1. The effect(s) of a stuck PTT switch is/are: A) No aircraft on frequency can be heard by ATC and ATC can't respond. B) The aircraft can transmit to ATC but they cannot respond. C) ATC can contact the aircraft but the aircraft cannot respond. D) It has no effect on communication between the aircraft and ATC.
A) No aircraft on frequency can be heard by ATC and ATC can't respond.
2. What is a possible cause of an aircraft being 'stuck on transmit'? A) PTT switch stuck down. B) PTT switch stuck up. C) Headset microphone broken. D) Headset earphones broken.
A) PTT switch stuck down.
3. The possible effect(s) of a stuck PTT switch is/are: A) The frequency to which an aircraft suffering a stuck PTT is tuned, is blocked. B) All frequencies are blocked. C) Datalink communications on that frequency are blocked. D) The pilot with the PTT is usually aware of the problem but unable to do anything about it.
A) The frequency to which an aircraft suffering a stuck PTT is tuned, is blocked.
4. The radio frequency spectrum is part of the _________ spectrum. A) electromagnetic B) infra-red C) x-ray D) visible
A) electromagnetic
5. The VHF spectrum spans the frequencies from: A) 30 to 300 MHz. B) 30 to 3000 kHz. C) 300 to 30 000 MHz. D) 30 to 3000 GHz.
A) 30 to 300 MHz.
6. The air band is the range of VHF frequencies spanning: A) 108-137 MHz. B) 108-137 kHz. C) 108-137 GHz. D) 108-1370 MHz.
A) 108-137 MHz.
7. The minimum separation between useable frequencies in the air band is: A) 8.33 kHz. B) 8.33 MHz. C) 8.33 Hz. D) 8.33 GHz.
A) 8.33 kHz.
8. Which 4 of these factors reduce the effective range and quality of VHF radio transmissions: A) Line of sight requirement. B) Curvature of the Earth. C) Atmospheric electromagnetic interference. D) Power of the transmitter. E) Air density. F) Length of the aerial.
A) Line of sight requirement. B) Curvature of the Earth. C) Atmospheric electromagnetic interference. D) Power of the transmitter.
9. The ATS term for two-way communication is: A) Air-ground communication. B) Air-to-ground communication. C) Broadcast. D) Readback.
A) Air-ground communication.
10. The ATS term for a transmission where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station can receive is: A) Blind transmission. B) Broadcast. C) Telecommunication. D) Readback.
A) Blind transmission.
11. The ATS term for a transmission not addressed to a specific station or stations is: A) Broadcast. B) Readback. C) Simplex. D) Air-ground communication.
A) Broadcast.
12. The ATS term for a communication which can take place in both directions simultaneously is: A) Duplex. B) Simplex. C) Readback. D) Non-network communications.
A) Duplex.
13. The ATS term for radiotelephony communications outside the normal lines of a radiotelephony network is: A) Non-network communications. B) Radiotelephony network. C) Telecommunication. D) Broadcast.
A) Non-network communications.
14. The ATS term for a group of radiotelephony aeronautical stations is: A) Radiotelephony network. B) Non-network communications. C) Ground-to-air communication. D) Blind transmission.
A) Radiotelephony network.
15. The ATS term for a procedure whereby the receiving station repeats a received message is: A) Readback. B) Simplex. C) Broadcast. D) Air-ground communication.
A) Readback.
16. The ATS term for a communication which takes place in one direction at a time is: A) Simplex. B) Duplex. C) Readback. D) Blind transmission.
A) Simplex.
17. The ATS term for any transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, writing, images and sounds or intelligence of any nature by wire, radio, optical or other electromagnetic systems is: A) Telecommunication. B) Duplex. C) Non-network communications. D) Radiotelephony network.
A) Telecommunication.
18. Which of the following are valid techniques for good RT comms: Mark 3 correct answers. A) Avoid using hesitation sounds such as ‘um’ and ‘err’. B) If there is no response, wait at least 10 seconds before calling again. C) Use a normal conversational tone, speak clearly and distinctly at a constant volume. D) When you need to say something, press the transmit button without delay. E) Speak at a rate of about 20 words per minute. F) Be courteous at all times. For example, always use courtesies such as please and thank you.
A) Avoid using hesitation sounds such as ‘um’ and ‘err’. B) If there is no response, wait at least 10 seconds before calling again. C) Use a normal conversational tone, speak clearly and distinctly at a constant volume.
19. Which of the following are valid techniques for good RT comms:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Use standard RT phraseology whenever possible. B) If there is no response, wait at least 10 seconds before calling again. C) Think about what you need to say before you press the transmit button. D) If the recipient needs to write down your message, repeat your message at least twice. E) Try not to pause before or after numbers, it's confusing.
A) Use standard RT phraseology whenever possible. B) If there is no response, wait at least 10 seconds before calling again. C) Think about what you need to say before you press the transmit button.
20. If voice communication conditions are poor: A) Words should be spelt phonetically. B) Words should be repeated 3 times. C) You must speak loudly. D) Try to use the ATC controller's native language to reduce potential miscommunications.
A) Words should be spelt phonetically.
21. The standard time reference is: A) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). B) Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). C) Local time in the State over which you are flying. D) Daylight Saving Time (DST).
A) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
22. In general, times are given in: A) Minutes only. B) Hours and minutes. C) Hours, minutes and seconds. D) Decimal hours.
A) Minutes only.
23. Which of the following are valid components of a test message:Mark 4 correct answers. A) The callsign of the station being called. B) The aircraft identification. C) The words ‘radio check’. D) The radio frequency being used. E) The words ‘test check’. F) The words ‘radio test’.
A) The callsign of the station being called. B) The aircraft identification. C) The words ‘radio check’. D) The radio frequency being used.
24. A readability scale reading of 1 means the responder considers the message: A) Unreadable. B) Readable now and then. C) Readable but with difficulty. D) Perfectly readable. E) Readable.
A) Unreadable.
25. From the chart given, the Morse identification for Perth VOR/DME is: A) .--. - .... B) .- -.. -. C) -.. -. -.. D) ..- -.. ..
A) .--. - ....
26. From the chart given, the Morse identification for Aberdeen VOR/DME is: A) .- -.. -. B) ..- -.. .. C) .. -. -.. D) .--. - ....
A) .- -.. -.
27. From the chart given, the Morse identification for Dundee NDB is: A) -.. -. -.. B) .--. - .... C) ..- -.. .. D) .- -.. -.
A) -.. -. -..
28. The vertical distance of the aircraft from sea level, expressed in feet is a description of: A) Altitude. B) Height. C) Flight Level. D) Attitude.
A) Altitude.
29. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the standard pressure setting (SPS) datum of 1013.2 hPa is a description of: A) Flight level. B) Altitude. C) Height. D) Attitude.
A) Flight level.
30. The vertical distance of the aircraft above a fixed point, expressed in feet is a description of: A) Height. B) Flight Level. C) Attitude. D) Altitude.
A) Height.
31. The Q-codes relating to vertical distance are:Mark 2 correct answers. A) QNH B) QFE C) QDM D) QTE E) QUJ F) QDR
A) QNH B) QFE
32. The SSR code 7700 is for: A) Emergency. B) Radio failure. C) Unlawful interference. D) Approach.
A) Emergency.
33. The SSR code 7600 is for: A) Radio failure. B) Unlawful interference. C) Emergency. D) Search and rescue services.
A) Radio failure.
34. The SSR code 7500 is for: A) Unlawful interference. B) Emergency. C) Radio failure. D) Blind transmission.
A) Unlawful interference.
35. Readback is mandatory for which of the following items:Mark all correct answers. A) ATC route clearances. B) Anything to do with a runway including clearances and conditional clearances, instructions to enter, land on, take-off from, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack on any runway. C) Runway in use. D) Altimeter settings such as QNH, QFE or a change to standard pressure setting. E) Transponder SSR codes and modes. F) Level instructions, including altitude and height instructions. G) Heading instructions. H) Speed instructions. I) Frequency changes. J) VHF direction finding information.
A) ATC route clearances. B) Anything to do with a runway including clearances and conditional clearances, instructions to enter, land on, take-off from, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack on any runway. C) Runway in use. D) Altimeter settings such as QNH, QFE or a change to standard pressure setting. E) Transponder SSR codes and modes. F) Level instructions, including altitude and height instructions. G) Heading instructions. H) Speed instructions. I) Frequency changes. J) VHF direction finding information.
36. The standard RT word for "I have received all of your last transmission" is: A) Roger. B) Wilco. C) Affirm. D) Correct.
A) Roger.
37. The standard RT word for "true or accurate" is: A) Correct. B) Wilco. C) Affirm. D) Roger.
A) Correct.
38. The standard RT word for "I understand your message and will comply with it" is: A) Wilco. B) Affirm. C) Roger. D) Correct.
A) Wilco.
39. The callsign of land-based stations comprises: the __________ of the station and the name of the __________ . A) the name ; service or unit available. B) the frequency ; service or unit available. C) the frequency ; company providing the service. D) the name ; company providing the service.
A) the name ; service or unit available.
40. Callsigns may be abbreviated __________ provided that it has first been abbreviated by the ground station. A) by ATC and the aircraft. B) by ATC only. C) by the aircraft only.
A) by ATC and the aircraft.
41. An aircraft radiotelephony callsign may comprise which of the following:Mark 3 correct answers. A) The aircraft registration. B) The aircraft operator’s telephony designator followed by the last 4 characters of the registration. C) The aircraft operator’s telephony designator followed by the flight identification. D) The aircraft operator’s telephony designator followed by the flight plan number. E) The aircraft operator’s telephony designator followed by the last 3 characters of the registration.
A) The aircraft registration. B) The aircraft operator’s telephony designator followed by the last 4 characters of the registration. C) The aircraft operator’s telephony designator followed by the flight identification.
42. The wake turbulence category of the A380 is: A) SUPER B) HEAVY C) LARGE D) HAZARDOUS
A) SUPER
43. When an ATS requests you change your callsign, for how long does this change last? A) While both flights are using the same frequency, or until ATS instructs you to revert. B) For a fixed period of 4 hours. C) For a fixed period of 3 hours. D) Until the end of the flight plan.
A) While both flights are using the same frequency, or until ATS instructs you to revert.
44. Changing and then reverting to your original callsign is instructed by ATC using these phrases: __________ your callsign to....Revert to flight plan callsign..... A) Change. B) alter C) move D) reassign
A) Change.
45. In __________ airspace you may request, or simply advise, that you are changing to a new frequency. A) uncontrolled. B) controlled. C) controlled or uncontrolled.
A) uncontrolled.
46. In__________ airspace you must receive permission before changing frequency. A) controlled. B) uncontrolled. C) controlled or uncontrolled.
A) controlled.
47. How frequently is ATIS routinely updated? A) Every 30 minutes. B) Every hour. C) Every hour. D) Only when there is a significant change.
A) Every 30 minutes.
48. When making the initial call to request clearance or start-up, what do the crew use to advise the ATS unit that the departure information has been received? A) The ATIS identifying code letter. B) Their flight plan number. C) Their aircraft callsign only. D) The ATIS identifying code number.
A) The ATIS identifying code letter.
49. Start-up and Pushback - IFR Flights.Which of the following are required to be readback:Mark 2 correct answers. A) QNH. B) Runway in use. C) Callsign. D) Stand number.
A) QNH. B) Runway in use.
50. Start-up - VFR Flight.Your initial call should include which of the following information:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Your current location. B) Your request for permission to taxi. C) Number of passengers onboard. D) Destination airport.
A) Your current location. B) Your request for permission to taxi.
51. Start-up - VFR Flight.ATC normal response to your request for start-up should include which of the following information:Mark 3 correct answers. A) Permission to taxi to the holding point. B) Runway in use. C) Current QNH. D) Permission to take-off. E) Current QFE.
A) Permission to taxi to the holding point. B) Runway in use. C) Current QNH.
52. Taxi instructions will always include: A) A clearance limit. B) QFE. C) ATIS code letter. D) Permission to take-off. E) Permission to cross an active runway. F) Permission to cross any lit stop bars.
A) A clearance limit.
53. Taxi - you are aware that your taxi route requires you to cross a runway. How will you know ATC has provided clearance to you? A) Explicit clearance will be given. B) By the holding point given by ATC. C) By ensuring you don't cross any lit stop bars on your route. D) Automatically by getting taxi clearance.
A) Explicit clearance will be given.
54. Helicopter Taxiing.How does a helicopter request clearance? A) Request lift. B) Request taxi. C) Request hover. D) Request lift and hover.
A) Request lift.
55. What does the clearance 'air taxi' authorise a helicopter to do? A) Proceed at a slow speed in ground effect, normally below 20 kt. B) Hover. C) Proceed at a slow speed in ground effect, normally below 5 kt. D) Move while in contact with the surface of the aerodrome.
A) Proceed at a slow speed in ground effect, normally below 20 kt.
56. What does the clearance 'ground taxi' authorise a helicopter to do? A) Move while in contact with the surface of the aerodrome. B) Proceed at a slow speed in ground effect, normally below 20 kt. C) Proceed at a slow speed in ground effect, normally below 5 kt. D) Hover.
A) Move while in contact with the surface of the aerodrome.
57. What does the clearance 'taxi' authorise a helicopter to do? A) Ground or air taxi. B) Air Taxi only. C) Ground taxi only. D) Hover.
A) Ground or air taxi.
58. What does the instruction 'hold' require an air taxiing helicopter to do? A) Enter the hover or touch-down. B) Immediately touch-down. C) Immediately hover. D) Stop.
A) Enter the hover or touch-down.
59. At an airport with separate ground and tower controllers when will you be handed over between Ground to Tower: A) At or before the runway holding point. B) Not before you arrive at the runway holding point. C) Prior to commencing to taxi. D) When you commence your take-off.
A) At or before the runway holding point.
60. The word cleared is only ever used by a pilot in response to a __________ issued by ATC. A) clearance. B) instruction. C) statement.
A) clearance.
61. The phrase take-off is only ever used by a crew in response to a __________ clearance issued by ATC. A) take-off. B) departure. C) take-off or departure.
A) take-off.
62. For all departure-related exchanges, other than take-off, ATC and aircraft must use the word ‘__________’. A) departure. B) instruction. C) cleared.
A) departure.
63. If you agree to an immediate departure what must you do? A) Expedite line-up and take-off. B) Start your pre-taxi checks. C) Start to taxi within 30 seconds.
A) Expedite line-up and take-off.
64. If ATC need to cancel your take-off clearance what word or phrase is used? A) Cancel. B) Stop. C) Abort. D) Return to stand.
A) Cancel.
65. If you need to abort your take-off during the take-off run what word will you use? A) Stopping. B) Abort. C) Cancel. D) Fire.
A) Stopping.
66. If ATC wishes to stop an aircraft that has begun its take-off roll what instruction is used? A) Stop immediately. B) Stop. C) Abort. D) Revoke take-off.
A) Stop immediately.
67. For a helicopter taking-off from an aerodromes with an ATS, if helicopter is within sight of the local controller, the clearance given is: A) Cleared to take-off from [position]. B) Cleared to take-off. C) Cleared to take-off from [position] at your discretion. D) Take-off and depart to [position or VFR waypoint]
A) Cleared to take-off from [position].
68. Which of the following pieces of information must be included in a conditional clearance? A) Aircraft's call-sign. B) The condition. C) The clearance. D) A brief reiteration of the condition. E) QNH. F) ATIS code letter. G) Runway number.
A) Aircraft's call-sign. B) The condition. C) The clearance. D) A brief reiteration of the condition.
69. An aircraft on a straight-in approach reports ‘long final’ at __________ nm and ‘final’ at __________ nm if not yet cleared to land. A) 8 ; 4 B) 4 ; 8 C) 8 ; 6 D) 6 ; 4
A) 8 ; 4
70. Be sure to check local procedures before you land at an unfamiliar airfield. In a standard visual circuit pattern, all turns are made to the __________ for fixed wing aircraft. Aerodromes may use a __________-hand circuit for some runways due to terrain, noise abatement or proximity to other aerodromes. A) left ; right B) right ; left C) left ; left D) right ; right
A) left ; right
71. Aerodromes have one of 3 categories of communications service: __________ : Provided by a licensed ATC officer.__________ : A lower level of service provided by a licensed Flight Information Service Officer.__________ : Provided by a radio licence holder but otherwise unregulated. A) Air Traffic Control ; Flight Information ; Air-Ground Communications. B) Air-Ground Communications ; Air Traffic Control ; Flight Information. C) Air Traffic Control ; Air-Ground Communications ; Flight Information. D) Flight Information ; Air Traffic Control ; Air-Ground Communications.
A) Air Traffic Control ; Flight Information ; Air-Ground Communications.
72. What callsign suffix is used by a flight information service officer? A) Information. B) FISO C) Service. D) Traffic. E) Radio.
A) Information.
73. A Flight Information Service Officer __________ give a line-up, take-off or landing clearance. A) Cannot. B) Can. C) Always.
A) Cannot.
74. At an aerodrome with a FISO, there is no landing clearance, only a message stating: '__________’ plus any other relevant information such as surface wind or other useful traffic information. A) land at your discretion. B) roger. C) affirm. D) land.
A) land at your discretion.
75. What callsign suffix is used by the Aerodrome Air-Ground Communications Service operator? A) Radio. B) Information. C) Ground. D) Traffic.
A) Radio.
76. What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean?
Automatic terminal information service.
77. Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"?
CTR.
78. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?
Sunrise to sunset.
79. What does the term "air-ground communication" mean?
Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth
80. When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with:
"All stations"
81. What shall the pilot's read back be for "Climb to FL 280":
Climbing to flight level two eight zero
82. Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:
Correct
83. The time is now 1123. Radar Control requests your estimate for next reporting point, which is AAL VOR/DME. You look at your operational flight plan and estimate 12 minutes (36 NM) to go to the reporting point. Your transmission is:
estimate AAL at three-five.
84. Before transmitting the pilot should...:
Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur.
85. Must a "general call" be acknowledged"?
No.
86. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?
one one eight decimal one
87. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...":
Report
88. A distress communication is in progress and the ATS unit has already acknowledged the distress message. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for you to transmit on the concerned frequency?
1, 2, 3.
89. Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency?
121.500 MHz
90. Urgency is defined as:
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance.
91. What is the definition of distress?
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance.
92. What is the maximum distance at which you may expect strong VHF reception over flat terrain at FL 140 ?
About 140 NM
93. The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:
Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading.
94. Following a distress traffic situation that has been terminated what is the correct transmission from the controlling ATC unit?
All stations - distress traffic ended.
95. A pilot has just tuned into the frequency for Seville approach and the first transmission s/he hears is 'G-AFFD, cancelling distress' This indicates that the aircraft is:
No longer in distress.
96. A pilot in flight hears an urgency message on an area control frequency that is acknowledged by the area controller. What action must the pilot take?
Take care not to interfere with the transmission of the urgency traffic.
97. Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call?
The air-ground frequency in use at the time.
98. The frequency used for the first transmission of a 'MAYDAY' call shall be:
The frequency currently in use.
99. F-GTPO is already in contact with Lille Tower and sends the following message: 'PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Lille, F-GTPO, losing engine power, requesting immediate landing runway 20, right hand base for runway 20.' Which of the following statements is correct as regards the compliance of the message with the standards for urgency transmissions?
Urgency transmissions shall be made on the air-ground frequency in use at the time.
100. Shortly after the initial contact the following transmission is heard on 118.550 MHz, the Lille Tower frequency: 'Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, Lille Tower, F-GTPO, complete engine failure, attempting a forced landing on a grass strip parallel to runway 20, currently right hand downwind for runway 20, 1000 ft.' Is the transmission following the standards for declaring an emergency?
Yes ,the necessary elements are transmitted in the specified order and on the frequency in use at the time.
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