According to Bidwell (2011), what is a typical outcome of hiring external candidates compared to internal ones?
A) Higher performance in the first year
B) Lower salaries
C) Longer time to reach full productivity
D) Lower turnover rates
C
Which of the following is a key advantage of internal mobility?
A) Better cultural fit and organizational knowledge
B) Higher starting salaries
C) More innovative thinking
D) Stronger signaling in the labor market
A
External hires tend to receive:
A) Less pay and more benefits
B) Equal pay compared to internal promotions
C) Higher pay but lower initial performance
D) Lower pay but higher long-term performance
What is one main reason organizations prefer internal hiring, according to Bidwell?
A) More diversity in candidate pool
B) Greater leadership potential
C) Shorter time-to-productivity
D) Easier onboarding process
What performance-related outcome is associated with internal hires?
A) They often underperform compared to external hires.
B) They outperform external hires, especially in early years.
C) They experience more job changes.
D) They receive lower ratings from supervisors.
B
Aguinis & Kraiger (2009) argue that training benefits which of the following levels?
A) Only the individual level
B) Individuals and society only
C) Individuals, teams, organizations, and society
D) Only the organizational level
What does "transfer of training" refer to?
A) Moving trainees between jobs
B) Application of learned skills in the work environment
C) Outsourcing of training programs
D) Delegation of training responsibilities
What is a key condition for training effectiveness?
A) High training cost
B) External trainers only
C) Proper instructional design
D) Group-based delivery
One major organizational benefit of training is:
A) Improved public relations
B) Better job rotation
C) Increased productivity and innovation
D) Reduced team size
Which concept emphasizes that training should match strategic goals?
A) Job crafting
B) Instructional alignment
C) Strategic training
D) Equity-based learning
A well-designed training program should include:
A) Casual feedback only
B) Needs assessment, design, delivery, and evaluation
C) Randomized content
D) Participant-led scheduling only
According to Aguinis & Kraiger, what is a team-level benefit of training?
A) Less competition
B) Better salary negotiation
C) Enhanced coordination and shared mental models
D) Better leadership perception
What is the purpose of training evaluation?
A) To eliminate underperformers
B) To justify training cost to HR
C) To measure learning outcomes and impact
D) To schedule more trainings
Which level of Kirkpatrick’s model measures actual learning outcomes?
A) Reaction
B) Learning
C) Behavior
D) Results
Which level in Aguinis & Kraiger’s framework includes societal benefits of training?
A) Micro-level
B) Organizational level
C) Macro-level
D) Personal level
What is "Pay-for-Performance" in compensation systems?
A) Employees are paid regardless of output
B) Compensation is tied to performance metrics
C) Pay is based solely on seniority
D) Benefits exceed base salary
Which is part of direct compensation?
A) Health insurance
B) Paid vacation
C) Bonus payments
D) Company car
Which of the following is indirect compensation?
A) Base salary
B) Stock options
C) Medical insurance
D) Commission
Strategic compensation means:
A) Aligning pay with market trends only
B) Using compensation to support business strategy
C) Paying all employees equally
D) Outsourcing payroll
Internal equity refers to:
A) Pay fairness relative to external benchmarks
B) Similar pay across industries
C) Fair pay within the organization across comparable roles
D) Uniform bonuses across teams
External competitiveness refers to:
A) Industry benchmarking of compensation levels
B) Internal job evaluations
C) Peer feedback systems
D) Organizational justice systems
What is one risk of pay-for-performance systems?
A) Overmotivation
B) Decline in productivity
C) Ethical misconduct and short-termism
D) Higher retention
According to Equity Theory, employees:
A) Focus only on absolute pay
B) Compare their inputs and outcomes with others
C) React only to promotions
D) Expect random rewards
Vroom’s Expectancy Theory suggests compensation motivates when:
A) There is high task complexity
B) The job involves creativity
C) There is a clear link between effort, performance, and reward
D) The company is profitable
Skill-based pay focuses on:
A) The position rather than individual skills
B) Competency development and flexibility
C) Tenure and hierarchy
D) Location of employment
Which component would typically not be included in total rewards?
A) Retirement plans
B) Intrinsic motivation
C) Health benefits
D) Base salary
What is job evaluation used for?
A) Assessing training needs
B) Benchmarking external pay
C) Determining internal job worth
D) Measuring motivation
Why is compensation transparency increasingly relevant?
A) To reduce legal compliance costs
B) To improve perceived fairness and trust
C) To eliminate HR departments
D) To increase competition
Which approach bundles all aspects of employee value proposition?
A) Pay-for-skill
B) Total rewards
C) Flat-rate system
D) Benefits-only plan
High-performing organizations typically:
A) Avoid variable pay
B) Use compensation as a strategic tool
C) Equalize all pay regardless of performance
D) Focus solely on seniority
What is a major implementation challenge of variable compensation plans?
A) Legal compliance
B) Low employee understanding
C) Setting fair and measurable performance metrics
D) Recruitment difficulties
Which statement is true according to Gerhart & Weller?
A) Fixed salaries are more motivational than bonuses
B) Benefits always outweigh base pay
C) Compensation should align with HR and business strategy
D) Pay secrecy is encouraged
The equity-based argument in compensation theory is best supported by:
A) Market analysis
B) Benchmarking external data
C) Perceptions of fairness among employees
D) Job rotations
What is the primary focus of Sackett et al. (2022) in evaluating selection procedures?
A) Improving job interviews
B) Reviewing overcorrections in meta-analytic validity estimates
C) Promoting new selection tools
D) Replacing validity with reliability metrics
What is “range restriction” in the context of selection validity?
A) Limited number of applicants applying
B) Focus on only one department
C) Reduced variability in a selected sample
D) Increased diversity of outcomes
Why can range restriction lead to biased validity estimates?
A) It increases the sample size
B) It reduces test fairness
C) It alters criterion definitions
D) It limits variance in predictor scores, distorting correlations
D
According to Sackett et al., previous meta-analyses often:
A) Underestimate selection validity
B) Provide uncorrected validities only
C) Overcorrect for range restriction, inflating validity estimates
D) Ignore criterion-related validity
What methodological caution do Sackett et al. suggest?
A) Use only subjective ratings
B) Avoid meta-analytic data
C) Apply conservative corrections for restricted range
D) Replace correlations with regressions
What does “criterion-related validity” measure in selection tools?
A) Internal consistency
B) Job satisfaction
C) Predictive accuracy for job performance
D) Applicant motivation
What is a key takeaway from Sackett et al. (2022) for HR practitioners?
A) Meta-analytic data is universally applicable
B) Validity should be assumed, not measured
C) External benchmarks should always be used
D) Validity estimates must be contextually interpreted
Which of the following best defines “motivation” as discussed by Kanfer & Chen (2016)?
A) A fixed trait
B) A temporary emotion
C) A dynamic, context-sensitive psychological force
D) An unconscious behavioral response
Which theory emphasizes the role of expectancy, instrumentality, and valence?
A) Equity Theory
B) Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
C) Maslow’s Hierarchy
D) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
What is the central idea of Goal Setting Theory?
A) Avoidance of punishment motivates behavior
B) Specific and challenging goals enhance performance
C) Equity leads to better morale
D) Social needs come before self-actualization
What role does “self-efficacy” play in motivation?
A) Decreases with feedback
B) Is irrelevant for goal setting
C) Enhances goal commitment and persistence
D) Only matters in group settings
How do Process Theories differ from Content Theories of motivation?
A) They ignore individual differences
B) They describe how motivation operates rather than what motivates
C) They are applicable only in clinical settings
D) They are outdated in organizational contexts
According to Kanfer & Chen, motivation in organizations is:
A) Linear and unidimensional
B) Fixed at hiring
C) A multilevel construct across time and context
D) Only relevant for leadership roles
What does the Equity Theory propose?
A) Pay secrecy improves motivation
B) Motivation is driven by alignment with personal values
C) Employees compare their input-output ratios with others
D) Bonuses should be standardized
Which need is at the top of Maslow’s hierarchy?
A) Esteem
B) Safety
C) Belongingness
D) Self-actualization
In Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory, which is a motivator?
A) Job security
B) Company policy
C) Recognition
D) Supervision quality
According to Self-Regulation Theory, motivation involves:
A) Suppressing goals
B) Automatic behavior
C) Active monitoring and adjustment of behavior
D) External surveillance
What do Kanfer & Chen say about emotion in motivation?
A) It is irrelevant to performance
B) It undermines rational decision-making
C) It interacts with cognition and context to shape motivation
D) It only affects low-level tasks
How can organizations support motivation, based on Kanfer & Chen’s findings?
A) Enforce strict policies and procedures
B) Promote dynamic goal-setting, feedback, and self-efficacy
C) Eliminate variability in job roles
D) Use only extrinsic rewards
What is the most accurate statement regarding meta-analytic validity according to Sackett et al.?
A) It should never be corrected
B) Overcorrection leads to unrealistic expectations
C) It is always more reliable than primary studies
D) Context does not influence validity
What is a core component of the Input–Process–Output (IPO) model in team research?
A) Employee demographics
B) Task complexity
C) Team communication and coordination
D) Job satisfaction
What does "Shared Mental Models" refer to in teams?
A) Equal opinions among team members
B) Identical skills
C) Common understanding of tasks, goals, and roles
D) Shared job descriptions
What are Transactive Memory Systems (TMS) in a team context?
A) Computer systems for team data
B) Collective memory about who knows what
C) Groupthink mechanisms
D) Leadership evaluation systems
According to Mathieu et al., high team diversity leads to:
A) More uniform performance
B) Less conflict and more harmony
C) Broader perspectives, but higher risk of conflict
D) Stronger group cohesion
What is a key characteristic of effective team leadership?
A) Delegating all authority
B) Avoiding feedback
C) Aligning goals and providing supportive monitoring
D) Promoting strict hierarchy
Which of the following is an output in the IPO model?
A) Team tenure
B) Team training
C) Team innovation
D) Role clarity
The IMOI model extends the IPO model by:
A) Eliminating inputs
B) Ignoring feedback loops
C) Incorporating mediators and temporal dynamics
D) Focusing only on individual effort
What is the definition of an "Implicit Leadership Theory" (ILT)?
A) Formal leadership behavior defined in job descriptions
B) Stereotypes and mental prototypes about ideal leaders
C) Organizational leadership values
D) Leadership styles chosen by executives
How do ILTs influence perception?
A) They improve objectivity in leader evaluations
B) They ensure accurate measurement of performance
C) They bias how we perceive leadership behaviors
D) They reduce discrimination in leadership
Which of the following is an example of an ILT prototype trait?
A) Introversion
B) Passivity
C) Charisma
D) Humility
What is an Implicit Followership Theory (IFT)?
A) A model of leadership development
B) Legal guidelines for subordinates
C) Mental schemas about ideal or typical followers
D) Performance metrics for team members
Which effect occurs when leaders’ expectations shape subordinate behavior?
A) Halo effect
B) Self-fulfilling prophecy
C) Anchoring bias
D) In-group favoritism
What do Junker & van Dick argue about ILTs and IFTs?
A) They are only relevant in politics
B) They operate unconsciously and shape social dynamics
C) They have minimal impact on organizational life
D) They are always aligned with performance
What is a consequence of mismatch between ILTs and actual leader traits?
A) Improved performance
B) Biased judgment and underestimation
C) Faster decision-making
D) Better conflict resolution
What is the "Lack-of-Fit" model in gender bias research?
A) Women lack leadership training
B) Stereotyped traits don’t align with role expectations
C) Men and women have equal opportunities
D) Gender is irrelevant in hiring decisions
According to Heilman & Caleo, which role traits are stereotypically male?
A) Cooperative and empathetic
B) Agentic and assertive
C) Nurturing and passive
D) Submissive and agreeable
What is “Evaluation Bias” in gender discrimination?
A) Male leaders are underrated
B) Women are rated less favorably in stereotypically male roles
C) Hiring panels are always fair
D) Men and women receive identical assessments
What is the “Backlash Effect”?
A) Employees resist feedback
B) Female leaders are rewarded for being agentic
C) Agentic women face social penalties for defying gender norms
D) Gender-based hiring quotas
Which situation best illustrates Lack-of-Fit?
A) Male nurse being overqualified
B) Female engineer seen as too emotional
C) Male secretary promoted quickly
D) Gender-neutral hiring
What is one structural way to combat gender bias in selection?
A) Subjective interviews
B) Intuition-based scoring
C) Blind application reviews
D) Verbal references only
What is the core recommendation from Heilman & Caleo?
A) Promote only women
B) Increase awareness of role-stereotype mismatches
C) Eliminate performance reviews
D) Encourage emotional leadership
Which practice supports equity in team composition?
A) Homogenous hiring
B) Diversity-blind recruitment
C) Inclusive selection and evaluation processes
D) Promotion based on tenure
Which mechanism explains why women must “prove themselves” more?
A) Expectancy theory
B) Cultural congruence
C) Stereotype mismatch and higher proof burden
D) Reward deficiency
Which of the following is not an ILT stereotype?
A) Assertiveness
B) Dominance
C) Passivity
D) Intelligence
In what way do ILTs affect leader selection decisions?
A) Ensure merit-based hiring
B) Increase demographic diversity
C) Skew decisions toward stereotype-congruent candidates
D) Eliminate favoritism
Which of the following is a benefit of team training according to Mathieu et al.?
A) Improved organizational silence
B) Strengthened team mental models and coordination
C) Reduced communication
D) Better job crafting
What is one major challenge of diverse teams?
A) Lack of legal protection
B) High homogeneity
C) Potential for conflict due to value differences
D) Low knowledge variety
What type of leadership is most aligned with fostering diversity?
A) Authoritarian
B) Transactional
C) Inclusive and participative
D) Task-focused only
What does the concept of “role congruity” relate to in leadership perception?
A) Matching compensation with experience
B) Alignment of gender stereotypes and role expectations
C) Assigning technical roles only to experts
D) Promoting only senior employees
What is a practical implication of IFTs in team management?
A) Everyone is viewed equally
B) Leaders may unknowingly assign roles based on stereotypes
C) Roles are rotated daily
D) All team members self-select their duties
Which organizational strategy reduces the effect of ILTs?
A) Using informal assessments
B) Structured and objective performance evaluations
C) Promoting through personal networks
D) Relying on manager intuition
According to Junker & van Dick, leadership perception is driven by:
A) Raw performance data
B) Trait-objectivity scales
C) Observer’s internalized expectations
D) Years of experience
What is a risk of ignoring implicit theories in leadership contexts?
A) Increased transparency
B) Reduced team conflict
C) Reinforcement of bias and misjudgment
D) Improved retention
According to the Job Characteristics Model, which of the following is not one of the five core job dimensions?
A) Autonomy
B) Task significance
C) Organizational citizenship
D) Feedback
What does “task identity” refer to in job design?
A) The degree to which the job affects others
B) The extent of employee freedom
C) The degree to which the job requires completion of a whole piece of work
D) The clarity of job instructions
Which psychological state is directly linked to autonomy, according to the JCM?
A) Responsibility for outcomes
B) Job security
C) Task identity
D) Interpersonal harmony
What is the primary outcome of high scores across all five JCM core dimensions?
A) Low turnover and burnout
B) Higher intrinsic motivation and performance
C) Increased task repetition
D) Greater physical safety
What is “job crafting”?
A) Organizational redesign by top management
B) Employees shaping their job to better fit their skills and values
C) Rotating jobs among departments
D) Creating job titles for marketing
Which of the following moderates the effect of job characteristics on motivation?
A) Organizational profit
B) Growth Need Strength
C) Market share
D) Office location
What contextual factor do Oldham & Fried highlight as important for job design effectiveness?
A) Company age
B) Presence of a union
C) Leadership style and culture
D) Stock price development
In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which is the highest level?
B) Belongingness
C) Safety
According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory, which of the following is a motivator?
A) Salary
B) Working conditions
D) Job security
What does Vroom’s Expectancy Theory propose?
A) Employees work better under pressure
B) Motivation depends on expected outcomes and their desirability
C) Rewards demotivate over time
D) Group norms override individual goals
Equity Theory suggests that employees are motivated when:
A) Their inputs and outcomes are ignored
B) Their work is identical to others’
C) They perceive fairness in their input/output ratio compared to others
D) They receive more pay than peers
Which group phenomenon describes a tendency to avoid conflict to preserve harmony?
A) Brainstorming
B) Groupthink
C) Role conflict
D) Social facilitation
What is “social loafing”?
A) Group members outperforming individually
B) Individuals putting in less effort in group settings
C) A method of team bonding
D) Overcommitment to team roles
According to Sinding & Waldstrom, what defines a formal group?
A) Emerges naturally through social interactions
B) Lacks hierarchy
C) Established by the organization with assigned tasks
D) Based on personal friendships
What is the main function of norms in a team?
A) Disrupt communication
B) Serve as unwritten rules regulating behavior
C) Define salary structure
D) Create legal contracts
In group dynamics, “roles” refer to:
A) Job titles only
B) Written job descriptions
C) Expected behavior patterns for individuals
D) Financial responsibilities
Which leadership style most supports effective group communication?
A) Autocratic
B) Laissez-faire
C) Participative
D) Transactional
What is the primary function of organizational culture, according to Chapter 15?
A) Managing stock options
B) Coordinating schedules
C) Providing meaning and shared understanding
D) Setting salaries
What are the three levels of culture according to Edgar Schein?
A) Strategy, structure, systems
B) Artefacts, values, basic assumptions
C) Goals, incentives, performance
D) People, processes, platforms
What type of organizational culture emphasizes flexibility and individuality?
A) Hierarchical
B) Market
C) Clan
D) Bureaucratic
Which of the following best describes a clan culture?
A) Rule-driven and formal
B) Competitive and performance-based
C) Family-like and collaborative
D) Innovation-averse and rigid
How is culture typically created in organizations?
A) Through market analysis
B) Through founders’ values and early successes
C) Through annual reports
D) By employee voting
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