SYS 01

1. The advantages of carbon composites are:1 - Light.2 - Stiff.3 - Strong.4 - Resistant to fatigue.5 - Good electrical insulator.6 - Resistant to corrosion.7 - Corrodes easily. A) 1 2 3 4 6 B) 1 2 3 5 6 C) 2 3 5 D) 1 2 3 5 7

2. Airframe structures can experience:1 - Static loads.2 - Dynamic loads.3 - Vertical loads.4 - Horizontal loads.5 - Cyclic loads. A) 1 2 3 4 5 B) 1 3 5 C) 2 4 5 D) 1 2 4 5

3. On a conventionally constructed aluminium airframe, possible signs of overstress include:1 - Buckled or distorted skin panels.2 - Skin delamination.3 - Structural distortion.4 - Loose or popped rivets.5 - Cracks. A) 1 3 4 5 B) 1 2 3 4 5 C) 1 2 4 5 D) 3 4 5

4. The risk of metal fatigue increase with:1 - A high number of flight cycles.2 - High ambient temperature.3 - Corrosion.4 - Poor maintenance practices.5 - A single very hard manoeuvre in flight (for example to avoid another aircraft). A) 1 3 4 B) 1 3 5 C) 2 3 4 D) 1 2 5

5. The conditions most likely to lead to airframe corrosion are:1 - Warm, humid atmosphere.2 - High temperatures.3 - Cold temperatures.4 - Salt-laden atmosphere.5 - Poor maintenance practices. A) 1 4 5 B) 1 2 4 5 C) 1 2 3 4 5 D) 1 3 5

6. Which of the following statements about composites is true? A) Different types of composite are used on different parts of the structure. B) Composites can suffer from corrosion, just like metals. C) All composites conduct electricity relatively well. D) Composites can't be used to create structural (load-bearing) components, such as the wing spar.

7. The maximum permissible mass on landing, in normal circumstances is defined by the __________. A) Maximum Structural Landing Mass B) Maximum All-Up Mass C) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass

8. The maximum permissible mass for the aircraft plus payload but with no useable fuel is the __________. A) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass B) Maximum Ramp Mass C) The Basic Empty Mass

9. The maximum permissible mass at the start of the take-off run is the __________. A) Maximum Structural Take-off Mass B) Maximum Ramp Mass

10. The maximum permissible mass before the aircraft starts to taxi is the: __________. A) Maximum Structural Ramp Mass B) Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass C) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass

11. A sheet of __________ can be created so that it has different strength and stiffness in different directions. A) Composite Material B) Aluminium C) Steel

12. The technique of duplicating critical parts of an aircraft's structure so that if one part fails, the other can safely carry all the loads, is a design safety method known as __________. A) redundancy B) duplex C) critical path analysis

13. The parts of the structure most prone to stress are the wing __________. A) roots B) tips C) leading edges

14. Stresses and strains within an airframe are present __________. A) in flight and on the ground B) only in flight

15. A composite structure may comprise: A) Carbon B) Glass C) Kevlar (aramid) D) Resin and filler

16. Carbon-based composites conduct electricity relatively __________. A) well B) badly

17. Which of the following are common types of aircraft design?1 - W-tail2 - Steep wing3 - High wing4 - Narrow wing5 - Fish-tail6 - High-set tailplane7 - Low wing8 - Mid-set tailplane9 - Blunt wing10 - T-tail A) 3 6 7 8 10 B) 1 2 6 8 9 10 C) 3 5 6 7 8 10 D) 3 6 7 8 9

18. Joining of modern aircraft structures can be achieved by a number of methods, these include:1 - Riveting2 - Fastening3 - Bonding4 - Nailing5 - Bolting6 - Welding A) 1 2 3 5 6 B) 1 2 3 4 5 C) 2 3 4 5 6

19. Which of the following are the common fuselage cross-sections?1 - Octagonal2 - Rectangular 3 - Circular 4 - Triangular5 - Oval6 - Double-bubble 7 - T-shaped A) 2 3 5 6 B) 2 3 5 7 C) 1 2 4 5 D) 1 3 5 6

20. The pressure hull experiences the following 2 main types of stress: A) Axial stress and hoop stress B) Hoop stress and shear stress C) Axial stress and bending stress D) Shear stress and torsion stress

21. Flutter can be defined as: A) An oscillation caused by the interplay between aerodynamic forces and torsional stiffness. B) An oscillation caused by the interplay between lateral forces and directional forces. C) The lateral forces which are imposed in asymmetric flight. D) An oscillation caused by the interplay between atmospheric forces and torsional stiffness.

22. Flutter can occur in the:1 - Torsion box.2 - Wings 3 - Horizontal stabiliser4 - Flaps5 - Longerons6 - Tailplane A) 2 3 6 B) 1 3 5 C) 2 4 6 D) 1 2 3 6

23. Flutter countermeasures include:1 - Rearward-mounted engines on the wing2 - Forward-mounted engines on the wing3 - Low torsional stiffness4 - Forward CG bias to the integral wing tanks5 - Rearward CG bias to the integral wing tanks6 - Good torsional stiffness A) 2 4 6 B) 2 3 6 C) 1 4 6 D) 1 2 3 4 5

24. A fuselage shell constructed over frames and ribs is a __________ design. A) semi-monocoque B) monocoque C) torsion box

25. A structural shell is called a __________ structure. A) monocoque B) semi-monocoque C) torsion box

26. In an aircraft fuselage structure, the floor panels are supported by one or more __________. A) cross-beams B) longerons C) stringers

27. The structural shape of the fuselage is defined by the __________. A) frames B) ribs C) stringers

28. In a conventional aluminium fuselage structure, frames determine the shape. The skin is reinforced by: __________. A) stiffeners, stringers and longerons B) aluminium plates C) composite shells

29. Where there are joints in an aircraft structure, a second overlapping layer of material may be used. These are known as __________. A) doublers B) lappers C) overbondings

30. __________ bulkheads are located at each end of the fuselage of a pressurised aircraft. A) Pressure B) Non-structural C) Structural

31. In between the bulkheads there may be other __________ bulkheads. A) structural and non-structural B) structural C) non-structural

32. Hidden damage to the rear pressure bulkhead is a potentially catastrophic effect of a __________. A) tailstrike B) birdstrike C) heavy landing

33. The main structural component of the wing is the __________. A) main spar or torsion box B) wing rib C) wing root

34. On a conventional aluminium structure, the skin of a wing is mounted on __________ and longerons. A) ribs B) cross-beams C) main spars D) doublers

35. In large aircraft wings, the main spar usually comprises a type of __________. A) torsion box B) pressure bulkhead C) rib or frame

36. The main spar is attached to __________. A) a central wing box B) two or more fuselage frames C) a series of longerons

37. Wings must have sufficient bending flexibility to absorb __________ loads. A) vertical B) horizontal C) shear D) lateral

38. __________ forces are imposed by asymmetric flight. A) Lateral B) Horizontal C) Vertical D) No additional

39. In asymmetric flight there is a significant risk of overstressing the airframe with large __________ inputs. A) rudder B) aileron C) elevator

40. In commercial aircraft, passenger loading doors are always: A) Only on the port side. B) Only on the starboard side. C) On either side of the fuselage. D) Only at the front and rear of the fuselage.

41. The doors of pressurised aircraft are usually: A) A plug type design. B) Over-centre locking. C) Hydraulically or electrically operated. D) Made from composite materials.

42. Which of the following is a CS 25 requirement for an unpressurised aircraft? A) A direct vision window capable of being opened in flight. B) A direct vision window capable of being opened on the ground only. C) Loading doors on the starboard side. D) Doors hinging on the horizontal side.

43. What is required to ensure that each pilot sits at the design eye point? A) An eye reference position. B) A throttle reference position. C) A direct vision window. D) An indirect vision indicator.

44. Which of the following are specific countermeasure(s) to ensure that the floors don't buckle in the event of an in-flight failure of a cargo compartment door:1 - Cross- beams.2 - Stringers.3 - Cabin to cargo floor vents.4 - Outflow valve.

45. Doors hinge on the __________ side. A) vertical B) horizontal C) left D) right

46. Unpressurised aircraft __________ plug type doors. A) don't have B) usually have

47. Flight deck windows are constructed with __________ for __________. A) multiple layers; strength B) multiple layers; visibility C) a single layer; cost reduction D) a single layer; aesthetics

48. Flight deck windows are __________ to increase their ability to withstand a birdstrike. A) heated B) cooled C) polarised

49. Which of the following design features contribute towards the safety of normal access doors fitted to commercial air transport aircraft? A) Tapered edges, pins and stops, positive cabin pressure B) Serrated edges, pins and stops, negative cabin pressure C) Tapered edges, single locking mechanism, negative cabin pressure D) Tapered edges, single locking mechanism, positive cabin pressure

50. Hydrostatic pressure is primarily the result of: A) The weight force of the fluid acting on itself. B) The weight force of the fluid acting on the Earth. C) The motion of the fluid. D) The temperature of the fluid.

51. Pascal’s Law states that: A) Pressure exerted anywhere in a confined, incompressible fluid is transmitted equally in all directions throughout the fluid. B) Pressure exerted externally in a compressible fluid is transmitted equally in all directions throughout the fluid. C) Pressure exerted anywhere in a confined, compressible fluid is transmitted vertically throughout the fluid. D) Pressure increases with increased temperature of the fluid.

52. In hydraulic systems, the standard imperial unit of pressure is: A) Lb per square in B) Kg per square in C) Lb per square cm D) Ft lbs

53. If a piston in a cylinder is connected by a tube to another cylinder which also has a piston: A) Pressure on one piston is immediately translated into a force on the other. B) Pressure on one piston is not felt in the other cylinder. C) The mass of one piston is slowly translated into the movement on the other. D) A venturi effect is created.

54. The properties of an Ideal hydraulic fluid include which of the following:1 - Thermal stability2 - High flammability3 - Low flashpoint4 - Low flammability5 - Low volatility6 - Flow viscosity7 - High flashpoint8 - Corrosion resistance9. Thermal instability10. High volatility A) 1 4 5 6 7 8 B) 2 4 6 7 8 C) 1 6 7 8 D) 1 2 3 8

55. Select the correct statement below: A) Hydraulic systems are better than mechanical ones because they can deliver very large amounts of force with little effort. B) Mechanical systems are preferable to hydraulic ones because they can deliver large amounts of force with little friction. C) Hydraulic systems are much heavier than mechanical systems. D) A large amount of energy is lost in transmitting power in a hydraulic system.

56. Hydraulic systems may be used to operate:1 - The flight controls.2 - The flaps and/or spoilers.3 - The cargo hatches.4 - The thrust reversers.5 - The speed brake.6 - The landing gear.7 - The nose wheel steering.8 - The wheel brakes.9. The pressurisation outflow valve. A) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 B) 1 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 C) 1 2 3 4 5 D) 4 5 6 7

57. Low pressure systems typically operate at: A) Up to 2000 psi. B) Up to 5000 psi. C) Up to 1000 psi. D) Up to 10000 psi.

58. High pressure systems typically operate at: A) Up to 5000 psi. B) Up to 2000 psi. C) Up to 1000 psi. D) Up to 10000 psi.

59. Hydrostatic pressure acts __________. A) in all directions simultaneously B) vertically only C) horizontally only D) perpendicularly only

60. In a hydraulic system, __________ is multiplied when small pistons operate much larger ones. A) force B) pressure C) moments

61. Hydraulic fluids are __________ and irritate the eyes and skin. A) corrosive B) non-corrosive C) blue D) very volatile

62. There are 2 types of hydraulic fluid: __________ and mineral. It is __________ to mix the 2 types. A) synthetic; forbidden B) synthetic; permissible C) organic; forbidden D) organic; permissible

63. The pressures used in aircraft systems are between __________ and __________ psi. A) 2000; 5000 B) 2000; 8000 C) 500; 5000 D) 1000; 8000

64. In a basic hydraulic system: A piston in a cylinder, known as the __________ operates a service. A) actuator B) pump C) operator

65. To prevent back-flow, a hydraulic systems uses __________ valves. A) non-return B) selector C) shut-off D) return

66. __________ hydraulic systems use a pump to generate hydraulic pressure. A) active B) passive

67. __________ hydraulic systems use human effort to generate hydraulic pressure. A) passive B) active

68. In a basic hydraulic system: At pressures of between 2000 and 5000 psi, hydraulic fluid is considered to be __________. A) incompressible B) compressible C) unstable D) flammable

69. In a basic hydraulic system: A hydraulic pump generates pressure and a selector valve to direct pressurised fluid to either side of the __________. A) actuator B) accumulator C) reservoir

70. Selector valves operated by the pilot or by other systems, direct fluid pressure to various parts of the system or to either side of an actuator. Types of selector valve include:1 - Parallel2 - Associated3 - 2-port4 - Terminal5 - Linear6 - 4-port A) 3 5 6 B) 2 3 5 6 C) 2 5 6 D) 1 3 6

71. A swash-plate pump, operated by a control piston is a description of which of the following: A) A type of constant pressure pump. B) A type of actuator. C) A type of spur gear pump. D) A type of RAT.

72. Select all of the correct statements:1 - Accumulators may store pressure energy using compressed nitrogen.2 - Accumulators may store pressure energy using compressed helium.3 - In the event of a pump failure, the reservoir supplies emergency pressure.4 - Accumulators help to even out pressure spikes. A) 1 4 B) 1 2 C) 1 3 D) 2 3

73. Which of the following statements is correct: A) Commercial aircraft require, as a minimum, duplicated hydraulic systems which are completely separate. B) Commercial aircraft require, as a minimum, a single hydraulic system. C) Commercial aircraft require as a minimum, triplicated hydraulic systems, two of which are completely separate from the third. D) Commercial aircraft may use a PTU to power a second system in normal operations.

74. A leak in the hydraulic system might be indicated by which of the following:1 - High pressure.2 - Low pressure.3 - High temperature.4 - Low temperature.5 - Hammering.6 - Thermal expansion. A) 2 3 B) 1 2 6 C) 1 3 5 D) 2 4 5

75. A __________-acting actuator directs hydraulic pressure to either side of the piston, to move it in two directions. A) double B) single C) reverse

76. A __________-acting actuator directs hydraulic pressure to one side of a piston. A) single B) double C) reverse

77. The electrically driven pump used to operate the landing gear is an example of an/a __________ system. A) on demand B) constant pressure C) limiter D) bypass

78. The engine driven pump in a large aircraft used to operate the flight controls is an example of an/a __________ system. A) constant pressure B) on demand C) limiter D) bypass

79. In a spur gear pump, the output pressure depends on __________. A) RPM B) ambient temperature C) gear winding D) actuator resistance

80. Baffle plates in a reservoir __________ the returning fluid. A) de-aerate B) pressurise C) heat D) filter

81. Reservoirs __________ pressurised. A) are sometimes B) are not C) cannot be

82. The purpose of a __________ system is to re-route fluid in the event of a blocked filter. A) bypass B) relief C) restrictor D) constant pressure

83. A __________ vents excess pressure. A) PRV or relief valve B) hydraulic fuse C) shut-off valve

84. A __________ automatically shuts-off a leaking part of a system. A) fuse B) PRV valve C) shut-off valve

85. A __________ automatically supplies a service from the highest power source. A) shuttle valve B) priority valve C) relief valve

86. A __________ reduces the flow speed of an hydraulic system. A) restrictor valve B) relief valve C) hydraulic fuse

87. A __________ maintains pressure in one part of a system, when pressure is falling elsewhere. A) priority valve B) PRV C) restrictor D) hydraulic fuse

88. The hydraulic control panel of a large commercial jet transport allows pumps to be switched on and usually gives warnings or indications of abnormal __________ . A) pressure, temperature and fluid quantity B) pressure and fluid quantity C) fluid quantity, pressure, temperature and operation of PRVs and fuses

89. High system demand may cause temporary __________, resulting in slower activation of some services. A) low pressure B) high pressure C) hammering D) automatic shut-off

90. When checking the oleo extension before flight, you discover it is very compressed. Which of the following could be a valid cause:1 - Excess oil in the oleo.2 - Insufficient oil in the oleo.3 - Low nitrogen pressure.4 - High nitrogen pressure. A) 2 3 B) 1 3 C) 1 4 D) 2 4

91. Emergency landing gear extension can be carried out by which of the following methods:1 - Manual hand pump.2 - APU hydraulic power.3 - Gravity.4 - Reverse interlocks.5 - Nitrogen blow-down. A) 1 3 5 B) 2 4 C) 1 3 D) 1 5

92. Which of the following actions are subject to limiting air speeds:1 - Gear retraction. 2 - Gear extension. 3 - Emergency gear extension.4 - Emergency gear retraction. A) 1 2 3 B) 1 3 C) 2 4 D) 1 4

93. Which of the following best describes shimmy: A) Shimmy primarily occurs to nose wheels, taking the form of violent oscillations left and right, causing shuddering and vibration felt through the aircraft. B) Shimmy primarily occurs to bogies, taking the form of violent oscillations left and right, causing shuddering and vibration. C) Shimmy primarily occurs to nose wheels, causing loss of braking effectiveness. D) None of these

94. Which of the following statements about 'nose wheel first landing' is correct: A) The nose wheel strut and mounts are not built to withstand the shock of a nose wheel first landing and may either collapse or be severely damaged. B) Nose wheel first landing is the correct landing procedure in a severe crosswind. C) Although a nose wheel first landing shouldn't happen, the nose wheel strut and mounts are built to withstand the associated shocks and loads. D) A nose wheel landing on an aircraft with a long fuselage will not cause damage to the fuselage structure.

95. Which of these statements about landing gear is/are correct? A) The two main types of landing gear are: a tricycle with a nose wheel; tail wheel. B) Nose wheel steering is only possible on a tricycle gear system. C) Nose wheel steering is the only method of steering a tricycle landing gear system. D) An excessively compressed oleo might indicate low oil quantity, or low nitrogen pressure, or both.

96. Bogies contain multiple wheels, each pair of wheels are mounted on an __________ attached to the bogie beam. A) axle B) bogie

97. The landing gear is locked down by __________ down-locks and __________ locks. A) hydraulic; over-centre B) hydraulic; retractable C) hydraulic; interlock D) manual; over-centre

98. The landing gear is locked up by __________. A) hydraulic up-locks B) over-centre locks C) interlock

99. A __________ activates an interlock in the landing gear lever to prevent inadvertent raising on the ground. A) weight-on-wheels switch B) undercarriage locking pin

100. After using the emergency gear extension system it __________ possible to retract the gear. A) is not B) is

101. After lowering the gear using the emergency system __________ must be used as soon as possible after the aircraft has come to a halt on the ground. A) ground locking pins B) over locking pins C) ground safety switches

102. On a large commercial aircraft, when you select landing gear UP, __________ to avoid spinning tyres rubbing against the wheel bay walls. A) a nose wheel centering system operates B) you must manually centre the rudder pedals

103. Measures to prevent or reduce shimmy include: A) Shimmy dampers B) Marstrand tyres. C) Steerable main bogies. D) Taxiing on one engine.

104. Tyre limiting speed is primarily determined by: A) The limited amount of ground-rolling forces a tyre structure can withstand. B) The runway surface coefficient of friction. C) The amount of tread remaining on the tyre. D) The ambient temperature at the airport.

105. You are making external checks of your aircraft before take-off. Which of the following is acceptable: A) Small cuts and scrapes showing on the main tread. B) Tread wear indicator no longer visible, but the tyre is otherwise in very good condition. C) Cuts in the tyre sidewalls but no cuts in the tyre tread. D) An over (but not under) inflated tyre.

106. Which of the following statements are correct:1 - Large aircraft discs can be made from carbon.2 - Large aircraft discs can be made from steel.3 - Steel has a higher operating temperature than carbon.4 - Carbon has a higher operating temperature than steel.5 - Steel has a better coefficient of friction and wears less than carbon.6 - Carbon has a better coefficient of friction and wears less than steel.7 - Steel discs are lighter than carbon discs. A) 1 2 4 6 B) 2 4 6 7 C) 1 3 5 6 D) 1 2 4 7

107. Which of the following statements about hydraulic braking systems is/ are correct: A) Emergency brake pressure is provided by a brake accumulator. B) Emergency braking usually allows 20 applications. C) Emergency brake pressure is provided by a brake enhancer. D) Emergency braking usually only allows a single application of the brakes.

108. Which of the following correctly describes the anti-skid system: A) The anti-skid computer uses sensors which measure main wheel rotation to detect any rapid deceleration of a wheel. B) The anti-skid computer uses sensors which measure main wheel rotation to detect any rapid acceleration of a wheel. C) The anti-skid computer uses sensors which measure main and nose wheel rotation to detect any rapid deceleration of any wheel. D) If a rapid acceleration or deceleration of any wheel is sensed, the anti-skid system automatically applies brake pressure to the affected wheel.

109. Which of the following statement(s) concerning auto-brake is/are correct: A) The auto-brake system must be armed by the crew before landing. B) The auto-brake system applies a small amount of brake pressure before landing. C) The auto-brake system is armed on touch down. D) The auto-brake system works even if the anti-skid system is not working. E) The auto-brake system automatically sets the target level of retardation.

110. A tyre's __________ rating indicates the tyre’s strength. A) ply B) tread C) fuse D) plug

111. __________ adds grip to a tyre by expelling water, and usually has a ribbed pattern. A) Tread B) Rating C) Fusing D) Plying

112. Bonding a new tread pattern onto a worn tyre is called __________. A) re-treading B) treading C) re-rating D) re-fusing

113. Excessive movement of a tyre around its rim is known as __________. A) tyre creep B) brake creep C) aquaplaning

114. If the creep marks indicate excessive movement, the tyre must be __________. A) re-fitted B) replaced C) re-balanced

115. On landing, a sudden emergency requires you to apply maximum possible braking.The subsequent risk is __________ caused by the transfer of energy from the braking system to the tyre. A __________ may activate to release excessive tyre pressure. A) tyre overheat; fusible plug B) tyre overheat; hydraulic fuse C) tyre overheat; pressure bypass vent D) tyre wear; fusible plug E) tyre wear; hydraulic fuse F) tyre wear; pressure bypass vent

116. Light single-engine aircraft typically use __________ disc(s) per wheel. A) a single B) multiple

117. The brake __________ is usually operated by 2 or 3 hydraulic pistons. A) calliper B) shoe

118. On 'more electric' aircraft, such as the Boeing 787, the brake callipers are operated __________. A) electrically B) hydraulically

119. On landing, disc brakes must absorb much of the __________ energy of the aircraft. A) kinetic B) potential

120. The capability of a braking system is primarily limited by its capacity to absorb __________. A) heat B) mechanical shear C) tyre creep

121. The brake wear indicator pins must be checked __________. A) before every flight B) at the start of every day C) on a weekly basis D) when braking feels reduced

122. Anti-skid can operate __________ time(s) per second and substantially reduces the landing roll in poor surface friction conditions. A) many B) a few C) one single

123. Touch down protection is a system which __________ before landing. A) releases brake pressure B) pre-charges brake pressure

124. Hydroplane protection systems may be applied to the __________. A) rear wheels on a bogie B) front wheels on a bogie C) main and nose wheels

125. Autobrake is automatically __________ if the pilot applies brakes manually. A) de-activated B) activated C) engaged

126. When 'RTO' is selected on the auto-brake control panel, maximum auto-braking begins __________ above a certain speed during the rejected take-off. A) automatically B) after a single application of brakes

127. The reduction in braking effectiveness towards the end of a landing run is known as __________ __________. A) brake fade B) brake wear C) brake limiting

128. Brake fade is caused by excessive __________. A) brake temperature B) type pressure C) tyre heating D) brake pressure

129. Which of the following are valid primary flight control actuation methods:1 - Manual: using cables, pulleys and bell-cranks.2 - Partially powered: using cables and levers assisted by hydraulic actuators.3 - Fully powered: with no mechanical connection between the pilot’s controls and the control surfaces. 4 - Electrically activated: using hydraulic actuators controlled by electrical signals. A) 1 2 3 4 B) 1 2 3 C) 2 3 4 D) 1 2

130. A partially powered flying control comprises: A) An hydraulic actuator attached in parallel to mechanical linkages. Movement of the pilot’s controls simultaneously moves the control surface and a servo, which moves the actuator. B) A mechanical linkage from the pilot's controls which operates a servo valve controlling an actuator which moves the control surface. C) An electrical linkage between the pilot's control and the servo valve controlling an actuator which moves the control surface.

131. A fully powered control: A) Is an irreversible control. B) Is a reversible control. C) Has an actuator which assists is moving the control column. D) When electrically driven, uses screwjacks to operate the control surfaces

132. The advantages of fly-by-wire include:1-Better flight envelope protection.2- Reduced pilot workload.3-No need for heavy hydraulic actuators.4-Improved situational awareness.5- Reduced weight. A) 1 2 5 B) 1 2 3 C) 2 3 4 D) 3 4 5

133. Which of these statements about fly-by wire is/are correct.1- Even in the most degraded mode, fly-by-wire provides some basic flight envelope protections.2- It isn't possible to stall a fly-by-wire aircraft. 3- Fly-by-wire systems completely eliminate hydraulic flight control components.4- The pilot can normally choose between 3 levels of fly-by-wire operation.5- Fly-by-wire sometimes reduces situational awareness.

134. Which of the following statements concerning sidesticks is most accurate A) Sidestick controllers sometimes degrade situation awareness because the PM can't easily see the control inputs made by the PF B) Sidestick controllers allow the PM to feel what the PF is doing C) When simultaneous inputs to sidestick controllers are made, only the PF's inputs are accepted by the computers D) When simultaneous inputs to sidestick controllers are made, the smallest (least extreme) inputs is accepted by the computers

135. Which of the following components are always used in a fly-by-wire system:1- Hydraulic actuators to move the control surfaces.2-Duplicated control cables running through different parts of the airframe to ensure redundancy.3-Computers to interpret and moderate pilot demands.4-Control surface position sensors to provide feedback to computers.5-At least triplicated electrical signalling wires, running through different parts of the airframe, to ensure redundancy. A) 1 3 4 5 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 2 3 4 D) 1 2 3

136. The device which helps to prevent excessive loads being applied to the fin at high airspeeds is called a:1-Rudder lock.2-Horizontal stabiliser3- Trim tab.4-Rudder limiter.5- Control lock.

137. __________ controls create no movement of the pilot’s controls when the control surface is 'wiggled' on the pre-flight walkround. A) Irreversible B) Reversible C) Integrated D) Manual

138. Feel is required to discourage the pilot from excessive control inputs, primarily at __________ speed. A Q-feel system is sensitive to __________ pressure. A) high; dynamic B) high; static C) low; dynamic D) low; static

139. All computer mediation absent, a simple relationship between pilot input and control surface movement and high pilot workload' best describes __________ fly-by- wire mode. A) direct law B) degraded operation C) assisted operation D) alternate law

140. Primary controls have a trimming facility whose purpose is to __________. A) null the loads felt by the pilot B) re-centre the controls

141. __________ is exceptionally powerful, so the device must be carefully managed and set precisely as calculated for take-off. A) A trimmable horizontal stabiliser B) The tailplane C) The trim tab

142. To protect reversible controls from hitting the stops in windy conditions __________ are used. A) control locks B) horizontal stabilisers C) actuators D) trim tabs

143. Which of the following are classified as secondary flight controls:1- Speed brakes.2- Elevators.3- Flaperons.4- Trailing edge flap.5- Leading edge devices.6- Rudder.7- Trimmers.8- Spoilers. A) 1 4 5 7 8 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 2 3 4 5 D) 5 6 7 8

144. Leading edge devices include:1- Krueger flaps.2- Rudder limiters.3- Leading edge flaps.4- Droop nose.5- Flaperons.6- Leading edge slats. A) 1 3 4 6 B) 2 3 4 5 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 1 2 4 5

145. A secondary flight control __________ directly change the yaw, pitch or roll of the aircraft. A) does not B) does C) always

146. Secondary flight controls are often operated by a screw jack actuator which has a locking function to __________ . A) hold the control in the desired position B) prevent the control from being extended at high airspeeds C) trim the primary control surface

147. In a light single-engine aircraft, the secondary flight controls are __________ operated manually. A) often B) always C) never

148. __________ flight controls can be actuated by electric or hydraulic motors. A) Secondary B) Primary

149. On a large commercial jet transport aircraft spoilers on the __________ surface of the wings extend to disrupt lift immediately after touch-down. A) upper B) lower C) upper and lower

150. The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the: 1. upper skin surface. 2. lower skin surface. 3. wing root fairing. 4. spar or spars. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

151. Which of the following can a pilot do to reduce the risk of overloading the airframe? 1. Avoid headwinds 2. Avoid large bank angles 3. Avoid turbulence 4. Fly below VA 5. Avoid tailwinds

152. What is the load in the upper and lower girder of the spar of a cantilever wing during straight and level flight?

153. What are the components which give the fuselage its cross-sectional shape?

154. ln a turn flight, which scenario will cause the most bending moment at the wing root?

155. In flight, a cantilever wing of an aeroplane containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment, which is:

156. Which of these statements about sandwich structural parts are correct or incorrect? I. A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material. II. A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.

157. A sandwich type structure is often used in aircraft because of its:

158. Pascal’s law states:

159. The fuselage structure of a pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a:

160. Which part of the fuselage carries loads imposed by pressurisation?

161. Why are hydraulic fluids hazardous to humans?

162. For fail safe designed structural components: 1. there is more than one load carrying component. 2. one load carrying component is sufficient, provided it is strong enough. 3. the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4. the design is based on the principle of redundancy of components. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

163. Select the option that best describes a fall-safe designed structure.

164. In a hard-time maintenance programme, a component must be replaced:

165. The principle of damage tolerance in structural design of an aircraft is based on the:

166. An aircraft in flight is affected by loads. These may be classified as:

167. Redundancy is:

168. According to EASA CS the worst effect of a CATASTROPHIC FAILURE on the flight crew could be:

169. Which of these statements about structural design principlesis/ are correct? I. Fail safe implies the structure will fail, when one component fails. II. A safe life structure is based on use during a limited time period or number of cycles.

170. For a safe life designed structure:

171. The ratio of the change in size of the deformed structure to the size of the non- deformed structure is called

172. If a fail-safe component of the aircraft structure is damaged:

173. What is hard time maintenance?

174. The expression "primary flight control" applies to the: 1: elevator. 2: speed brake. 3: lift-augmentation devices. 4: roll spoiler. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

175. The expression 'secondary flight control' applies to the: 1. Elevator. 2. Speed brake. 3. Lift-augmentation devices. 4. Roll spoilers. The correct statement are:

176. Movement of a reversible control surface will result in:

177. Rudder trim adjustment in an aeroplane with irreversible flight controls is:

178. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move:

179. Some aircraft use a fly-by-wire system to move the primary flight controls. This system is based on:

180. An artificial feel system:

181. Which of these statements about a gust lock system is/are correct? I. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. II. Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.

182. Which of these statements is/are correct, as regards trimming in an irreversible flight control system of a conventional aeroplane equipped with a trimmable horizontal stabiliser? I. The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the pitch trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel does not change when using the aileron trim.

183. Which of these statements about a gust lock system is / are correct? I. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence. II. There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls.

184. If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:

185. Why is the artificial feel required on some flight control systems?

186. What is the function of an auto-slat system?

187. The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide rotation about the:

188. On an aircraft, the Krueger flaps are:

189. Which of these statements about a gust lock systems is correct?

190. The range of movement of a control surface is limited by:

191. What are the advantages of a fly by wire system?

192. A primary stop is mounted on an elevator control system in order to:

193. What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its longitudinal axis?

194. An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel of a flight control system when:

195. Most transport aeroplanes are provided with protection against control jamming. This means that:

196. Given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls, how is control maintained if one hydraulic system is lost due to a hydraulic leak?

197. Given a conventional transport aeroplane with irreversible flight controls on the ground with engines running, which of these statements about rudder trim actuation is correct?

198. What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its vertical axis?

199. A double-pole switch is used to activate the elevator trim:

200. When does the flap load limiter operate?

201. Most large conventional aeroplanes are not provided with aileron and rudder trim tabs. Is it still possible to trim these control surfaces?

202. The systems used for emergency extension of landing systems may comprise: 1. Compressed CO2. 2. Compressed nitrogen. 3. Compressed oxygen. 4. Auxiliary hydraulic system. 5. Free-fall (gravity). The correct statements are:

203. A tubeless tyre has: 1. A built-in air tube. 2. No built-in air tube. 3. A crossed side casing. 4. A radial side casing. The correct statements are:

204. Consider a pre-flight inspection of the aircraft tyres. Which option describes a condition where a tyre can still be acceptable (airworthy)?

205. The ply rating of a tyre is:

206. Your landing gear is stuck, how can it be released?

207. The autobrake system is disconnected during landing:

208. In a typical commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:

209. When landing on a slippery runway, the autobrake system (ABS):

210. Over centre mechanisms in landing gear systems are generally used to:

211. The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is:

212. Which statement about rudder pedal nose wheel steering of a jet transport aeroplane is correct?

213. Landing gear torque links are used to:

214. Which of these statements about rudder pedal nose wheel steering is correct?

215. Which statement about the auto-brake and anti-skid system ls correct?

216. What is the purpose of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut?

217. If the grooves or tread of a tyre are worn down then:

218. For aircraft equipped with a landing gear anti-retract latch, which of these statements is correct?

219. Some aeroplanes have main landing gear that have steering capability on the ground. What is the main purpose for this?

220. Which is the best technique for braking during taxi?

221. The autobrake system:

222. Which of these statements about an auto-brake system during RTO (Rejected Take Off) is correct?

223. During hydroplaning, the friction coefficient between tyre and runway surface is approximately:

224. Hydraulic fluids should have the following characteristics: 1. thermal stability 2. anti-corrosive 3. high flash-point 4. high compressibility 5. high volatility The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

225. In a hydraulic brake system of a transport aircraft, an accumulator is pre- charged to 1200 PSI. If an electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 PSI, the pressure gauge, which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, will read:

226. When hydraulic systems have failed when using a fully powered flight control system, movement of the normal pilot's control input will result in:

227. In an aircraft with dual hydraulic systems, Joss of hydraulic system pressure from one system will normally be indicated in the cockpit by:

228. Hydraulic systems, when operating normally, are pressurised by:

229. After losing the normal hydraulic system that powers the brakes on most large transport aeroplanes, the alternate supply is provided by:

230. How is hydraulic pressure sensed?

231. The purposes of an accumulator in a hydraulic system are to:

232. Hydraulic pressure can be expressed as:

233. Generally, on modern jet transport aeroplanes, if there is a complete hydraulic system failure, the landing gear can be extended by:

234. A separate pressure regulator is used in a hydraulic system:

235. Which property must a fluid have for a hydraulic system to operate correctly?

236. A single action actuator:

237. What is a desirable property of hydraulic fluids?

238. The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be:

239. Hydraulic fluid in the reservoir is pressurised to:

240. The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is to:

241. Hydraulic power is a function of:

242. Viscosity is:

243. Axial piston pumps are often used in hydraulic systems due to:

244. The characteristics of hydraulic fluids are:

245. The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is: