MET 02

1. Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur, the aircraft remains in positive control at all times and the IAS fluctuates 15-25 kt. (0.5-1.0 g). This is a description of: A) Moderate turbulence B) Light turbulence. C) Severe turbulence D) Intermittent turbulence.

2. Which of the following are valid countermeasures for avoiding or countering in- flight turbulence (mark all correct answers)? A) To avoid CAT, track clear of strong, curved jet streams. B) Avoid flying in the friction layer if possible. C) Fly higher than, and upwind of, mountains. D) At very high altitude, try to avoid climbing to escape turbulence. E) Always try to fly downwind of mountains.

3. Potentially the most dangerous form of windshear is: A) Windshear on the final approach. B) Vertical windshear. C) Horizontal windshear. D) High level windshear.

4. Which of the following meteorological conditions is/are associated with a threat of low level windshear? A) Thunderstorms. B) Fronts. C) Inversions. D) Large structures close to the final approach path, upwind. E) A large heavy aircraft in front of you on the final approach. F) Jet streams.

5. Which of the following is associated with high level windshear (mark all correct answers)? A) Jet streams. B) Big tropical thunderstorms. C) The stratospheric inversion. D) Aircraft on the same track as you and ahead of you.

6. Which of the following statements is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) Downbursts are associated with strong, active, convective weather. B) The only safe countermeasure to downbursts is to avoid them completely. C) Downbursts occur when a large core of rain (that the main cumulus updraft has been holding) collapses and falls rapidly towards the ground. D) Downdraft speed is reduced by evaporation within the cloud.

7. The conditions necessary for forming mountain waves are (mark all correct answers): A) Wind speed at mountain height must be at least 15–20 kt, increasing with height. B) The wind direction must be within 30° of the perpendicular to the range of hills/mountains. C) There must be a region of marked stability (an inversion or isothermal layer) at mountain top height with less stable air above and below. D) There must be a region of marked instability at mountain top height with stable air above and below. E) The wind direction must be within 90° of the perpendicular to the range of hills/mountains.

8. Which of the following statements about mountain waves is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) Underneath the first wave crest and in particular in breaking waves, severe up and downdrafts can occur. B) Mountain waves start at the level of the mountain ridge line. C) Mountain waves can propagate up to the tropopause. D) As altitude increases the wavelength and the severity of the oscillation increases.

9. Which of the following are valid mechanisms for the creation of turbulence (mark all correct answers)? A) Convective. B) Mechanical. C) Orographic. D) Frontal. E) CAT. F) Long sea tracks. G) Intense stability.

10. Occasional turbulence is defined as turbulence which is experienced for __________ of the time. A) less than 1/3rd B) less than 2/3rds C) less than 1/2

11. A rapid, temporary, localised increase in wind speed is called a __________. A) gust B) shear C) downdraught

12. A strong difference in wind speed or direction over a relatively short distance is known as __________. A) windshear B) gust C) downdraught

13. The threat of negative windshear is a sudden __________ in airspeed. A) reduction B) increase

14. A strong low level wind that emanates from beneath convective storms and blows radially in all directions is a generic description of __________. A) a downburst B) windshear C) thunderstorm D) gust

15. __________ are small scale downbursts of 2-5 minutes and less than 4 km. The windspeed can be up to 130 kt. A) Microbursts B) Macrobursts C) Windshear D) Gust

16. __________ are large scale downbursts of 5-20 minutes, more than 4 km in area. Wind speed can exceed 130 kt. They can cause widespread damage similar to tornadoes. A) Macrobursts B) Microbursts C) Windshear D) Gust

17. Mountain waves form when winds blow at approximately __________ relative to the mountain axis. A) 90° B) 45° C) parallel D) 180°

18. For mountain waves to form the atmosphere must be __________. A) stable B) unstable

19. Mountain waves may be visible due to the presence of __________ cloud and/or rotor cloud. A) lenticular B) cumuliform

20. Jet streams have a core speed of at least __________ kt, are typically about 2000 NM long and about __________ NM wide. A) 60; 200 B) 20; 50 C) 10; 100 D) 5; 200

21. The approximate ratio of jet stream length to their width is __________:1.

22. Downbursts can create severe turbulence and __________ windshear. A) positive and negative B) positive C) negative

23. Which of the following statements about Fohn winds is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) Fohns winds result in higher ambient temperatures on the lee side of the mountain. B) The temperature difference between the windward and lee sides of the mountain is caused by cooling at the SALR followed by warming at the DALR. C) The driest air is on the lee side of the mountain. D) Fohn winds can cause rain shadows. E) Fohn winds require a flow of moist stable air. F) The temperature difference between the windward and lee side of the mountain is caused by cooling at the DALR followed by warming at the SALR.

24. Which of the following statements about wind development is/are true (mark all 4 correct answers)? A) The direction of the PGF is directly from high pressure to low pressure. B) Coriolis acts to the right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere. C) The geostrophic wind is the product of the PGF, acted on by Coriolis. D) The effect of the friction layer is to reduce Coriolis. E) Coriolis always acts to the right. F) The geostrophic wind takes into account centrifugal force. G) The geostrophic wind blows parallel to the isobars up to the top of the friction layer.

25. Which of the following statements is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) Terrain, the wind speed, stability and thermal convection are the main factors that influence the depth of the friction layer. B) From just after sunrise to about 15:00L, the surface wind veers and increases speed in the northern hemisphere and backs and increases in southern hemisphere. C) In the southern hemisphere the wind backs and increases from the surface to the friction level. D) In the northern hemisphere the wind veers and increases from the surface to the friction level. E) The friction layer over land is usually deeper during the day than at night. F) The friction layer is deeper over the sea than over land.

26. During the night the land cools much more rapidly than the sea. The warmer air over the sea rises, drawing air off the land. This describes: A) A land breeze. B) A sea breeze. C) A katabatic wind. D) An anabatic wind.

27. The Bora is a type of __________ wind. A) katabatic B) anabatic

28. Assign the correct description to the type of wind:Occurs along the valleys of coastlines east of the Adriatic sea. A) Bora B) Mistral

29. Assign the correct description to the type of wind:Forms when an area of high- pressure sits over the cold central European land mass while low-pressure develops over the warmer sea. A) Bora B) Mistral

30. Assign the correct description to the type of wind:Is driven by high-pressure over north-western Europe and low pressure in the Mediterranean. A) Mistral B) Bora

31. Assign the correct description to the type of wind:Is channelled along the Rhone valley- a natural venturi amplifying the wind speed. A) Mistral B) Bora

32. Assign the correct description to the type of wind:Is a strong, relatively cold wind occurring in southern France. A) Mistral B) Bora

33. Wind direction is given in degrees relative to __________ North in most meteorological reports and __________ North in reports broadcast by ATC. A) True; Magnetic B) True; True C) Magnetic; Magnetic D) Magnetic; True

34. A westerly wind is one which flows __________ the west. A) from B) to C) towards

35. Centrifugal force reduces the wind speed around a low and increases the speed around a high, for the same isobar spacing when compared to the geostrophic wind.This is a description of the creation of the __________ wind. A) gradient B) isobaric C) PGF

36. Overland, in the friction layer, the difference in direction between the surface wind and the geostrophic wind is about__________°.

37. Overland, in the friction layer, the surface wind speed is about __________% of the geostrophic wind speed.

38. Over the sea, the values for direction and speed are__________° and __________% respectively. A) 10; 70 B) 10; 50 C) 30; 50 D) 30; 70

39. Associate the type of wind with the appropriate description:Well developed winds in the mid-afternoon cause a general flow of air from the plains and valleys up towards the mountain tops. A) Anabatic B) Mountain C) Katabatic D) Cold Air

40. Associated the type of wind with the appropriate description:During the night, cooling surface air flows downslope. A) Katabatic B) Valley C) Mountain D) Anabatic

41. Associate the type of wind with the appropriate description:Well developed winds create flow from the tops of mountains, down the valleys and onto the plains. They peak at dawn. A) Katabatic B) Anabatic C) Valley D) Warm Air

42. Associated the type of wind with the appropriate description:During the day, warm, less dense air at the surface flows upslope. A) Anabatic B) Valley C) Katabatic D) Mountain

43. During the day, the land warms faster than the sea. The warmer air overland rises, drawing in air from the sea. This creates a low level wind which peaks at about 15:00L.This is a description of: A) A sea breeze. B) A land breeze.

44. Which of the following statements about CAT is/are true (mark all correct answers)? A) CAT is caused by a shearing effect between different wind flows. B) CAT is a sudden, severe turbulence occurring in cloudless regions that can cause violent buffeting of the aircraft. C) CAT is often associated with highly active convective cloud. D) CAT is found in and around the cold side axis of jet streams, along the axis of sharp high-level troughs and in other disturbed high-level air flows. E) The most reliable source of information on CAT is satellite imagery.

45. The temperature difference between the hot Asian land mass in summer and the cooler Indian ocean. (Mark all correct answers). A) Is the highest of the jet streams. B) Creates an easterly flowing jet stream. C) Creates a westerly flowing jet stream. D) Only occurs in the southern hemisphere. E) Is the lowest of the jet streams. F) Is the fastest of the jet streams.

46. An __________ is a line on a chart connecting points of equal height and equal barometric pressure. A) isohypse B) isotach C) isobar D) isotherm

47. An __________ is a line of equal windspeed. A) isotach B) isohypse C) isobar D) isotherm

48. Nocturnal jets, also known as boundary layer jets, are a type of __________ jet stream. A) low level B) high level

49. The primary cause of jet streams is large __________ differences between adjacent air masses. A) temperature B) pressure C) speed

50. The seasonal jet stream found only in the northern hemisphere at about 60°N in the arctic ocean is called the __________ jet stream. A) arctic front B) polar front C) easterly equatorial D) subtropical jet

51. The arctic front jet stream occurs from about 20 000 to __________ 000 ft.

52. A semi-permanent, disjointed sinuous jet stream found between 40°N and 65°N which is stronger and higher in winter is a description of the __________ __________ jet stream. A) polar front B) arctic front C) easterly equatorial D) subtropical jet

53. A permanent, persistent jet stream created by the temperature difference between the Hadley and Ferrel cells and found between 25° (winter) to 40° (summer) Is a description of the __________. A) subtropical jet stream B) polar front jet stream C) arctic front jet stream D) the easterly jet stream

54. The fastest jet stream is the __________. A) subtropical jet stream B) polar front jet stream C) arctic front jet stream D) easterly equatorial jet stream

55. Which of the following statements is/are correct (mark all correct answers)? A) Ice clouds are composed entirely of ice crystals and are most often at very high levels. B) Only significantly convective clouds (TCU,CB) are usually identified in a met report. C) The height of the cloud base is defined as the height (in feet) above ground level. D) A ceiling is defined as any cloud base obscuring more than a certain amount of the sky, either given as BKN or OVC. E) Pure water clouds are composed entirely of liquid water droplets and are usually the medium to high level clouds.

56. This cloud type is called __________ . A) cirrus B) altocumulus C) altostratus D) cirrostratus

57. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) Ci B) Ac C) AS

58. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) stable B) unstable

59. This cloud type is called __________ . A) altocumulus B) cirrus C) altostratus D) cirrostratus

60. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) Ac B) Ci C) CS D) AS

61. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) unstable B) stable

62. This cloud type is called __________ . A) altostratus B) cirrus C) altocumulus D) cirrostratus

63. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) AS B) Ci C) Ac D) CS

64. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) stable B) unstable

65. This cloud type is called __________ . A) cirrostratus B) cirrus C) altocumulus D) altostratus

66. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) CS B) Ci C) Ac D) NS

67. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) stable B) unstable

68. This cloud type is called __________ . A) nimbostratus B) cirrus C) altocumulus D) altostratus

69. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) NS B) Ci C) CS D) AS

70. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) stable B) unstable

71. This cloud type is called __________ . A) cirrocumulus B) nimbostratus C) cirrostratus D) stratus

72. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) CC B) Ci C) Ac D) NS

73. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) unstable B) stable

74. This cloud type is called __________ . A) stratus B) cirrostratus C) altostratus D) nimbostratus

75. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) ST B) CS C) NS D) AS

76. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) stable B) unstable

77. This cloud type is called __________ . A) cumulus B) altocumulus C) nimbostratus D) cirrostratus

78. The abbreviation for this cloud is __________ . A) CB B) Ac C) CS D) NS

79. It is formed in __________ atmospheric conditions. A) unstable B) stable

80. This (precipitating) cloud type is called __________ . A) cumulonimbus B) altocumulus C) nimbostratus D) cirrostratus

81. This cloud species is called __________ . A) capillatus B) cirrocumulus C) cumulonimbus D) cirrostratus

82. This cloud type is called __________ . A) altocumulus B) cumulus C) altostratus D) cirrocumulus

83. This cloud species is called __________ . A) lenticular B) altostratus C) cirrocumulus D) virga

84. This (non-precipitating) cloud type is called __________ . A) cumulus B) altocumulus C) nimbostratus D) cirrocumulus

85. This cloud species is called __________ because it is markedly sprouting and has a bulging upper part. A) congestus B) virga C) calvus D) cumulonimbus

86. This (non-precipitating) cloud type is called __________ . A) cumulus B) altocumulus C) cirrostratus D) cirrocumulus

87. This cloud species is called __________ because some protuberances of the upper part are beginning to lose their cumuliform outlines. A) calvus B) virga C) congestus D) cumulonimbus

88. This type of precipitation is called __________ . A) virga B) calvus C) congestus D) stratus

89. Mixed clouds comprise __________ and water droplets and are often the middle level clouds. A) ice crystals B) snow C) rain

90. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing likely to be encountered:Ci, Cc, Cs. A) Nil B) Light C) Moderate D) Occasionally Severe E) Light to Moderate

91. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing likely to be encountered:As. A) Light to Moderate B) Light C) Nil D) Moderate E) Occasionally Severe

92. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing likely to be encountered:Ac. A) Light to Moderate B) Moderate C) Nil D) Light E) Occasionally Severe

93. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing likely to be encountered:Ns (near its base). A) Occasionally Severe B) Nil C) Light D) Moderate E) Light to Moderate

94. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing most likely to be encountered:Cu. A) Occasionally Severe B) Light to Moderate C) Light D) Moderate E) Nil

95. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing likely to be encountered:Sc. A) Light to Moderate B) Nil C) Light D) Occasionally Severe E) Moderate

96. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing likely to be encountered:St. A) Light to Moderate B) Nil C) Light D) Moderate E) Occasionally Severe

97. Associate the cloud type with the severity of icing likely to be encountered:Cb. A) Occasionally Severe B) Nil C) Light D) Moderate E) Light to Moderate

98. Associate the reported cloud amount with the coverage in oktas:3-4 oktas. A) SCT B) SKC C) FEW D) OVC E) BKN

99. Associate the reported cloud amount with the coverage in oktas:0 oktas. A) SKC B) SCT C) FEW D) OVC E) BKN

100. Associate the reported cloud amount with the coverage in oktas:1-2 oktas. A) FEW B) SCT C) SKC D) OVC E) BKN

101. Associate the reported cloud amount with the coverage in oktas:8 oktas. A) OVC B) SCT C) SKC D) FEW E) BKN

102. Associate the reported cloud amount with the coverage in oktas:5-7 oktas. A) BKN B) SCT C) SKC D) FEW E) OVC

103. Medium clouds usually have a base above __________ and below __________ 000 ft. A) 6500; 23 B) 4000; 25 C) 6500; 30 D) 4000; 30

104. High clouds are above __________ ft. A) 16 500 B) 18 500 C) 14 500 D) 20 000

105. Which 1 of these is NOT a recognised process for cloud formation? A) Sublimation (air sublimates moisture from melting ice crystals and cools). B) Mechanical processes (air is forced up by turbulence, mountains or fronts and cools). C) Radiative cooling (surface layers cool at night through net loss of energy) D) Advection (warm, moist air moves over a cooler surface and cools). E) Conduction (air in direct contact with a cold surface cools). F) Adiabatic cooling (rising air expands and cools).

106. The Wegener–Bergeron–Findeisen process (also known as the cold-rain process) describes: A) How ice crystals grow in mixed cloud at the expense of water droplets. B) How water droplets increase in size in a cloud due to stung updrafts. C) How ice melts to create snow in a cloud. D) How water droplets increase in size as they fall through a cloud.

107. Which one of the following statements most accurately describes the mechanism for hail formation? A) Water droplets ascend in updrafts, growing by collision and coalescence, they freeze and grow further as they ascend until they are heavy enough to fall out of the cloud. B) Water droplets fall through a cumulus, gathering ice crystals as they fall. Warmer air in the lower regions of the cloud partially melts them to form a type of clear ice. C) Hail forms in the coldest types of stratus, being kept aloft by mechanical turbulence and thus growing until they are heavy enough to fall to the surface. D) Hail is produced by snow flakes which partially melt and coalesce after they fall out of the cloud.

108. Precipitation with the abbreviation FZDZ or FZRA (mark all 3 correct answers): A) Freezes instantly or slowly on contact with an aircraft in flight. B) Can be extremely dangerous. C) Comprises supercooled water droplets. D) Requires very active, convective cloud (CB) to form. E) Is relatively benign, being associated with warmer clouds in summer.

109. Which of the following statements is/are accurate (mark all correct answers)? A) Hail stones can cause very significant damage to aircraft. B) Convective clouds produce showery precipitation, characterised by rapid onset and rapid cessation. C) Low moisture content causes smaller snowflakes and thus better visibility. D) Clouds absorb terrestrial radiation and thus act as a heat source in the lower atmosphere at night. E) Stratiform cloud produces very little precipitation.

110. Turbulent mixing promotes cloud formation, usually __________ the turbulent inversion. A) just below B) just above C) at exactly

111. Clouds dissipate by the process of __________. A) evaporation B) condensation C) radiation D) advection

112. When air directly in contact with a cold surface cools and condenses into cloud, this mechanism is known as __________ cooling. A) radiative B) advective C) adiabatic D) mechanical

113. The temperature is cold enough to allow tiny ice crystals to form around microscopic bits of dirt. These tiny ice crystals then stick together when they collide, constantly increasing in size and mass.This is a description of the mechanism for creating __________. A) snow B) rain C) drizzle D) hail

114. The distinction between rain and drizzle is based largely on the size of the water droplet. Rain droplets are greater than __________ mm in diameter.

115. Drizzle is most commonly associated with clouds that have __________ updrafts. A) very weak B) very strong

116. The impact of __________ droplets falling on a water surface is imperceptible. Visibility is inversely related to both the intensity of precipitation and the number of droplets. A) drizzle B) rain

117. Snowflakes __________ in size as the temperature rises towards 0°C. A) increase B) decrease C) remain same

118. Associate the type of precipitation with the most appropriate description.Very small, opaque, white particles of ice which fall from stratiform clouds. Flat or elongated. Diameter < 1 mm. A) Snow grains B) Ice pellets C) Hail D) Snow pellets

119. Associate the type of precipitation with the most appropriate description.Transparent or translucent ice particles that cannot be crushed easily and have a diameter < 5 mm. May indicate that, at higher levels, freezing rain is present. A) Ice pellets B) Snow grains C) Hail D) Snow pellets

120. Associate the type of precipitation with the most appropriate description.Transparent or partly or completely opaque pieces of ice with a diameter 5 mm to 50 mm. A) Hail B) Snow grains C) Ice pellets D) Snow pellets

121. Associate the type of precipitation with the most appropriate description.White, opaque, approximately round ice particles. Often falling with snow, near 0 °C. Normal diameter is 2 mm to 5 mm. A) Snow pellets B) Snow grains C) Ice pellets D) Hail

122. Coalescence describes the process in which: A) Falling water droplets in relatively warm clouds (above 0°C) come together and grow until they are massive enough to fall as rain. B) Small particles of ice come together to form large clumps of hail. C) Falling ice particles in relatively warm clouds (above 0°C) descend and melt into large water droplets, eventually falling as rain. D) Falling water droplets in very cold clouds (colder than -15°C) form large droplets of supercooled rain.

123. Which 3 of the following cloud types and/or species indicate the possibility that a thunderstorm could develop? A) Cumulus. B) Cumulonimbus. C) Altocumulus Castellanus. D) Nimbostratus. E) Altocumulus lenticularis.

124. A build-up of static electricity due to collisions with particles can cause a blueish coloured light which is often seen flickering around the edges and over the surfaces of the windscreen. This is known as: A) St Elmo's fire. B) Static electricity. C) Air to air lightning. D) Bioluminescence. E) Evanescence.

125. Which 4 of the following statements about lightning and thunderstorm activity are broadly correct? A) Lighting strikes on aircraft may leave puncture holes at the entry and exit points. They can damage or disable control mechanisms and avionics. B) Nearby lighting discharges can cause momentary blindness, especially at night. C) Don’t attempt to overfly a cell because it may grow faster than your aircraft can climb. D) Weather radar returns in red or magenta indicate especially dangerous areas of convective cloud. E) Avoid storms by at least 10 nm at high level. F) SIGMETS and significant weather charts generally can't identify predicted areas of thunderstorm activity.

126. A tornado (mark all correct statements): A) Is a violently rotating column of air, in contact with the ground. B) Must be in contact with both the ground and the cloud base to be classified as such. C) Forms from large supercell thunderstorms. D) Is always accompanied by a visible funnel cloud.

127. A dust devil (mark all correct statements): A) Forms under clear skies. B) Forms in strong convective updrafts. C) Usually creates funnel cloud. D) Forms in strong downdrafts.

128. The most dangerous zones in and around a single or multi-cell storm are: A) The micro/macrobursts and hail from the anvil armpit. B) The overshooting top where ice crystal icing can occur. C) The gust front. D) Within and to the sides of the main updraft core.

129. The stages of supercell thunderstorm development are (in chronological order): A) Initial, supercell, tornado and dissipating. B) Supercell, tornado and dissipating. C) Initial, tornado, supercell, and dissipating. D) Initial, mature, supercell, tornado and dissipating.

130. Which of the following statements about thunderstorm cells is/are correct (mark all correct statements)? A) Rain begins falling in the mature stage. B) The dissipating stage comprises predominantly downdrafts. C) The initial stage comprises mostly updrafts. D) The total lifecycle of a thunderstorm cell is about 1 to 3 hours. E) The mature stage comprise mostly updrafts.

131. The typical duration of the developing stage of a thunderstorm is about __________ to __________ minutes. A) 15; 30 B) 15; 60 C) 5; 30 D) 1; 15

132. The typical duration of the mature stage of a thunderstorm is about __________ to __________ minutes. A) 15; 30 B) 15; 60 C) 5; 30 D) 1; 15

133. The typical duration of the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is __________. A) 1.5 to 2.5 hours B) 1 to 3 hours C) 15-30 mins D) 30 to 45 mins

134. A large line of intense thunderstorm activity that can stretch across hundreds of miles is called a __________ line. A) squall B) multi-cell C) frontal

135. __________ thunderstorms are associated with unstable warm fronts and most cold fronts. A) Frontal B) Multi-cell C) Air mass

136. In frontal thunderstorms __________ storms are normally high and continuous along the frontal surface. A) cold front B) warm front

137. A large, severe storm characterised with a mesocyclone/rotating updraft. The powerful rotating updraft allows the storm to live longer and become more ‘organised’ than normal single cell or multi-cell thunderstorms. They commonly produce tornadoes, large hail and destructive winds.This is a description of __________. A) a supercell storm B) an air-mass thunderstorm C) squall D) typical thunderstorm

138. Orographic storms form __________. A) in mountainous areas B) as a result of sea breezes C) at cold fronts D) at warm fronts

139. A complex of thunderstorms that becomes organised on a scale larger than individual thunderstorms, but smaller than extratropical cyclones, is called a _____. A) mesoscale convective system. B) massive convective storm. C) mesoscale convective cyclone. D) mesostrophic convective cyclone.

140. Atmospheric air is normally __________ charged. A) positively B) negatively C) neutrally

141. The Earth is normally __________ charged. A) negatively B) positively C) neutrally

142. Cloud to ground lightning delivers __________ charges from the air to the ground. A) negative B) positive C) neutral

143. Lightning which starts and ends between 2 different cells is called __________ lightning. A) intercloud B) intracloud C) mesoscale convective D) squall

144. An average tornado typically has a rotational windspeed of about __________ kt.

145. In the US, in __________ very large tornadoes can develop, with much stronger winds and a diameter of about 150 metres or more. A) spring and early summer B) late summer C) winter

146. An average tornado typically has a diameter of about 100 - 150 __________. A) metres B) ft C) kilometres D) yards

147. In-flight icing is potentially very hazardous because:Mark all 4 correct answers. A) It can severely degrade the aerodynamic performance of the wings and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser). B) It can degrade the aerodynamic performance of the fin. C) It can jam control surfaces, making them difficult or impossible to move. D) It can ice up some stages of a gas turbine compressor, causing loss of power or even flame-out. E) It can choke the venturi of a fuel injected piston engine causing loss of power. F) It can ice-up the turbine of a gas turbine engine, causing a surge or stall.

148. Which of the following statements about airframe icing is/are correct? A) Airframe icing occurs when supercooled water droplets come into contact with a sub- zero airframe. B) The worst airframe icing results from small supercooled water droplets freezing instantly on contact with the airframe. C) Rime ice is formed by slow-freezing supercooled water droplets. D) The severest airframe icing occurs when an airframe comes into contact with ice crystals at high altitude.

149. Carburettor icing:Mark 2 correct answers. A) Is a risk for carburetted piston engines. B) Usually occurs in the presence of warm, moist air when the engine is at low power. C) Is a risk for all types of piston engine. D) Most often occurs when the OAT is less than 0°C.

150. Which of the following statements about clear ice is/are correct? Clear ice:Mark all correct answers. A) Is almost transparent because it lacks air bubbles. B) Is harder and stronger than other types of icing. C) Is heavier than other types of icing. D) Covers a relatively small area of the wing compared with in-flight rime icing.

151. Orographic intensification is a process which: A) Gives more vertical uplift, resulting in potentially bigger SCWD. B) Induces turbulent mixing which reduces the incidence of large SCWD. C) Raises the altitude of the icing zone. D) Has little effect on the icing capability of stratiform clouds.

152. A thin layer of hard frost on the upper surfaces of the wings before flight: A) Is potentially very dangerous and must be removed before flight. B) Is often found on aircraft left out overnight, but is usually confined to surfaces in contact with wing fuel. C) Isn't dangerous because its likely to blow off during the take-off roll. D) Isn't dangerous because the ice layer is very thin.

153. Which of these statements about rain ice and the rain ice triangle is NOT correct? Rain ice: A) Is a relatively moderate in-flight risk because it quickly melts off the airframe. B) Requires a warm layer (> 0°C) to be producing precipitation above a very cold layer (< 0°C). C) Is most commonly associated with NS cloud along a warm front over a very cold land surface in winter. D) Requires a deep cold layer under a warm layer.

154. Which of these statements about snow is/are correct?Mark 2 correct answers. A) Snowflakes can freeze onto an aircraft whose skin temperature is <0°C. B) Cold-soaked airframes are prone to icing when snow is falling. C) Snowflakes readily flow past an airframe in flight so they pose a very minor icing risk. D) Because they form just above 0°C, snowflakes readily melt on contact with an airframe.

155. Which of these statements is/are correct? Icing is likely to occur....Mark all correct answers. A) As clear ice inside cumuliform clouds in the level between 0 to -15°C and as rime ice above this. B) In frontal systems within embedded CBs along a cold front. C) Just under a warm front in winter if freezing rain/drizzle is present. D) Within stratiform clouds, but just above and below the cloud there should be no icing.

156. Which of the following are valid precautionary measures to avoid in-flight airframe icing?Mark all orrect answers. A) In freezing precipitation along warm fronts it might be better to climb into the warmer air above if you have time and available climb performance. B) Identify the icing zones on charts and choose tracks and levels which avoid it. Pay attention to SIGMETs. C) Avoid icing conditions by flying in clear air. If this isn’t possible, descend into warmer air > 0°C or climb into very cold air >45°C. D) Turn on all anti-icing and de-icing equipment, after which in-flight icing conditions shouldn't cause a severe threat.

157. Which of the following statements about ice crystal icing is/are correct? A) Ice crystal icing affects gas turbine engines. B) Ice crystal icing is possible in any area with a high concentration of ice crystals (HIWC). C) HIWC occurs in very active convective systems with very high moisture content. D) The highest ice water content is found above the updraft core of mesoscale convective systems. E) Ice crystal icing is too small to detect on airborne weather radars. F) High concentrations of ice crystals are most likely to occur in polar latitudes at high level.

158. Large SCWD can form in ambient temperatures between 0°C and __________°C. A) -20 B) -25 C) -5 D) -15

159. Small SCWD are commonly associated with ambient temperatures between -15°C and __________°C. A) -45 B) -25 C) -20 D) -55

160. Below about __________°C SCWD are rarely, if ever, encountered. A) -45 B) -25 C) -20 D) -55

161. The largest SCWD are most likely to be found in the lower levels of __________ clouds. SCWD __________ encountered outside of cloud. A) cumuliform; are sometimes B) cumuliform; are never C) stratiform; are sometimes D) stratiform; are never

162. The most severe airframe icing is associated with __________ SCWD because, on impact with an airframe, the rate of freezing of the SCWD is __________ by the release of latent heat. A) large; slowed B) large; accelerated C) small; slowed D) small; accelerated

163. Thin wings are __________ prone to icing than thick wings. A) more B) less C) equally

164. Visible ice crystals at your flight level indicate a __________ risk of clear ice. A) lesser B) greater C) increased

165. If a SCWD instantly freezes on contact with the airframe, it usually forms __________ ice. A) rime B) clear C) mixed D) hoar frost

166. If a SCWD slowly freezes after contact with an airframe it usually creates __________ ice. A) clear B) rime C) mixed D) hoar frost

167. Rime ice is usually (but not always) limited to ambient temperatures between - 15°C and __________°C. A) -45 B) -25 C) -20 D) -55

168. Prolonged exposure to rime ice conditions __________. A) is very dangerous B) is relatively benign

169. White, hard ice with rough edges which protrudes both forwards and backwards on a leading edge. Its formation requires small and large SCWD, therefore a temperature between 0° and -20°C, in cloud with strong vertical support.This is a description of __________ ice. A) mixed B) hoar C) clear D) rime

170. A thin layer of crystalline ice that forms when water vapour desublimates onto the sub-zero surfaces of an aircraft. It usually comprises fine needle shaped ice crystals protruding outward from a thin layer of ice.This is a description of __________. A) hoar frost B) rime ice C) mixed ice D) clear ice

171. Assign the description to an icing intensity category:The rate of accumulation can overwhelm de-icing/anti-icing systems. Immediate exit from the condition is necessary or divert and land asap. A) Severe B) Trace C) Light D) Moderate

172. Assign the description to an icing intensity category:The rate of accumulation is slightly greater than rate of sublimation. It’s not hazardous unless encountered for more than 1 hour. De-icing/anti-icing is not normally required. A) Trace B) Severe C) Light D) Moderate

173. Assign the description to an icing intensity category:The rate of accumulation might create a problem if flight in this environment exceeds 1 hour. Occasional use of de-icing/anti-icing removes and prevents accumulation. A) Light B) Severe C) Trace D) Moderate

174. Assign the description to an icing intensity category:The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become potentially hazardous. A) Moderate B) Severe C) Trace D) Light

175. RVR values are usually given (mark all correct answers): A) In METARs. B) In ATIS broadcasts. C) By ATC. D) In TAFs.

176. When reporting vertical visibility, the code group VV/// means: A) The vertical visibility can't be assessed. B) The vertical visibility is unlimited. C) The vertical visibility is 90 m. D) The vertical visibility is 30 m.

177. When reporting vertical visibility at a German aerodrome, the code group VV004 means: A) The vertical visibility is 400 ft. B) The vertical visibility is 4 ft. C) The vertical visibility is 400 m. D) The vertical visibility is 4000 ft.

178. __________ is a suspension of very small water drops (liquid or solid) in the air, reducing visibility at the surface to <1000 m. A) Fog B) Mist C) Haze D) Sea smoke

179. __________ is a suspension of very small, usually microscopic water drops (liquid or solid) in the air, reducing visibility at the surface to between 1000 m and 5000 m. A) Mist B) Fog C) Haze D) Sea smoke

180. __________ is a suspension of small dust particles in the air reducing visibility to less than 5000 m. A) Haze B) Mist C) Fog D) Sea smoke

181. It forms when high pressure systems stop the vertical motion of air, trapping pollutants in the lower layers. It requires a good supply of particles from dust, sand and pollution and relatively stable atmospheric conditions.This is a description of the formation of __________. A) Haze B) Mist C) Fog D) Sea smoke

182. Fog comprising SCWD is known as __________ fog. A) freezing B) ice C) sea smoke D) haze

183. Fog comprising mostly ice crystals is known as __________ fog. A) ice B) freezing C) sea smoke D) haze

184. Only forms at night and over land. Requires a weak or slack pressure gradient. Has a depth of a few 100 feet (but sometimes fills the entire friction layer). Can be dissipated either by solar radiation or by an increase in wind speed.This is a description of __________ fog. A) radiation B) advection C) steam

185. Warm moist air passes over a cooler surface cooling its low layers below its dew point. The surface temperature must be below the dew point of the warmer air.This describes the creation of __________ fog. A) advection B) radiation C) steam

186. Is common when cold continental air passes over the comparatively warmer ocean in winter in the higher latitudes. Occurs over inland seas, lakes and rivers in winter. Dissipates when the source air becomes warmer.This is a description of __________. A) sea smoke and/or steam fog B) radiation fog C) advection fog D) arctic fog

187. The saturated air lying immediately above the warm moist surface almost instantly condenses when it comes into contact with the colder air. A marked inversion is required and temperatures are often close to zero.This describes the formation of __________ __________. A) sea smoke B) radiation fog C) advection fog D) arctic fog

188. In light winds it may form from the evaporation of raindrops saturating air near the ground. It may also result from low frontal cloud descending to the surface. It occurs in a wide band up to 200 nm ahead of a front, it moves with the front and is only ever associated with the front. It usually dissipates after the front has passed.This is a description of __________ fog. A) frontal B) radiation C) advection D) arctic

189. Which of the following statements is/are accurate?Mark all correct answers. A) DR indicates that dust, sand or snow has been raised by the wind to a height of less than 2 m. B) BL indicates that dust, sand or snow has been raised by the wind to a height greater than 2 m and that horizontal visibility has been reduced. C) SS indicates that particles of sand have been energetically lifted by a strong and turbulent winds. D) A dust storm is usually associated with hot, dry conditions just ahead of a cold front. E) Because of its larger particle size, dust generally can't be lifted as high in the atmosphere as sand.

190. Associate the definition and defined term:The greatest visibility value which is reached within at least half the horizon circle or at least half of the surface of the aerodrome. A) Prevailing visibility B) Met visibility C) RVR D) SVR

191. Associate the definition and defined term:The greatest horizontal distance at which a black object near the ground can be seen against a bright background. Or, the greatest distance at which a light of 1000 candelas can be seen against an unlit background. A) Met visibility B) Prevailing visibility C) RVR D) SVR

192. Associate the definition and defined term:The visibility at the surface near a runway in the direction of landing. A) RVR B) Prevailing visibility C) Met visibility D) SVR

193. The RVR is usually __________ the reported ground or met visibility. A) greater than B) less than C) the same as

194. The reporting code 'FG' indicates that the visibility is less than __________. A) 1000 m B) 1500 m C) 5000 m D) 500 m

195. The reporting group 'BR' indicates that the visibility is less than __________ but more than 1000 m. A) 5000 m B) 1500 m C) 3000 m D) 2500 m

196. Assessed from a point directly below the aircraft to the furthest viewable object on the surface. May be more or less than the ground visibility.Is a description of __________ visibility. A) oblique B) diagonal C) air to ground

197. Fog or mist forms when the surface air becomes __________. Further cooling causes condensation/sublimation. A) saturated B) inverted C) super-saturated

198. Hill fog is formed by __________ lifting of air. A) orographic B) thermal C) frontal

199. The RVR threshold measurement is normally taken about _____m along the runway from the threshold.

200. The RVR mid-point measurement is normally taken between _____ along the runway. A) 1000 m and 1500 m B) 300 m and 2000 m C) 300 m and 1500 m D) 1000 m and 2000 m

201. The RVR stop-end measurement is normally taken about __________m from the end of the runway.

202. The reporting group ‘BR’ indicates that the visibility is less than 5000 m but more than ____. A) 1000 m B) 1500 m C) 3000 m D) 2500 m

203. How high can a Cumulonimbus (CB) cloud be?

204. What are the typical bases of 'ALTO' type clouds in mid-latitudes?

205. Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?

206. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

207. Why are there no or very few clouds, when a high pressure area is present?

208. With reference to cloud coverage, what does the abbreviation 'BKN' mean?

209. In what type of cloud would you likely encounter the most severe icing and turbulence?

210. Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels?

211. Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?

212. Which of the following are high level clouds? Select the most complete answer.

213. Which of the following choices lists only main cloud genera that are mostly the clue for an unstable thermal stratification in the atmosphere?

214. Which type of cloud is most typical evidence of stable air conditions?

215. A strong inversion in the middle section of the troposphere would ___ the vertical development of a Cumulonimbus cloud?

216. Which of these are examples of a stable cloud?

217. Which of the following statements is correct as regards fog, mist or haze?

218. Ice crystals.

219. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?

220. In a situation with a high relative humidity, the cloud base is located relatively ___ and its top is situated where the____ meets the____. Fill in the blanks.

221. Which of the following scenarios will most likely produce advection fog?

222. Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?

223. Radiation fog.

224. ST does cause drizzle and NS rain.

225. Stratocumulus

226. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?

227. What is signified if an occlusion is described as 'cold'?

228. Which of the following will happen to the concentration of water droplets or ice particles?

229. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In a mixed cloud the ice crystals grow at the expense of supercooled water droplets. 2. In the mid-latitudes heavy rain showers are only formed by the coalescence process.

230. What is the meaning of the abbreviation 'LLWAS'?

231. In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?

232. What type of clouds can one expect after a cold front has passed?

233. in continental regions in mid-latitudes.

234. Presumes that at high levels in a cloud, some water droplets turn to ice and grow by sublimation.

235. What is a polar depression?

236. What is drizzle?

237. Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?

238. Which statement is true about the relationship between the water content of different types of winter precipitation and the associated visibility?

239. In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft structure?

240. Recognising that a flight into cumulonimbus (CB) clouds is very hazardous, a CB should be avoided visually and cleared by a minimum of (1) ___ ft vertically and (2) ___ NM laterally to minimise the risk of encountering severe turbulence. Which values should be inserted?

241. How long does a typical microburst last?

242. What do you understand by "Saint Elmo's Fire"?

243. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct?

244. A pilot is planning to depart from an airfield at sea level in the southern hemisphere below a layer of nimbo-stratus cloud with ceiling 5000 ft, the surface temperature at the airfield is +3°C, +7°C at the cloud ceiling, and it is raining. The aircraft's initial track will be towards a nearby mountain range. Which of the following phenomena might indicate a risk of icing outside of the cloud shortly after take-off?

245. Affects a larger area.

246. Which statement corresponds to the definition of severe turbulence?

247. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?

248. all of the answers described are correct.

249. What can a pilot do to avoid Ice Crystal Icing?

250. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft?

251. What weather situation leads to the formation of a downburst?

252. What is the main source of energy in a thunderstorm?

253. Which conditions are the best to create ice crystal icing?

254. What kind of turbulence is dependent on the sun's radiation and therefore follows a pronounced diurnal pattern?

255. A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate turbulence you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?

256. Before a planned take-off, wind shear is forecast. What is the most advisable course of action?

257. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion?

258. With which meteorological phenomena are windshear conditions mostly associated?

259. has a diameter of up to 4 km.

260. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is unable to de-ice, nor land?

261. After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you encounter?

262. What is the definition of "ice water content" (IWC)?

263. Is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces.

264. During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterised by roll clouds most likely to occur?

265. What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most favourable for its formation?

266. What is mixed ice/opaque Ice and where can it be found?

267. What cloud can produce FZRA?

268. Not noticing hoar frost, as it may not have changed the aerodynamic shape of the wing.

269. Orographic intensification as the air is forced to rise over the mountain barrier.

270. Concerning standing waves, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located?

271. At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?

272. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves?

273. Supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process.

274. Which of the following statements about lightning and lightning strikes is correct?

275. Which of the following describes the Ice Water Content (IWC) of a cloud?

276. Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?

277. What are the conditions required for the formation of hoar frost?

278. 171020Z 21005KT 9000 FEW030TCU FEW033CB SCT040 BKN100 19/18 Q1005 TEMPO 25015G25KT 3000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB. What is the conclusion for a pilot flying in the weather mentioned in the message above?

279. What is likely to happen in a valley?

280. Which of the following phenomena causes a reduction in visibility and is defined as obscuration?