Loss of consciousness.
d) Hiccups, dysarthria and dysphagia.
In which space are brain aneurysms located?
a) The epidural space.
b) The subdural space.
c) The subarachnoid space.
d) The intraparenchymal space.
What is the most common clinical symptom of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?
a) Epileptic seizure.
b) Focal neurological symptoms.
d) Meningo-radicular symptoms.
What clinical signs can a non-ruptured arterio-venous malformation have?
a) Headache.
b) Epileptic seizures.
c) Mild neurological deficit.
d) Pulsating noise in the head.
The clinical manifestation of meningitis purulenta is ?
a) infectious syndrome
b) intracranial hypertension
c) meningo-radicular syndrome
d) focal neurological deficits
e) all answers are correct
What are the characteristics of the CSF in meningitis purulenta?
a) the CSF is purulentic
b) rise of the polinuclear cells
c) level of glucose is low
d) level of protein is slightly rised
The anatomical feature of the 3 layers of the intracerebral abscessus are?
a) inner layer of vascular and granulated tissue
b) middle layer from collagen
c) outher layer from gliotic tissue
d) none of the above
The pathological mechanisms for ottogenic intracerebral abscesses are?
a) direct invasion of the temporal lobe after tegmen tympany osteitis and the area of antrum mastoideum
b) Tromboflebitis of the veins , which are draining the veins of middle ear, sinus petrosus inf. and sinus petrosus transversus
c) invasion of the infection trough meatus acusticus int. to cerebellum
d) invasion trough the Eustacian tube
Which is common for hematogenic brain absceses?
a) always are single
b) recently are multiple
c) mainly they develop around the area of a.cerebri media
d) develop of nearby lessions
The difference between abscessus cerebri and meningitis purulenta in clinical manifestation are?
a) the type of headache
b) local neurological deficites is usual
c) manifested intracranial hypertension
d) the infectious syndrome
When the treatment of brain abscesses is only conservative?
a) small sizes- 1-2cm. in diameter
b) non-dislocation of the brain by the lesion
c) multiple abscesses without dislocation
d) single, >3cm.
e) none of the above.
When the treatment of brain abscesses is operative?
a) good development of 3-layer capsule
b) single >3cm
c) abscesses with gas collections around
d) abscesses with caused by bone fragments
The mechanisms for developing epidural abscesses are?
a) osteomyelitis of the cranium
b) sinusitis
c) mastoiditis
d) postoperative infection
e) all the answers are correct
Which symptoms are correct for infections of the spine and spinal cord?
a) local pain
b) disturbed movement of the segment
c) infectious syndrome
d) muscle weakness
The most common localization of Echinococcosis cyst in the brain is?
a) supratentorial
b) subtentorial
c) brain stem
d) the area of supply of a.cerebri media
When lumbar punction is indicated?
a) echinococcosis of the brain
b) spinal cord echinococcosis
c) when we have both localizations
d) both localizations are contraindicated
Differences between brain echinococcosis and brain tumors are?
a) no differences
b) with echinococcosis the intracranial hypertension is slowly growing
c) echinococcosis is common in childhood
d) with echinococcosis there is focal neurological symptoms
How many types of localizations of cysticercosis are known?
a) ventricular
b) inside the cysterns
c) in the brain parenchyma
d) supratentorial
When the treatment of cysticercosis is operative?
a) developing of hydrocephaly-shunting operation
b) patients with parenchymal , cysternal and ventricular localization and compression
c) patients with intracranial hypertension
d) patients with intracranial hypotension
Which type of patients can develop toxoplasmosis?
a) female patients
b) male patients
c) patients with gastrointestinal diseases
d) patients with decent immune system
The types of clinical manifestation of toxoplasmosis are?
a) panencephalitis
b) meningoencephalitis
c) single or multiple focal lessions
d) ventriculitis
Which serological tests are used for toxoplasmosis?
a) tests of Casoni and Vinberg
b) test of Sabin-Feldman
c) indirectal fluoroscental antibody test
d) test of Voznac-Bobrov
Which animal is the first host of toxoplasmosis?
a) dog
b) rabbit
c) fox
d) cat
Which segment of the spine is most common for disc herniation?
a) lower part of the cervical spine
b) upper part of the lumbar spine
d) lower part of the lumber spine and the border with the sacrum
The anatomical structure of the intervertebral disk is ?
a) annulus fibrosus
b) ligamental structure
c) nucleus pulposus
d) nucleus ambigus
The main reason for degenerative spondilosys is?
a) loss of hydrophilic features of nucleus pulposus
b) disruption(tearing) of the fibres on the annulus fibrosus
c) frequent trauma of the spine
d) compression of the ligaments of the spine
e) all tha answers are correct
What is disc protrusion?
a) compression of annulus fibrosus, which is not disrupted
b) there is area with disruption of the annulus and migration of small part of nucleus pulposus
c) migration of nucleus pulposus inside the spinal canal
Which symptom is NOT correct for lateral disk herniation on level L4-5?
a) hipestesia on the lateral side of the hip
b) loss of patellar reflex
c) loss of Achilles reflex
d) loss of dorsal flexion of the foot
Which symptoms are correct for cauda equine syndrome?
a) incontinence
b) hypestesia of dermatomical type of the damaged nerve roots
c) muscle loss correlated with the damaged nerve roots
d) loss of reflexes
Which symptoms are not correct for disc herniation on C5-6
a) pain and parastesia on the lateral side of the upper limb
b) loss of biceps brachii reflex
c) weaknes for m.deltoideus
d) weaknes for m.biceps brachii
Which structures are degenareted for spinal stenosis?
a) spinal canal
b) intervertebral disks
c) lateral recesus
d) neuroforamens
What is common for spinal stenosis of cervical and thoracical segment?
a) central paralysis
b) incontinence
c) single or multiple radiculopathies by compression of the foramens
d) hyperreflexia and hypertonus
Which is the most common symptom for lumbar spinal stenosis?
a) lumbalgia
b) lumboradiculopathy
c) Neurogenic intermittent claudication
Which of the symptoms are not correct for hydrocephaly?
a) enlargement of the ventricles by disruption of the CSF production
b) enlargement of the ventricles by disruption of the CSF circulation
c) enlargement of the subarachnoid space
d) enlargement of the pineal gland
e) could be due to tumor
Which is common for occlusive hydrocephaly
a) CSF is circulating without any disruption
b) CSF is not circulating and resorption is disrupted
c) CSF is circulating without disruption but there is occlusion of the cysterns
d) none of above
Which are the main reasons for occlusive hydrocephaly?
a) atresion of foramen Monroe
b) aqueductus Sylvii atresion
c) occlusion of foramen Magendie et Luschka
d) occlusion of the subarachnoid spaces
Which is the reason of the ‘’setting sun eyes’’ phenomenom?
a) paralisys of cranial nerve
b) craniostenosis
c) enlargement of the skull
d) the roof of the orbit is moving forward and downwards and compresses na eye bulbs
Which is the most common symptom for hydrocephaly in adulthood?
a) mental disruption
c) focal neurological deficites
d) cerebellar symptoms
e) all the answers correct
In which cases USG can be used for diagnostic method in hydrocephaly?
a) communicating hydrocephaly
b) in children with opened fontanelas
c) occlusive hydrocephaly
d) for prenatal screaning
Which are the main goals of the operative treatment of hydrocephaly?
a) approving the CSF resorption
b) elimination of the reason for hydrocephaly
c) bypassing the disruption of the CSF flow
d) creating a new pathway for the CSF flow
Which are the main reasons for aqueductal stenosis?
a) ventriculitis
b) hypo-hypervitaminosis of vitamin A
c) radiation
d) infection of the ventricles with mixoviruses
e) hypertrophy of the periaqueductal subependemic glia(caused by different microagents)
Which diseases can lead to pathological enlargement of the ventricular system?
a) after meningitis
b) after SAH
c) tumors compressing the parts of the ventricular system
d) brain aneurysms (without giant types)
Which malformations are combined with hydrocephaly?
a) Arnold – Chiari malformation
b) Dandy-Walker malformation
c) Basilar impression
d) meningoencephalocele
The main reason for scaphocephaly is?
a) ossification of the both coronal sutures
b) ossification of the saggital suture
c) ossification of tha lambdoid suture
The main reason for trigonocephaly is?
a) ossification of the metopic suture
b) ossification of the saggital, coronal and lambdoid sutures
c) ossification of the both coronal sutures
What is the main reason for brachycephaly?
a) ossification of the saggital suture
b) ossification of the saggital, coronal , lambdoid sutures
c) ossification of both coronal sutures
d) ossification of lambdoid suture
e) ossification of single coronal suture
What is the main reason for plagiocephaly?
What are the symptoms of Crouson desease?
a) genetic reason
b) brachiocephaly
c) small sizes of the orbits
d) hypertelurism
e) exophthalmos
In which skull bone most commonly is the defect for encephalocele?
a) parietal bone
b) temporal bone
c) frontal bone
d) occipital bone
Which is not the main disorder of the brain for Dandy-Walker malformation?
a) stenosis of foramen Magendie and Luschka
b) enlargement of the 4th ventricul
c) enlargement of the 3th ventricul
d) stenosis of aqueductus Sylvii
How many types of spinal dysraphism are known?
a) Spina bifida oculta
b) Spinal meningocele
c) myelomeningocele
d) rachischisis
How many neurons are involved in the pathway of the pain?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
What is neuropathic pain?
a) pain caused by damaging peripheral nerve
b) pain caused by burning
c) phantom pain
d) pain with burning nature and zone with neurological deficit
What is DREZ (dorsal root entry zone)
a) anatomical disruption of peripheral nerve
b) anatomical disruption of tractus spinothalamicus
c) anatomical disruption of fasciculus dorsolateralis
d) stimulation of peripheral nerve
Which are the main reasons for trigeminal nerve neuralgia?
a) compression by vessels(arterial) around the nerve
b) compression by vessels(venous) around the nerve
c) compression by tumor to the nerve
d) compression by AVM nearby the nerve
Which instrumental diagnostic method is used for epilepsy?
a) CT
b) MRT (MRI)
c) craniography
d) EEG
The brainstem consists of:
……..
Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain
The main arteries that supply the brain with blood are:
a) Internal Carotid and vertebral
b) Internal thoracic artery
c) Internal illiac artery
The spinal cord ends at level
a) L1
b) L5
c) T6
Rolandic zone is:
a) Primary motor and primary sensory cortex
b) Prefrontal cortex
c) Occipital cortex
When the right cerebral hemisphere is damaged, paresis is clinicaly seen on
a) The opposite site
b) The same side
c) Both sides
Paraplaegia means :
When both legs are paralized
When central motor neuron is damaged, the muscle tone is:
a) Flacid
b) Rigid
c) Normal
When a patient is presented with SAH, we assess their clinical condition by using the:
a) Koos scale
b) Spetzler- Martin scale
c) Hunt and Hess scale
The Glasgow coma scale is used to asses:
a) The patient’s consciousness
b) The patient’s quality of life
c) The patient’s pain level
The Glasgow Coma Scale has:
a) 2- 10 points
b) 3-15 points
c) 7-18 points
Primary brain tumor is
a) Multiform Glioblastoma
b) Lung cancer meta
c) Melanoma malignum
The most frequent metastatic tumor
a) Lung cancer
b) Colon cancer
c) Ewing tumor
We assess the ponto- cerebellar schwanomas by using the
c) AO Spine classification
Anisocoria is :
a) When the pupil on one side is larger than on the other
b) When there is papiloedema
c) When there is ottoliquorrhoea
A type of brain herniation is:
a) Tonsillar
b) Transorbital
c) Transcranial
Write down the types of Traumatic brain injury, according to its severity:
mild, moderate, severe
On a CT scan, Acute Subdural haematoma looks like:
a) Banana- shaped hyperdense lesion
b) Banana- shaped hypodense lesion
c) Lemon- shaped lesion
On a CT Scan, Epidural haematoma looks like:
a) Polymorphic heterodense lesion
b) Banana- shaped Hyper dense lesion
Racoon sign is a sign of:
a) Frontal fossa skull-base fracture
b) Posterior fossa skull-base fracture
c) Middle fossa skull- base fracture
If a patient suffers a T8 burst fracture and complete spinal cord injury, the clinical presentation will be:
Paraplaegia/ paresis for the lower limbs, complete loss of sensation from the level of damage downwards
A dermatome is:
A single strain- like zone of the skin, inervated by a single nerve root
If a patient has unstable vertebral fracture in the lumbar region, we perform a:
a) Spinal fusion and stabilization using titanium screws and rods
b) Strict bed regime
c) Physiotherapy
The most common levels at which we can see a lumbar disc herniation are:
a) L4-5 and L5- S1
b) C4-5 and C5-6
c) L1-2 and L2-3
Brain aneurysms most commonly occur:
a) At bifurcations of the vessels
b) External carotid artery
c) M4 segment of MCA
The most common cause for a spontaneous SAH is
a) Trauma
b) Aneurysm rupture
c) Infection
We assess AVMs by using the :
a) Koos
b) Koos scale
c) Spetzler- Martin scale
A typical AVM has a part called:
a) A tail
b) Nidus
c) Cyst
Name the brain ventricles:
lateral, third and fourth ventricle
Hydrocephalus is
a) Abnormal collection of pus
b) Anatomic variation of the ventricle system
c) Abnormal collection of CSF inside the ventricles
The most common cause for hydrocephalus is:
b) Obstruction of the ventricles
Subdural empyema is:
A collection of pus inside the subdural space
Brain abscess is:
A collection of pus inside the brain, seperated by a capsule
When we have suspicion of CNS infection, we perform a:
a) Transcranial USG
b) X- ray
c) Lumbar punction
The most common level at which we perform a lumbar punction is
a) L4-5 from the backside
b) L5- S1 through the abdomen
c) C2-3
Meningeomas originate from :
a) The neurons
b) The meningitis
c) The dura matter
Name the signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure:
Headache, dizziness, vomiting, gait instability, vision loss, papilloedema
A patient with a brain tumor may present with:
a) Focal neurological deficit and common brain symptomatics
b) Fatigue
c) High temperature
The most malign brain tumor is:
b) Anaplastic meningioma
c) Chordoma
The occipital lobe of the brain is responsible for:
a) The speech
b) The sensation
c) The vision
The cerebellum is responsible for:
a) The coordination and the muscle tone
b) The voluntary movement
c) The hearing
The cerebrum is situated:
a) Infratentotially
b) Supratentorially
c) Intraorbitally
Craniostenosis is:
Premature closing of the skull sutures
Brown- Sequard syndrome is:
Ipsilateral loss of motor function and deep sensation, contralateral loss of temperature and pain sensation
When a patient has a L5- S1 disc herniation, the Lassegue sign is:
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Neutral
Neck muscle rigidity is a sign of
a) Meningeal irritation
b) Muscle trauma
c) Spinal canal stenosis
Central motor neuron damage is characterized by:
a) Increased reflexes, pathological reflexes, increased muscle tone
b) Decreased reflexes, flacid paralysis
c) Normoistonia
Peripheral motor neuron damage is characterized by:
c) Normoisotonia
Name the 4 types of intracranial haematomas:
Subdural, epidural, intracerebral, subarachnoid
The most common source of bleeding for a subdural haematoma is
a) Internal carotid artery
b) Cortical vessel
c) Vertebral artery
The most common source of bleeding for an epidural haematoma is
a) A. meningea media
b) A. cerebri media
c) V. cerebri magna
Name the MOST commonly encountered pathogen in spinal epidural abscess.
St. aureus/ str. pyogenes
Name all Koos stages for pontocerebellar tumours.
grade 1: small intracanalicular tumor (1cm), grade 2: small tumor with protrusion into the cerebellopontine cistern (CPA); no contact with the brainstem (2cm), grade 3: tumor occupying the cerebellopontine cistern with no brainstem displacement (3cm), grade 4: large tumor with brainstem and cranial nerve displacement (4cm)
The most common source (vessel) of bleeding for subdural hematoma?
a) meningeal arterial vessel
b) cortical venosus vessel
c) arteriovenous malformation vessel
How many points by GCS points you have on patient with concussion?
a) 3-8p.
b) 9-13p.
c) 13-15p.
How epidural hematoma is presented on native CT scan?
a) lemon-shaped
b) isodensed
c) lens-shapped
What is the anatomical structure of the intervertebral disc?
a) annulus pulposus and nucleus fibrosus
b) annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus
c) annulus pulpofibrosus and nucleus fibropulposus
What is Battle sign?
a) a bruise on frontal region
b) a bruise on mastoid region
c) a bruise on protuberantia occipitalis externa
What is SAH?
a) subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) subdural haematoma
c) subarachnoid hemolysis
What is hemiparesis?
a) weakness or the inability to move on one side of the body
b) weakness or the inability to move on both sides of the body
c) weakness or the inability to move on the upper limbs
The brain metastases in men usually originate from ?
a) pancreatic cancer
b) testical seminoma
c) lung cancer
Name the points of GCS (Glasgow Coma Scale ) for brain injury?
a) mild-…………p.
b) moderate…………p.
c) severe………………p.
mild: 13-15 ; moderate: 8-12; severe: 3-7
Name what is the shape of subdural haematoma on CT?
lens-shaped, moon-shaped
Most common levels for lumbar disc herniation are?
a) L3-4 ; L1-2; L2-L3
b) L1-2
c) L5-S1; L4-5 ; L3-4
The main operative treatment for osteoporotic fractures of the lumbar spine is?
a) hemilaminectomy
b) laminectomy
c) vertebroplasty
The two vertebral arteries join together in?
a) middle cerebral artery
b) basilar artery
c) Charcot’s artery
Hunt and Hess scale is grading ?
a) the severity of a subarachnoid hemorrhage based on the patient's clinical condition
b) the severity of a subdural hemorrhage based on the patient's clinical condition
c) the severity of an epidural hemorrhage based on the patient's clinical condition
Mark the correct fact about intracerebral abscess.
a) on CT is presented like ‘’oval’’ shapped formation with capsule
b) on CT is presented like ‘’oval’’ shapped formation without capsule
c) on CT is presented like ‘’moon’’ shapped formation with capsule
What is diastatic fracture of the skull?
a) linear skull fracture
b) multifragment fracture
c) separation of the skull sutures due to trauma
The main complication of basilar skull fracture is?
a) pus leakage
b) CSF leakage
c) glioblastoma
Menigioma origins from?
a) the meninges
b) the brain parenchyma
c) the galea aponeurotica
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