1. Which of the following best describes Runway Visual Range? A) The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings; or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line. B) The range at which the pilot of an aircraft on the extended centre line of a runway during an approach to land is able to see the centre line of a runway. C) The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see either the runway surface markings, including the runway centre line; or the runway centre line lights and runway edge lights. D) The range at which the pilot of an aircraft on the extended centre line of a runway during an approach to land can see the runway surface markings; or the lights delineating the runway or its centre line.
A) The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings; or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.
2. For what reason shall an operator establish aerodrome operating minima for each departure, destination or alternate aerodrome planned for use? A) Ensure separation of aircraft from terrain and obstacles. B) Mitigate the risk of loss of visual references during the visual flight segment of instrument approach operations. C) Provide efficient flow of traffic during visual flight procedures. D) Ensure safe flow of traffic during VFR and IFR flight procedures. E) Ensure safe separation of traffic during VFR and IFR flight procedures.
A) Ensure separation of aircraft from terrain and obstacles. B) Mitigate the risk of loss of visual references during the visual flight segment of instrument approach operations.
3. Which of the following apply to aerodrome operating minima, as defined by the limits of usability of an aerodrome? A) Take-off, expressed in terms of RVR/VIS, and possibly ceiling. B) Landing using 2D instrument approach operations - in terms of VIS/RVR, MDA/H and possibly ceiling. C) Landing using 3D instrument approach operations - in terms of VIS/RVR and DA/H. D) Take-off, expressed in terms of ceiling only. E) Landing using 2D instrument approach operations - in terms of RVR and DA/H. F) Landing using 3D instrument approach operations - in terms of VIS and MDA/H. G) Landing using GNSS instrument approach operations - in terms of RVR, DA/H and RNP vallue
A) Take-off, expressed in terms of RVR/VIS, and possibly ceiling. B) Landing using 2D instrument approach operations - in terms of VIS/RVR, MDA/H and possibly ceiling. C) Landing using 3D instrument approach operations - in terms of VIS/RVR and DA/H.
4. Which of the following are instrument approach categories? A) CAT I IAP with VIS ≥800 m or RVR ≥550 m and a DH ≥ 200 ft B) Type B approaches with DH/MDH ≥200 ft C) Type A approaches with DH/MDH ≥500 ft D) Type B approaches with DH/MDH ≥500 ft E) Type B approaches with DH/MDH ≥250 ft F) Type A approaches with DH/MDH ≥200 ft
A) CAT I IAP with VIS ≥800 m or RVR ≥550 m and a DH ≥ 200 ft B) Type B approaches with DH/MDH ≥200 ft
5. Which of the following are instrument approach categories? A) CAT I IAP with VIS ≥800 m or RVR ≥550 m and a DH ≥ 200 ft B) CAT III IAP with RVR <300 m or no RVR and a DH <100 ft or no DH. C) CAT II IAP with RVR ≥300 m and a DH <200 ft and ≥ 100 ft D) CAT II IAP with RVR ≥250 m and a DH ≥ 100 ft E) CAT III IAP with no RVR and no DH. F) CAT I IAP with RVR ≥800 m and a DH ≥ 200 ft
A) CAT I IAP with VIS ≥800 m or RVR ≥550 m and a DH ≥ 200 ft B) CAT III IAP with RVR <300 m or no RVR and a DH <100 ft or no DH. C) CAT II IAP with RVR ≥300 m and a DH <200 ft and ≥ 100 ft
6. Which of the following are classifications of instrument approaches? A) Non-precision approach (NPA) - IAP designed for 2D Type A operations. B) Precision approach (PA) - IAP designed for 3D Type A or Type B operations. C) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) - PBN IAP designed for 3D Type A operations. D) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) - PBN IAP designed for 3D Type B operations. E) Precision approach (PA) - IAP designed for 3D Type B operations. F) Non-precision approach (NPA) - IAP designed for 2D Type A or Type B operations.
A) Non-precision approach (NPA) - IAP designed for 2D Type A operations. B) Precision approach (PA) - IAP designed for 3D Type A or Type B operations. C) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) - PBN IAP designed for 3D Type A operations.
7. If the VIS or controlling RVR is less than the minimum for the approach, the approach may not be continued:(Select 2) A) Past a point at which the aeroplane is 1000 ft above the aerodrome elevation. B) Into final approach segment (FAS) if the DH/MDH is higher than 1000 ft. C) Into final approach segment (FAS) if the DH/MDH is below 1000 ft. D) Into final approach segment (FAS) if DH/MDH is below 500 ft above aerodrome. E) Past a point at which the aeroplane is 500 ft above the aerodrome elevation. F) Past a point at which the aeroplane is 2000 ft above the aerodrome elevation.
A) Past a point at which the aeroplane is 1000 ft above the aerodrome elevation. B) Into final approach segment (FAS) if the DH/MDH is higher than 1000 ft.
8. Which of the following elements shall be considered by the operator when establishing aerodrome operating minima?(Select 4) A) The aircraft type and performance. B) The runway and aerodrome characteristics, equipment and environment. C) The published OCH for the approach procedure and obstacles in the climb-out areas. D) Composition of flight crew, their competence and experience. E) Typical meteorological conditions for the aerodrome. F) Statistical reliability of the aircraft's ILS equipment. G) Statistical reliability of the aerodrome's ground equipment.
A) The aircraft type and performance. B) The runway and aerodrome characteristics, equipment and environment. C) The published OCH for the approach procedure and obstacles in the climb-out areas. D) Composition of flight crew, their competence and experience.
9. The visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway not suitably located for a straight-in approach'. This is a description of: A) A circling approach. B) A visual approach. C) A go-around. D) A turning approach.
A) A circling approach.
10. Procedures applied by an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safety during low-visibility operations (LVOs)' is the definition applied to: A) Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) B) Local Visibility Procedures (LVP) C) Low Visibility Take-off Procedures (LVTOP) D) Low Visibility Approach Operation Procedures (LVAOP)
A) Low Visibility Procedures (LVP)
11. You can continue a CAT I approach below MDA/H or DA/H if you can see at least 1 of which of the following:Mark all correct answers. A) Elements of approach lighting system. B) The runway threshold or its markings. C) The threshold lights. D) The visual glide slope indicator. E) The touchdown zone or its markings. F) The touchdown zone lights or runway edge lights. G) Other visual references acceptable to the Authority. H) Any part of the surface during the approach.
A) Elements of approach lighting system. B) The runway threshold or its markings. C) The threshold lights. D) The visual glide slope indicator. E) The touchdown zone or its markings. F) The touchdown zone lights or runway edge lights. G) Other visual references acceptable to the Authority.
12. A Type B CAT I instrument approach may not be continued if which of the following are not visible by DA/H?(Select 4) A) Elements of the approach lighting system B) Threshold or threshold markings. C) Threshold lights or threshold identification lights. D) The visual glide path indicator. E) The air traffic control tower. F) The parking stands or manouevering apron. G) Other visual references specified in the Operations Manual. H) Any part of the landing distance assessment area during the approach.
A) Elements of the approach lighting system B) Threshold or threshold markings. C) Threshold lights or threshold identification lights. D) The visual glide path indicator.
13. Which of the following require specific approval from the competent authority prior to commencing LVO?(Select 3) A) Take-off with visibility less than 400 m. B) Instrument approach operations in low-visibility conditions. C) Operations with operational credits. D) Type B CAT I approaches. E) EFVS 200 approaches. F) ILS approaches with a DH >200ft.
A) Take-off with visibility less than 400 m. B) Instrument approach operations in low-visibility conditions. C) Operations with operational credits.
14. Single-pilot CAT I operations may be conducted, when the minimum RVR is less than 800 m. Which of the following are valid restrictions under these conditions?(Select 3) A) A suitable autopilot is required, coupled to an ILS, MLS or GLS or an approved HUDLS including, where appropriate, EVS or an equivalent approved system. B) Where runway touchdown zone lighting (RTZL) and/or runway centreline lighting (RCLL) aren’t available, the minimum RVR should not be less than 600 m. C) An RVR of less than 800 m may be used for approach with vertical guidance (APV) operations to runways with FALS, RTZL and RCLL when using an approved HUDLS (or equivalent approved system) or when conducting a coupled approach to a DH equal to or greater than 250 ft. D) Where runway touchdown zone lighting (RTZL) and/or runway centreline lighting (RCLL) aren’t available, the minimum RVR should not be less than 750 m.
A) A suitable autopilot is required, coupled to an ILS, MLS or GLS or an approved HUDLS including, where appropriate, EVS or an equivalent approved system. B) Where runway touchdown zone lighting (RTZL) and/or runway centreline lighting (RCLL) aren’t available, the minimum RVR should not be less than 600 m. C) An RVR of less than 800 m may be used for approach with vertical guidance (APV) operations to runways with FALS, RTZL and RCLL when using an approved HUDLS (or equivalent approved system) or when conducting a coupled approach to a DH equal to or greater than 250 ft.
15. Which of the following aircraft equipment and pilot experience requirements are needed for single-pilot IFR operations?(Select 4) A) Altitude hold. B) Heading mode. C) 50 hours IFR flight time (10 hours as commander) on the relevant type or class of aeroplane. D) During the preceding 90 days, 5 single-pilot IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches; or an IFR instrument approach check. E) During the preceding 120 days, 5 single-pilot IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches; or an IFR instrument approach check. F) Automatic flight control system. G) 100 hours IFR flight time (20 hours as commander) on the relevant type or class of aeroplane. H) 200 hours IFR flight time (50 hours as commander) on the relevant type or class of aeroplane.
A) Altitude hold. B) Heading mode. C) 50 hours IFR flight time (10 hours as commander) on the relevant type or class of aeroplane. D) During the preceding 90 days, 5 single-pilot IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches; or an IFR instrument approach check.
16. What equipment is required for determinatiojn of DH in CAT II and CAT III apporaches? A) Radio altimeter B) GNSS VNAV C) GNSS SBAS D) Air Data Computer
A) Radio altimeter
17. Which of the following are classified as operations with operational credits? (Select 3) A) SA CAT I B) SA CAT II C) EFVS 200 D) CAT II E) CAT III F) Type B CAT I IAP G) Circling approach with DH
A) SA CAT I B) SA CAT II C) EFVS 200
18. Ice forming on pitot tubes, static ports or angle-of-attack vanes may give false indications to air data systems and instruments of:Mark all correct answers. A) Altitude. B) Airspeed. C) Angle-of-attack. D) Engine power/EPR/thrust.
A) Altitude. B) Airspeed. C) Angle-of-attack. D) Engine power/EPR/thrust.
19. Complying with the clean aircraft concept requires:Mark all correct answers. A) Thorough and complete de-icing of all critical surfaces. B) (Usually) an application of anti-icing fluid to protect against further contamination. C) Visual or physical inspection of all critical surfaces before take-off if any doubt exists about contamination. D) De-icing of all critical surfaces (but a light hoar frost is acceptable).
A) Thorough and complete de-icing of all critical surfaces. B) (Usually) an application of anti-icing fluid to protect against further contamination. C) Visual or physical inspection of all critical surfaces before take-off if any doubt exists about contamination.
20. Any localised treatment to the aircraft must be carried out __________ otherwise, a difference in lift could cause uncommanded roll immediately after take-off. A) symmetrically B) completely
A) symmetrically
21. Pre-take off checks for icing:Mark all correct answers. A) Are the responsibility of the commander. B) Should be done as close to the time of take-off as practicable. C) Are normally made from within the aeroplane by visually inspecting the wings. D) Are the responsibility of the de-icing crew. E) Are the responsibility of the SCCM when the wings can't be seen from the flight deck.
A) Are the responsibility of the commander. B) Should be done as close to the time of take-off as practicable. C) Are normally made from within the aeroplane by visually inspecting the wings.
22. An application of heated anti-icing fluid to de-ice the aeroplane which then remains on the surface to provide anti-icing for a limited period'.This is a description of: A) A 1-step de-icing/anti-icing treatment. B) De-icing. C) A holdover application. D) A 2-step de-icing/anti-icing treatment.
A) A 1-step de-icing/anti-icing treatment.
23. 'A precautionary procedure which protects clean surfaces against ice formation for a limited period of time'. This is a description of: A) Anti-icing. B) De-icing. C) A 1-step de-icing/anti-icing. D) A 2-step de-icing/anti-icing treatment.
A) Anti-icing.
24. De-icing followed by anti-icing to provide maximum possible protection'. This a description of: A) A 2-step de-icing/anti-icing treatment. B) Anti-icing. C) De-icing. D) A 1-step de-icing/anti-icing.
A) A 2-step de-icing/anti-icing treatment.
25. The estimated time that anti-icing fluid will prevent ice and frost formation and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces'.This is a description of: A) The holdover time. B) The failure time. C) The maximum time for flight in severe icing conditions. D) The anti-icing decision time.
A) The holdover time.
26. For an aircraft to operate in icing conditions at night, it must be equipped with a means to illuminate __________. A) the wing leading edges B) the entire wing C) the entire aircraft
A) the wing leading edges
27. Which of the following factors may affect the holdover time?Mark all correct answers. A) The type and rate of precipitation. B) The ambient temperature. C) The relative humidity. D) The wind direction and velocity. E) The aircraft's skin temperature. F) The type of de/anti-icing fluids used and the fluid/water ratio. G) The effect of jet blast. H) The aircraft's taxiing speed.
A) The type and rate of precipitation. B) The ambient temperature. C) The relative humidity. D) The wind direction and velocity. E) The aircraft's skin temperature. F) The type of de/anti-icing fluids used and the fluid/water ratio. G) The effect of jet blast.
28. Following de/anti-icing, the commander must:Mark all correct answers. A) Record the action in the aircraft's technical log. B) Monitor conditions before take-off, and assess whether the holdover time is still appropriate. C) Carry out pre-take-off contamination check or arrange for pre-take-off contamination check. D) Abandon the plan to take-off if further contamination of the critical surfaces occurs.
A) Record the action in the aircraft's technical log. B) Monitor conditions before take-off, and assess whether the holdover time is still appropriate. C) Carry out pre-take-off contamination check or arrange for pre-take-off contamination check. D) Abandon the plan to take-off if further contamination of the critical surfaces occurs.
29. Which of the following aircraft performance indications may help to identify low- level wind shear?Mark all correct answers. A) Indicated airspeed variation up or down > 15 kt. B) Ground speed variations. C) Unexpected vertical speed variations in excess of 500 fpm. D) Unexpected pitch attitude variations > 5 degrees. E) Glide slope deviation of 1 dot. F) Heading variations > 10 degrees. G) Unusual auto throttle activity or thrust lever positions. H) Clear air turbulence. I) A rate of decent lower than 600 fpm on finals.
A) Indicated airspeed variation up or down > 15 kt. B) Ground speed variations. C) Unexpected vertical speed variations in excess of 500 fpm. D) Unexpected pitch attitude variations > 5 degrees. E) Glide slope deviation of 1 dot. F) Heading variations > 10 degrees. G) Unusual auto throttle activity or thrust lever positions.
30. If wind shear is encountered, or wind shear warnings are triggered on the approach:Mark all correct answers. A) Set and maintain TOGA thrust. B) Follow the FD pitch commands. If the FD is not available, fly close to stick- shaker/stall warning angle of attack. C) Do not change flaps or landing gear configuration until out of wind shear. D) If autopilot is engaged, leave it engaged. E) Unless a turn is required for obstacle clearance, level the wings to maximise climb gradient. F) If autopilot is engaged, disengage it.
A) Set and maintain TOGA thrust. B) Follow the FD pitch commands. If the FD is not available, fly close to stick- shaker/stall warning angle of attack. C) Do not change flaps or landing gear configuration until out of wind shear. D) If autopilot is engaged, leave it engaged. E) Unless a turn is required for obstacle clearance, level the wings to maximise climb gradient.
31. If wind shear conditions are suspected before take-off you should:Mark all correct answers. A) Seriously consider delaying the take-off. B) Choose a more favourable runway if possible. C) Use your weather radar and PWS to check the flight path before starting the take-off roll. D) Use TOGA thrust. E) Closely monitor airspeed and the speed trend during the take-off roll.
A) Seriously consider delaying the take-off. B) Choose a more favourable runway if possible. C) Use your weather radar and PWS to check the flight path before starting the take-off roll. D) Use TOGA thrust. E) Closely monitor airspeed and the speed trend during the take-off roll.
32. Water is not displaced from under the tyres fast enough to allow the tyre to make pavement contact'. This is a description of: A) Dynamic hydroplaning. B) Viscous hydroplaning. C) Reverted rubber hydroplaning. D) Anti-skid failure.
A) Dynamic hydroplaning.
33. The inability of a tyre to penetrate a very thin residual fluid film left on the pavement after most trapped water has been displaced'. This is a description of: A) Viscous hydroplaning. B) Dynamic hydroplaning. C) Reverted rubber hydroplaning. D) A contaminated runway.
A) Viscous hydroplaning.
34. Friction generates heat, and the temperature rise turns residual water into high pressure steam. The steam causes the rubber to ‘revert’, becoming soft and gummy, which traps steam within the tyre's footprint'. This is a description of: A) Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B) Dynamic hydroplaning. C) Viscous hydroplaning. D) Emergency braking.
A) Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
35. The dynamic hydroplaning spin-down speed (for a rotating tyre) is: A) 9√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt. B) 7.7√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt. C) 9.7√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt. D) 7√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt.
A) 9√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt.
36. The dynamic hydroplaning spin-up speed (for a non-rotating tyre) is: A) 7.7√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt. B) 9√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt. C) 9.7√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt. D) 7.9 √P (P= Pressure in psi) kt.
A) 7.7√P (P= Pressure in psi) kt.
37. In a SNOWTAM a runway condition code of 5 means: A) The estimated braking action is GOOD. B) The estimated braking action is POOR. C) The estimated braking action is EXCELLENT.
A) The estimated braking action is GOOD.
38. A runway observed to have > 3 mm depth of standing water or slush is given a runway condition code of: A) 2 B) NIL
A) 2
39. A runway designated a SNOWTAM code of 1 will have what contamination on its surface: A) ICE B) COMPACTED SNOW C) SLUSH D) WET ICE
A) ICE
40. The mitigating actions when landing on a runway with reduced braking action are:Mark all correct answers. A) Land with maximum flap/lowest landing speed, set auto brakes to HIGH or MAX. B) Ensure anti-skid operative, touch-down firmly after brief flare. C) Use maximum reverse thrust. D) Do not use reverse thrust because of the risk of asymmetric deployment.
A) Land with maximum flap/lowest landing speed, set auto brakes to HIGH or MAX. B) Ensure anti-skid operative, touch-down firmly after brief flare. C) Use maximum reverse thrust.
41. The 3 factors combining to give greatest wake vortices are:Mark all correct answers. A) High aircraft mass. B) Low airspeed. C) Clean configuration. D) Flaps extended. E) High airspeed.
A) High aircraft mass. B) Low airspeed. C) Clean configuration.
42. Birds tend to flock where food is plentiful, such as: A) Rubbish tips and landfill sites. B) Recently ploughed fields. C) Open sewage treatment plants. D) Crops. E) Runways.
A) Rubbish tips and landfill sites. B) Recently ploughed fields. C) Open sewage treatment plants. D) Crops.
43. Commanders must report bird activity to __________ using an ASR. A) ATC. B) the Operator. C) the Authority.
A) ATC.
44. Microbursts are highly concentrated, powerful downdrafts of air:Mark all correct answers. A) Typically less than 5 km across. B) Usually lasting 1 to 5 minutes. C) Involving vertical flows of 60 kt or more. D) Producing wind changes in excess of 45 kt to the sides the downdraft core. E) Often associated with very strong inversions.
A) Typically less than 5 km across. B) Usually lasting 1 to 5 minutes. C) Involving vertical flows of 60 kt or more. D) Producing wind changes in excess of 45 kt to the sides the downdraft core.
45. Which of the following are valid wake turbulence countermeasures:Mark all correct answers. A) Avoid landing or taking off immediately behind another aircraft, especially if it’s heavy. B) Increase time separation when there is a larger difference in mass between a heavier preceding aircraft and a lighter following aircraft. C) Light winds increase the risk of a wake turbulence encounter on the runway. D) Avoid flying directly underneath a much heavier aircraft. E) Attempt to fly out of an area of wake turbulence rather than trying to counteract the effects with control inputs. F) Increase speed to increase your control effectiveness and reduce the magnitude of the effects of the wake turbulence. G) Never attempt to fly out of an area of wake turbulence always try to counteract the effects with control inputs.
A) Avoid landing or taking off immediately behind another aircraft, especially if it’s heavy. B) Increase time separation when there is a larger difference in mass between a heavier preceding aircraft and a lighter following aircraft. C) Light winds increase the risk of a wake turbulence encounter on the runway. D) Avoid flying directly underneath a much heavier aircraft. E) Attempt to fly out of an area of wake turbulence rather than trying to counteract the effects with control inputs.
46. Which of the following statements about birdstrikes is/are accurate?Mark 3 correct answers. A) The majority of birdstrikes occur during the approach and landing phases and take- off. B) The majority of birdstrikes occur below 2500 ft. C) There is no risk of birdstrike above 5000 ft. D) Birds tends to 'break' downwards to escape a collision with an aircraft. E) Short grass discourages flocks of birds because of the relative lack of cover in which to hide.
A) The majority of birdstrikes occur during the approach and landing phases and take- off. B) The majority of birdstrikes occur below 2500 ft. D) Birds tends to 'break' downwards to escape a collision with an aircraft.
47. Which of the following statements about wake vortices is/are accurate?Mark all correct answers. A) Away from the ground, vortices tend to drift slowly downwards and outwards behind the aircraft and level off, usually not more than 1000 ft below the flight path. B) Close to the ground, vortices move outwards from the aircraft at between 2-5 kt. C) Vortex generation begins when the aircraft rotates/increases collective on take-off and ends on landing when the aircraft's weight is transferred to its undercarriage. D) Tip vortices are not possible when aeroplane flaps are fully extended.
A) Away from the ground, vortices tend to drift slowly downwards and outwards behind the aircraft and level off, usually not more than 1000 ft below the flight path. B) Close to the ground, vortices move outwards from the aircraft at between 2-5 kt. C) Vortex generation begins when the aircraft rotates/increases collective on take-off and ends on landing when the aircraft's weight is transferred to its undercarriage.
48. Slow decompression is caused by component or controller failure, and may not be obvious. Signs include:Mark all correct answers. A) Hissing/whistling sounds. B) Ears ‘popping.’ C) Body cavities (teeth, gut, sinuses) giving mild discomfort. D) Mild hypoxia effects. E) Indications of cabin altitude rise or differential pressure fall. F) Misting in the cabin.
A) Hissing/whistling sounds. B) Ears ‘popping.’ C) Body cavities (teeth, gut, sinuses) giving mild discomfort. D) Mild hypoxia effects. E) Indications of cabin altitude rise or differential pressure fall.
49. If slow decompression is suspected:Mark all correct answers. A) Don oxygen masks and re-establish crew communications. B) Close all controllable aircraft vents. C) Switch off the pressurisation controller. D) Descend to a lower altitude.
A) Don oxygen masks and re-establish crew communications. B) Close all controllable aircraft vents. D) Descend to a lower altitude.
50. Which of the following are valid possible physiological effects resulting from decompression at high altitude:Mark all correct answers. A) Gases in body cavities expanding - popping ears etc. B) Tingling lips, feeling light-headed. C) Slurred speech. D) Confused thought. E) Unconsciousness. F) Hyperactivity. G) Itching skin.
A) Gases in body cavities expanding - popping ears etc. B) Tingling lips, feeling light-headed. C) Slurred speech. D) Confused thought. E) Unconsciousness.
51. Signs of rapid decompression include:Mark all correct answers. A) A loud bang, followed by misting in the cabin. B) A cabin altitude warning. C) Cabin oxygen masks deployed automatically. D) Sudden discomfort in teeth, gut or sinuses.
A) A loud bang, followed by misting in the cabin. B) A cabin altitude warning. C) Cabin oxygen masks deployed automatically. D) Sudden discomfort in teeth, gut or sinuses.
52. Possible actions in event of rapid decompression:Mark all correct answers. A) Immediately don oxygen mask, set 100% and emergency oxygen. B) Establish crew communications. C) Begin an emergency descent to a lower altitude following OM procedure. D) Declare an emergency to ATC. E) Land at nearest suitable airport. F) Open all aircraft vents to prevent damage to the fuselage.
A) Immediately don oxygen mask, set 100% and emergency oxygen. B) Establish crew communications. C) Begin an emergency descent to a lower altitude following OM procedure. D) Declare an emergency to ATC. E) Land at nearest suitable airport.
53. Safety precautions in event of severe brake overheat include:Mark all correct answers. A) Stop the aircraft on the runway or, preferably, on the taxiway. B) Request the attendance of the fire crew. C) Ensure than no-one approaches the landing gear. D) Aa soon as possible check the integrity of the fusible plugs on each tyre.
A) Stop the aircraft on the runway or, preferably, on the taxiway. B) Request the attendance of the fire crew. C) Ensure than no-one approaches the landing gear.
54. The immediate actions in event of smoke in the flight deck are:Mark all correct answers. A) Oxygen masks - ON, set 100%, set Emergency. B) Establish crew communication. C) Depressurise the aircraft to starve the fire of oxygen.
A) Oxygen masks - ON, set 100%, set Emergency. B) Establish crew communication.
55. Which of the following is valid guidance for cabin crew in the event of smoke in the cabin?Mark all correct answers. A) Do not open the cockpit door unless absolutely necessary. B) Move passengers away from the area if possible. C) Encourage passengers to keep their heads as low as possible. D) Use PBE. E) Ask the flight crew to operate the cabin extinguisher system.
A) Do not open the cockpit door unless absolutely necessary. B) Move passengers away from the area if possible. C) Encourage passengers to keep their heads as low as possible. D) Use PBE.
56. Which of the following are accurate statements about fire on board?Mark all correct answers. A) The flight crew must memorise the immediate actions because there may be little time to read from checklists. B) A fire on board is a very serious emergency requiring immediate action. C) One of the principal immediate threats from a fire on board is toxic gases. D) A fire in the cabin or in cargo compartments may disable flight controls and cause multiple system failures. E) Modern passenger aircraft are designed so that fire and smoke cannot escape from a cargo compartment into the cabin or flight deck.
A) The flight crew must memorise the immediate actions because there may be little time to read from checklists. B) A fire on board is a very serious emergency requiring immediate action. C) One of the principal immediate threats from a fire on board is toxic gases. D) A fire in the cabin or in cargo compartments may disable flight controls and cause multiple system failures.
57. Which of the following factors may lead to the decision to carry out a precautionary landing?Mark all correct answers. A) A major system failure - e.g. engine failure. B) Malfunctions for which the checklist includes ‘LAND ASAP’ or similar. C) Malfunctions resulting in significantly increased fuel consumption. D) Malfunctions requiring a landing with reduced performance margins. E) Any situation where good airmanship requires it. F) Multiple major system failures rendering a safe landing in doubt. G) Partial loss of control. H) Loss of all engine thrust. I) Unextinguished engine or aircraft fire.
A) A major system failure - e.g. engine failure. B) Malfunctions for which the checklist includes ‘LAND ASAP’ or similar. C) Malfunctions resulting in significantly increased fuel consumption. D) Malfunctions requiring a landing with reduced performance margins. E) Any situation where good airmanship requires it.
58. Which of the following factors may lead to emergency landing:Mark all correct answers.Mark all correct answers. A) Multiple major system failures rendering a safe landing in doubt. B) Partial loss of control. C) Loss of all engine thrust. D) Unextinguished engine or aircraft fire. E) A major system failure - e.g. engine failure. F) Malfunctions for which the checklist includes ‘LAND ASAP’ or similar. G) Malfunctions resulting in significantly increased fuel consumption. H) Malfunctions requiring a landing with reduced performance margins. I) Any situation where good airmanship requires it.
A) Multiple major system failures rendering a safe landing in doubt. B) Partial loss of control. C) Loss of all engine thrust. D) Unextinguished engine or aircraft fire.
59. Ditching is an emergency landing carried out on water. There are only 2 reasons to do this:Mark all correct answers. A) The aircraft cannot continue flight - e.g. total loss of thrust, impending loss of hydraulic power. B) The aircraft is on fire and needs to be evacuated. C) The aircraft has been intercepted by a military aircraft.
A) The aircraft cannot continue flight - e.g. total loss of thrust, impending loss of hydraulic power. B) The aircraft is on fire and needs to be evacuated.
60. The ditching procedure is type-specific but generally includes which of the following actions?Mark all correct answers. A) Notify ATC. B) Turn OFF TAWS. C) Turn ON the emergency exit lights. D) Turn OFF all non-essential electrical circuits. E) Set the cabin altitude to zero. F) Keep the landing gear UP. G) Turn all bleeds OFF. H) Close all aircraft hull openings. I) Over pressurise the aircraft to prevent leaks after landing. J) Flight crew don oxygen masks (100% + Emerg) just before touch down.
A) Notify ATC. B) Turn OFF TAWS. C) Turn ON the emergency exit lights. D) Turn OFF all non-essential electrical circuits. E) Set the cabin altitude to zero. F) Keep the landing gear UP. G) Turn all bleeds OFF. H) Close all aircraft hull openings.
61. Most aircraft after-ditching drills require you to:Mark all correct answers. A) Operate all fire switches. B) Discharge unused engine/APU extinguishers C) Notify ATC of your position if possible. D) Command passenger evacuation. E) Switch OFF all aircraft batteries. F) Turn on the APU to provide emergency lighting during the evacuation. G) Evacuate the flight deck using the overhead hatch.
A) Operate all fire switches. B) Discharge unused engine/APU extinguishers C) Notify ATC of your position if possible. D) Command passenger evacuation. E) Switch OFF all aircraft batteries.
62. The actions and responsibilities of the cabin crew after an emergency landing include:Mark all correct answers. A) Opening the appropriate emergency exits. B) Ensuring deployment of the evacuation slides. C) Directing the passenger evacuation. D) Maintaining control of passengers after the evacuation. E) Opening all emergency exits to minimise evacuation time. F) Safely evacuating the flight crew (except the commander).
A) Opening the appropriate emergency exits. B) Ensuring deployment of the evacuation slides. C) Directing the passenger evacuation. D) Maintaining control of passengers after the evacuation.
63. For each aircraft type, CS-25 requires the manufacturer to: A) Demonstrate that all passengers and crew can be evacuated within 90 seconds with half of the emergency exits available. Conducted in darkness with a representative cross-section of ‘passengers’. B) Demonstrate that all passengers and crew can be evacuated within 60 seconds with 40% of the emergency exits available. Conducted in darkness with a representative cross-section of ‘passengers’. C) Demonstrate that all passengers and crew can be evacuated within 90 seconds with all of the emergency exits available. Conducted in darkness with a representative cross- section of ‘passengers’. D) Demonstrate that all 50% of passengers and crew can be evacuated within 90 seconds with half of the emergency exits available.
A) Demonstrate that all passengers and crew can be evacuated within 90 seconds with half of the emergency exits available. Conducted in darkness with a representative cross-section of ‘passengers’.
64. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the CS-25 requirement for fuel jettison systems? A) Fuel jettison systems are required to ensure that, within 15 minutes, the aircraft's mass can be reduced to a point where the aircraft will meet the approach climb gradient performance requirements. B) Fuel jettison systems are required to ensure that, within 15 minutes, the aircraft's mass can be reduced to a point where the aircraft will meet the maximum structural landing weight requirements. C) Fuel jettison systems are required to ensure that, within 30 minutes, the aircraft's mass can be reduced to a point where the aircraft will meet the approach climb gradient performance requirements. D) Fuel jettison systems are required to ensure that, within 30 minutes, the aircraft's mass can be reduced to a point where the aircraft will meet the maximum structural landing weight requirement.
A) Fuel jettison systems are required to ensure that, within 15 minutes, the aircraft's mass can be reduced to a point where the aircraft will meet the approach climb gradient performance requirements.
65. Which of the following statements about precautionary landings are accurate? A) Once landed, you will usually to taxi as per normal to stand. B) Declare PAN PAN if necessary. C) Some situations may require the aircraft to be towed from the runway or escorted by the fire services. D) ATC will apply a level of priority to your arrival. E) If the aircraft has to be evacuated, always execute an emergency evacuation.
A) Once landed, you will usually to taxi as per normal to stand. B) Declare PAN PAN if necessary. C) Some situations may require the aircraft to be towed from the runway or escorted by the fire services. D) ATC will apply a level of priority to your arrival.
66. Which of the following statements about an aircraft in distress (MAYDAY declared) is/are accurate?Mark all correct answers. A) ATC give absolute priority to handling the aircraft until it lands. B) Emergency services will be positioned close to the landing runway ready to assist. C) An emergency landing may or may not require a subsequent emergency evacuation. D) The priority is to minimise risk to life, regardless of disruption to routine operations.
A) ATC give absolute priority to handling the aircraft until it lands. B) Emergency services will be positioned close to the landing runway ready to assist. C) An emergency landing may or may not require a subsequent emergency evacuation. D) The priority is to minimise risk to life, regardless of disruption to routine operations.
67. __________ landing may be necessary when there is no immediate danger to the aeroplane, but a reduction in system redundancy, or a reduction in safety margins make it necessary to land rather than continue flight. A) A precautionary. B) An immediate. C) An emergency
A) A precautionary.
68. An emergency landing is required when there is an immediate risk to the aircraft or passengers. In this case declare a __________. A) MAYDAY B) PAN PAN C) Incident. D) Emergency.
A) MAYDAY
69. An inspection of an aircraft interior after passenger access, and of the hold, checking for suspicious objects'.This is a description of: A) An aircraft security check. B) Screening. C) A routine pre-flight safety check. D) An emergency check, following an IED telephone threat.
A) An aircraft security check.
70. Which 1 of the following statements accurately describes the security precautions at an airport? A) Areas of the airside of an airport are identified as priority risk areas where, in addition to access control, other security controls are applied. B) The landside area of an airport is more tightly controlled than the airside because the passengers have not yet been screened. C) For the purposes of security, airport areas are usually divided into topside, airside, landside, and runways. Appropriate security measures are put in place for each area. D) It's not possible to secure an airfield because of the very large perimeter boundary.
A) Areas of the airside of an airport are identified as priority risk areas where, in addition to access control, other security controls are applied.
71. The objectives of aviation security are:Mark 2 correct answers. A) The safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public. B) Safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference within civil aviation. C) Neutralising terrorists before they can reach the airport. D) Ensuring good passenger discipline.
A) The safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public. B) Safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference within civil aviation.
72. An aircraft is flying from London, Heathrow, UK to New York, JFK, USA and is within the NAT High Level Airspace at FL 360. A hydraulic warning light has come on, which may necessitate a change of level. The in-flight contingency procedure requires an offset from the assigned route. If prior clearance cannot be obtained, what would be the initial action?
A turn to the right of track of at least 30° towards the nearest alternate, which is Keflavik, Iceland.
73. An Operator is carrying out Commercial Air Transport with aeroplanes and helicopters, including Low Visibility Operations. Which annexes of the European Regulations on Air Operations contain the requirements applicable to this Operator?
Annexes 1, Ill (Part-ORO), IV (Part-CAT) and V (Part-SPA).
74. According to OPS regulations, what is the planning flight preparation minima for a destination alternate with a CAT Il approach available?
CAT 1 RVR
75. An aircraft has been flying with one of its two transponders defective and the failure has been deferred in accordance with the MEL. During a 30 minute turnaround, an engineer replaces the defective transponder with a new one. Prior to commencing the next commercial air transport flight, what must the commander ensure?
The engineer must certify to have changed the transponder in accordance with the prescribed procedures and maintenance release must be signed for by an authorised person
76. After a commercial passenger flight, the flight crew awaits by the baggage carousel for their luggage. Their hold luggage is delivered last, when all the passengers have already left. The flight crew notices that there is a piece of luggage remaining on the carousel which has NOT been claimed. According to ICAO Annex 17 and for security reasons, the definition of such baggage would be:
Unidentified baggage
77. A fast decompression is recognisable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. air streaming out of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
78. According to CS 25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within:
15 minutes
79. During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to wind shear with a decreasing headwind. ln the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane: 1. flies above the intended approach path 2. flies below the intended approach path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is:
2 and 4.
80. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
8 hours
81. Whenever practicable, what transponder code shall be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
A 7500
82. To avoid wake turbulence, when flying behind and close to a large aeroplane, the pilot should manoeuvre whenever possible:
above and upwind from the large aeroplane.
83. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
an unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface.
84. When taking-off after a wide body aircraft which has just landed, you should take- off:
beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
85. What is the definition for a microburst? A microburst lasts for about 1 minute to 5 minutes and is a highly concentrated and powerful:
downdraught of air, typically less than 5 km across.
86. For a given ambient temperature and type of anti-icing fluid, in which of the following conditions will the holdover (protection) time be the shortest?
Freezing rain
87. Select the correct presentation of friction measurement or calculated coefficient in a SNOWTAM:
H) 46/39/44 SFH
88. Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:
immediately inform the local ATS unit.
89. One of the main characteristics of windshear is:
it can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes.
90. A runway where braking coefficients are reported as 31 /30/29 would have an estimated braking action of:
Medium, with the last third being medium to poor.
91. An aircraft having undertaken an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid:
must undertake a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid before take-off.
92. According to Certification Specifications for Large Aeroplanes (CS 25), when an aeroplane needs to show compliance with the Emergency Evacuation requirements with an actual demonstration:
not more than 50% of the emergency exits in the sides of the fuselage may be used.
93. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
Poor
94. A light aircraft is landing in a busy airport which operates multiple runways. Which runway should the pilot choose as preferential to avoid wake turbulence after a heavy aircraft landing?
RWY 18, 13 kt crosswind
95. What is the definition for horizontal windshear?
The change of the horizontal wind vector with horizontal distance, as might be determined by two or more anemometers mounted at the same height along a runway.
96. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the establishment of noise abatement procedures by the operator?
The operator should establish its own NADPs by complying with the NADPs published by the authority.
97. Who is responsible for establishing the procedures for inspecting an aircraft when ground de-icing and anti-icing make this necessary?
The operator.
98. Two aeroplanes are arriving from the same direction to land at an airport where making a straight-in approach and landing with a tailwind (within operational limits) will shorten the flight time by a few minutes. One of the aeroplanes has carbon brakes and the other steel brakes.
There can be a benefit in landing with a tailwind using carbon brakes as carbon brakes remain efficient at high temperatures and the wear is mainly determined by the number of applications.
99. During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
to put on the oxygen mask
100. The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
under 2500 ft.
101. In case of a cargo compartment fire, the system which should be switched off, is generally the:
ventilation of the cargo compartment
102. ln case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurised aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
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